firday 11th Flashcards

1
Q

first line treatment o open angle glaucome

A

if <24 mmHg then 360 laser trebeculoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what cancer can myelodysplastic syndrome progress into

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ix for SAH

A

non contrast CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what hpv causes genital warts

A

6/11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

first line treatment for syphilis and gonorrhoea

what is given in each case if needle phobic

A

SYPH- IM Benpen
2- doxcyclin

GON- IM cef
2- cefixime+azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a CD4+ count of what classes as AIDS

A

<200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when shoudl you test someone for HIV post exposure

A

4 weeks after exposre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

multiple ring enhancing lesions on head scan in person with HIV

A

toxoplasmosis gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is kaposis sarcoma caused by

A

human herpes virus 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ziehls neelsen positive organism

A

mycobacterium and cryptosporidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

if someone has multidermotomal herpes zoster what should you screen for

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when do you start HAART therapy in HIV

A

as soon as diagnosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how long after HIV exposure can PEP be given and for how long

A

up to 72 hrs continue for 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how long after last period should contraception be used

A

> 50 = 12 months
<50 = 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when is menopause diagnosed in clinic

type of HRT given peri and post meno

A

12 months after last period

peri - cyclical
post- continuous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment of acute otitis media if needed

A

amoxicillen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

treatment of pneumocystis jiroveci

A

co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

contraindications for HRT

A

current/past breast ca
OE sens cancer
undiagnosed vag/endo bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what type of HRT shoudl women with hysterectomy or mirena be given

A

oestrogen only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what type of HRT shoudl perimenopausal women without. amirena be given

A

cyclical HRT - daily oestrogen adn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what type of HRT increases risk of VTE

A

oral not the patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what type of cancers does HRT increase risk of

A

ovarian and breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how long post partum is cervical smear delayed

A

3months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most common type of cervical cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

risk factors for cervical cancer

A

HPV 16,18,33
smoking
HIV
early first intercourse, many sexual partners
high parity
lower socioeconomic status
COCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Koilocytosis

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CIN I, II, III

A

CIN I - basal third
CIN II - middle third
CIN III (carcinoma in situ ) - full thickness

28
Q

halo cells

A

HPV

29
Q

stagng system for cervical cancer

A

FIGO

30
Q

CIN develops from what area of cervix

A

ectocervix
adeno- endocervix

31
Q

causes of vulval intraepithelial neoplasi

A

lichen scelrosis and HPV

32
Q

treatment of vulvular SCC

A

vulvectomy adn lymphaadenectomy

33
Q

treatment of lichen scelrosis

A

steroids and emollients

34
Q

causes of menorrhagia

A

dysfunctional uterine bleeding: eg . anovulatory cycles
uterine fibroids
hypothyroidism
intrauterine devices
pelvic inflammatory disease
bleeding disorders, e.g. von Willebrand disease

35
Q

what is adenomyosis

A

endometrium breaks into myometrium

36
Q

what is menorrhagia in the absense of roganic symtoms called

A

Dysfunctional uterine bleedign

37
Q

first line treatment for heavy bleeding

A

IUS

38
Q

investigation in fibroids

A

TVUS

39
Q

mangement of primary dysmenorrhoea

A

NSAID - mefenamic acid
IUS

40
Q

causes of secondary dysmneoorhoa

A

endometriosis
adenomyosis
pelvic inflammatory disease
intrauterine devices*
fibroids

41
Q

how to distinguish pain in primary vs secondary dysmenorrhoea

A

primary few hours before period
seondary - few days before

42
Q

treatment of endometrial hyperplasia

A

IUS
hysterectoy if atypical

43
Q

what criteria is used for PCOS

A

rotterdam

44
Q

LH and FSH levels in PCOS

A

increased LH
normla FSH

45
Q

management of PCOS

A

optimise BMI
hormonal contraception

46
Q

tx of PCOS if trying

A

clomifene

47
Q

prolonged heavy periods

A

adenomyosisi

48
Q

bulky uterus

A

adenomyosis

49
Q

what age is primary amenorrhoea defined

A

age 16

50
Q

what is a krukenberg tumour

A

a gastric cancer thats metastesised to ovary - signet cells mucin producing

51
Q

what size are benign ovarian tumours

A

<5cm

52
Q

benign epithelial ovarian tumours

A

serous cystadenoma
mucinous cystadenoma

53
Q

four types of germ cells ovarian tumours - which are malignant

A

teratoma
dysgerminoma
yolk sac tumour
choriocarcinoma

all malignant except teratoma

54
Q

what endometrial thickness makes malignancy unlikely

A

<4mm

55
Q

what is endometrial hyperplasia histologically

A

increase in gland:stromal ratio

56
Q

most common type of endometrial cancer

A

adenocarcinoma - endometroid type 1

57
Q

microsatillite instability

A

lynch syndrome

58
Q

most common ovarian cancer

A

serous adenocarcinoma

59
Q

what tumour marker is increased in mucinous ovarian cancer

A

CEA

60
Q

what do granulosa cell tumour produce

A

oestrogen

61
Q

call-exner bodies

A

granulosa cell tumours

62
Q

ovarian tumour increased AFP

A

yolk sac

63
Q

varian tumour increased HCG

A

choriocarcinoma

64
Q

what tumour markers would you do in ovarian cancer

A

Ca125
AFP
CEA
HCG

65
Q

enlarged boggy uterus

A

adenomyosis

66
Q

side effect of aromatase inhibitors -anastrozole

A

osteoporosis