FINALS OB Flashcards by

A 32-week pregnant woman presents with watery vaginal discharge and occasional uterine contractions. Examination shows a fundal height of 31 cm, fetal heart tones at 138 bpm, gross pooling of clear amniotic fluid on speculum exam, and 2 cm cervical dilation. What is the appropriate management?

Choices:
A. Give tocolytics
B. Proceed to delivery
C. Send the patient home
D. Expectant management unless fetal lung maturity is documented

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A contracted mid-pelvis includes which of the following findings?

Choices:
A. Sacral promontory is easily accessible
B. The sub-pubic angle is less than 90°
C. The sacrum is flat
D. The sacro-sciatic notch admits three fingerbreadths

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What is the appropriate treatment regimen for pulmonary tuberculosis (PTB) in pregnant women with active disease?

Choices:
A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 2 months only
B. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 2 months, followed by Isoniazid + Rifampin for 4 months
C. Isoniazid + Pyridoxine + Rifampin for 2 months, followed by Isoniazid + Rifampin for 4 months
D. Isoniazid + Pyridoxine + Rifampin for 2 months only

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A 30-year-old G4P3 (2103) at 28 weeks gestation presents with headache, dizziness, and joint pains. BP is 180/100 mmHg, PR is 92/min, and urinalysis shows no proteinuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Choices:
A. Preeclampsia with severe features
B. HELLP syndrome
C. Gestational hypertension
D. Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia

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A multigravida presents to the ER with dysuria, fever, chills, vomiting, and costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis reveals pyuria. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Choices:
A. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
B. Cystitis
C. Urethritis
D. Pyelonephritis

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A 26-year-old G1P0 at 8 weeks gestation presents with nausea and vomiting for 1 week, severe retching, weight loss of 8 lbs, and occasional coffee-ground vomitus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Choices:
A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
B. Boerhaave syndrome
C. Cushing’s syndrome
D. Wernicke’s encephalopathy

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Which of the following is a severe feature of preeclampsia?

Choices:
A. Creatinine > 1.1 mg/dL
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Non-dependent edema
D. Intrauterine growth restriction

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The only chronic marker among the biophysical variables in fetal surveillance is:

Choices:
A. Amniotic fluid volume
B. Fetal tone
C. Fetal breathing
D. Fetal movement

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What is the best method for monitoring fetal weight estimates in twins?

Choices:
A. Palm method
B. Johnson’s rule
C. Fundal height measurement
D. Ultrasound estimates every 4 weeks

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What is the most effective method of predicting preeclampsia?

Choices:
A. sFlt-1 with maternal characteristics
B. MAP in combination with maternal risk factors
C. MAP, Uterine artery Doppler velocimetry & PlGF
D. Maternal risk factors alone

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A Bishop score of 2 would indicate which cervical findings?

Choices:
A. Cervix 1 cm dilated, 30% effaced, firm, posterior, station -2
B. Cervix 2cm, 20% effaced, soft, posterior
C. Cervix 2cm, 30% effaced, firm, anterior
D. Cervix 1cm, beginning effacement, station -1, firm and posterior

A. Cervix 1 cm dilated, 30% effaced, firm, posterior, station -2

Score Breakdown for Option A:
Dilatation: 1 cm → 1 point

Effacement: 30% → 0 points

Consistency: Firm → 0 points

Position: Posterior → 0 points

Station: -2 → 1 point
➡️ Total = 1 + 1 = 2 points

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A 34-year-old G3P2 at 32 weeks of gestation presents with labor pains and a random blood sugar of 240 mg/dL. She was given betamimetic tocolytics and corticosteroids, then became obtunded. What is the cornerstone of management?

Choices:
A. Epinephrine
B. Diuresis and Furosemide
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Insulin and vigorous rehydration with crystalloid solution

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What is the therapeutic level of Magnesium Sulfate (MgSO₄)?

Choices:
A. 1-3 meq/L
B. 4-7 meq/L
C. 8-10 meq/L
D. 10-12 meq/L

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A 30-year-old at 32 weeks gestational age presents with chest pain and temporary loss of consciousness. Persistent arrhythmia is noted, and echocardiography shows an aortic valve area <1.5 cm². What is the appropriate management?

Choices:
A. Beta-blocking agents
B. Diuresis
C. Catheter-based valvuloplasty
D. Maintain adequate end-diastolic ventricular filling pressure to maintain cardiac output

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A 27-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks gestation presents with anxiety, palpitations, atypical chest pain, and dyspnea on exertion. Myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve chordae tendineae is noted. What is the diagnosis?

Choices:
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Mitral valve endocarditis
C. Mitral valve prolapse
D. Membranous ventricular septal defect

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Which of the following is NOT affected by maternal hyperinsulinemia in the developing fetus?

Choices:
A. Kidneys
B. Brain
C. Liver
D. Fat deposition in the trunk

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A 21-year-old G1P0 at 30 weeks gestation experiences increased afterload and decreased cardiac return due to:

Choices:
A. Compression of the aorta and the vena cava
B. Increase in circulating estrogen and progesterone
C. Compression of the common iliac artery and veins
D. Increase in nitric oxide and prostacyclin

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Which of the following is the treatment of choice for glomerular disease?

Choices:
A. Edema, Proteinuria, Hypoalbuminemia, Hyperlipidemia
B. Edema, Polycythemia, Hypoalbuminemia, Hyperlipidemia
C. Edema, Proteinuria, Hyperalbuminemia, Hypolipidemia
D. Edema, Porphyria, Hyperalbuminemia, Hypolipidemia

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What is the biggest single cause of maternal deaths in the Philippines?

Choices:
A. Hypertension
B. Malignancy
C. Hemorrhage
D. Infection

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Q: A 25-year-old woman, 32 weeks pregnant, with diagnosed intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) presents with the following umbilical artery Doppler waveform showing absent end-diastolic flow. What is the most appropriate management?
A:
A. Request a back-up test like biophysical profile
B. Admit the patient for closer monitoring
C. Immediate termination of pregnancy is in order
D. Continue expectant management with left lateral rest and increased food intake

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Q: A 34-week pregnant woman shows diastolic notching on uterine artery Doppler velocimetry. What does this finding indicate?
A:
A. Deterioration of maternal and fetal status should be watched for
B. The pregnant woman will not be hypertensive
C. There is adequate blood flow going to the fetus
D. Pregnancy termination must be done at the soonest possible time

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Q: Which of the following patients is at highest risk for preterm labor or delivery?
A:
A. 32 weeks, G4P2(0212) with UTI
B. 34 weeks, G1P0, with history of bacterial vaginosis before pregnancy
C. 36 weeks, G2P1(1001) with oligohydramnios
D. 31 weeks, G1P0, breech presentation

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Q: A primigravida comes in for a routine prenatal check-up. Urine culture reveals >70,000 gram-negative rods, though she is asymptomatic. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A:
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Cystitis
C. Urethritis
D. Asymptomatic bacteriuria

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Q: During pregnancy, the functional residual capacity (FRC) of the lungs:
A:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains unchanged
D. Is unaffected

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Q: A 26-year-old G3P2 (2002) at 34 weeks AOG underwent ultrasound and was found to have placenta accreta. This condition is characterized by a defect in which of the following structures? A: A. Retroplacental hematoma B. Increased placental thickness and echogenicity C. Loss of Nitabuch’s layer D. Subchorionic fluid collection

Q: Which of the following electrocardiographic (ECG) findings is most indicative of cardiac disease in pregnancy? A: A. ST segment elevation B. Inverted T-waves C. 15-degree left axis deviation D. Reduced PR interval

Q: A gravidocardiac patient at 20 weeks AOG presents in cardiac failure. Pregnancy is suspected to have worsened her condition. What is the best course of action? A: A. Perform therapeutic abortion to save the mother B. Let nature take its course C. Ask patient or relatives to choose whom to save D. Maximize cardiac management to alleviate failure

Q: A 35-year-old G4P3 (0303) at 14 5/7 weeks AOG has a short cervix on ultrasound. What is the most appropriate management? A: A. Prophylactic cerclage B. Ambulatory fetal monitoring C. Fetal fibronectin determination D. Serial ultrasound monitoring

Q: A 30-year-old G1P0 heavy alcohol drinker at 7 weeks AOG experiences severe retrosternal burning sensation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A: A. Pancreatitis B. Gastroenteritis C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

Q: On internal exam in a multigravid patient, the fetal chin was palpated at the 7:00 position. What is the appropriate management? A: A. Wait for the chin to rotate B. Watchful waiting C. Recommend Cesarean delivery D. Recommend vacuum extraction

C. Recommend Cesarean delivery 🧠 High-Yield Rationale: Chin at 7:00 = Mentoposterior position (i.e., face presentation, chin toward the maternal sacrum). Mentoposterior (MP) positions are mechanically incompatible with vaginal delivery. In MP, the fetal head cannot extend enough to navigate the maternal pelvis. Cesarean delivery is required if chin remains posterior. 📘 Brief Discussion: Face presentations occur when the fetal head is hyperextended. Only mentoanterior positions (chin at 12:00) may be delivered vaginally. Persistence of MP = Cesarean, even in multigravidas. Vacuum extraction is contraindicated in face presentations due to facial trauma risks.

Q: What congenital anomaly is most likely to develop in a 39-year-old G3P2 woman with a random blood sugar of 280 mg/dL? A: A. Cardiac anomalies B. Neural tube defects C. Trisomy 18 D. Genitourinary defects

Q: Which of the following statements is TRUE about fetal scalp pH? A: A. It’s based on the theory of the hypoxia cascade B. It assesses the presence of fetal alkalosis C. Fetal response is subsequent deceleration in FHT D. When pH is less than 7.2, abdominal delivery is not yet warranted

Q: Which of the following is NOT an adverse side effect associated with propylthiouracil (PTU) intake during pregnancy? A: A. Tinnitus B. Hepatotoxicity C. Allergic rash D. Vasculitis

Q: On exam of a postpartum patient with profuse vaginal bleeding, a soft and boggy uterus was palpated. What is the most likely diagnosis? A: A. Coagulopathy B. Uterine rupture C. Uterine atony D. Retained secundines

Q: A 34-year-old G1P0 at 35 weeks with Israeli ancestry presents with chronic anemia, cramping diarrhea, rectal bleeding, and failure to gain weight. Endoscopy shows granular friable rectal mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis? A: A. Crohn’s disease B. Ulcerative colitis C. Gastric adenocarcinoma D. Intestinal obstruction

Q: Which maternal complication is most associated with postterm pregnancy? A: A. Low APGAR B. Preeclampsia C. Meconium aspiration D. Stillbirth

Q: A 32-year-old primigravid at 39–40 weeks is in labor for 6 hours. IE shows 8 cm dilation, 80% effacement, cephalic presentation, ruptured BOW, station -2. Fetal tracing reveals decelerations. What type of deceleration is most likely? A: A. Early B. Variable C. Late D. Sinusoidal

Q: TRUE or FALSE: Bacterial pneumonia can be acquired only through inhalation of nasopharyngeal secretions. A: A. True B. False

Q: Which vessel is most frequently used for fetal Doppler velocimetry in cases of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)? A: A. Umbilical arteries B. Umbilical veins C. Ductus venosus D. Middle cerebral arteries

Q: Which of the following conditions can lead to consumptive coagulopathy? A: A. Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR) B. Threatened miscarriage C. Preterm labor D. Placental abruption

Q: Which of the following is a perinatal morbidity associated with forceps delivery? A: A. Pelvic organ prolapse B. Cephalhematoma C. Third-degree lacerations D. Urinary incontinence

Q: What is the best management for shoulder dystocia? A: A. Done by a skilled obstetrician B. Zavanelli maneuver C. Prudent cesarean section for obviously macrosomic fetuses D. A life-saving procedure such as symphysiotomy

Q: A twin pregnancy is identified at 10 weeks AOG with one placenta and two amniotic sacs. Which scenario is most likely? A: A. Ovulation induction B. Natural conception C. Family history of multiple pregnancy in sister D. Maternal age 35–39 years

Q: In postpartum patients with intractable hemorrhage and hemodynamic instability, what is the procedure of last resort? A: A. Intrauterine balloon tamponade B. Abdominal hysterectomy C. Uterine compression sutures D. Selective devascularization

Q: A 25-year-old G1P0, 6 weeks amenorrheic, has RLQ pain, positive pregnancy test, cervical motion tenderness, no adnexal mass, TVS shows thickened endometrium, no gestational sac or adnexal mass, but fluid and equivocal tenderness on the right. What is the next best step? A: A. Perform culdocentesis B. Do pelvic laparotomy C. Repeat TVS after 1–2 weeks D. Request for quantitative beta-hCG titer

Q: Management of placenta accreta typically requires which procedure? A: A. Low transverse cesarean section and hysterectomy B. Low transverse cesarean section and myometrial resection C. Classical cesarean section and myometrial resection D. Classical cesarean and hysterectomy

Q: Fetal skull and brain injury are more likely to occur if the baby is in which position? A: A. Breech-floating position B. Transverse lie, engaged position C. Cephalic-engaged position D. Any position

Q: When is the best time to deliver a severely growth-restricted fetus? A: A. At term B. When maternal condition shows stability C. Immediately after last dose of steroid D. When single deepest pocket is 1.5 cm

Q: Which of the following would best characterize Type 2 Diabetes? A: A. Turner syndrome B. Idiopathic B-cell destruction C. Predominantly insulin resistance D. Absolute insulin deficiency

Q: Which among the following factors is most closely related to maternal morbidity in forceps delivery? A: A. Fetal station B. Maternal parity C. Degree of fetal distress D. Degree of fetal head molding

Q: Recurrence of pyelonephritis occurs in 40% of women after completing therapy. Which treatment regimen is appropriate to prevent recurrence during pregnancy? A: A. Fosfomycin single dose B. Cephalexin 500 mg QID x 14 days C. Nitrofurantoin 100 mg ODHS until end of pregnancy D. Cefixime 200 mg BID for 14 days

Q: Which type of twinning is not influenced by race, ethnicity, or genetics? A: A. Dizygous twins B. Monozygous twins C. Monochorionic diamniotic twins D. Diamniotic dichorionic twins

Q: A 24-year-old G1P0 at 8 weeks of gestation presents with prolonged vomiting, weight loss, and coffee-ground emesis. Which is NOT part of the possible etiopathogenesis? A: A. Female fetus B. Smoking C. Chronic marijuana use D. High hCG levels

Q: Which pelvic type is most commonly associated with persistent occiput posterior (POP) position during labor? A: A. Android B. Gynecoid C. Platypelloid D. Anthropoid

Q: A macrosomic fetus is most likely to be found in which type of pregnant patient? A: A. Mangyan woman B. Gravidocardiac C. 5’8” tall woman D. Preeclamptic patient

Q: Which procedure will clinch the diagnosis of Placenta Accreta Spectrum (PAS)? A: A. Transvaginal ultrasound B. Color Doppler ultrasound C. Abdominal ultrasound D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

Q: A 34-year-old G3P2 at 32 weeks gestation presents with labor pains and blood sugar of 240 mg/dL. After betamimetics and corticosteroids, she becomes obtunded. What is the most likely cause? A: A. Acute pancreatitis B. Acute gastroenteritis C. Amniotic fluid embolism D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Q: A postpartum patient with a soft and boggy uterus is being transferred for bleeding. Which safe and simple procedure should be done to stop bleeding while waiting? A: A. Bimanual uterine compression B. Hypogastric artery ligation C. Intrauterine balloon tamponade D. Uterine compression sutures

Q: Which of the following is a Category III fetal heart rate finding? A: A. Bradycardia below 100 bpm B. Tachycardia at 160–180 bpm C. Minimal variability D. Persistent late decelerations with moderate variability

Q: For an average-sized woman, postpartum blood loss can be estimated as the pregnancy-added blood volume (in mL) plus 500 mL for each 3% drop in hematocrit. What is the pregnancy-added volume? A: A. 500 mL B. 1,000 mL C. 1,500 mL D. 2,000 mL

Q: What embryopathy is associated with Methimazole use in the first trimester of pregnancy? A: A. Ear defects B. Esophageal and choanal atresia C. Cleft lip and palate D. Sensorineural deafness

Q: Which vessel is studied in Doppler velocimetry to assess the efficiency of the utero-placental unit? A: A. Umbilical artery B. Uterine artery C. Ductus venosus D. Middle cerebral artery

Q: In shoulder dystocia, which of the following occurs? A: A. The pelvis is adequate to accommodate the head but not the shoulders B. The shoulders are trapped in utero instead of the aftercoming head C. The shoulders fail to negotiate the ischial spines D. The anterior shoulder is impacted at the symphysis pubis

Q: A G3P2 (2002) at 39 weeks is admitted with cervix 6 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and contractions every 2–3 minutes lasting 50 seconds. What is the next step in management? A: A. Wait for labor to proceed B. Augment labor with oxytocin C. Sedate the patient D. Prepare for cesarean delivery

Q: Which of the following statements about physiologic changes during pregnancy is TRUE? A: A. Intrarenal vasodilation B. Pelvocalyceal constriction C. Kidneys decrease in size D. Decreased ureteral reflux

Q: To properly record the progress of labor, one must graph the hours of labor against which parameter? A: A. Time of admission B. Clock time of labor C. Cervical dilatation D. Station of presenting part

Q: Which intrapartum clue may suggest the presence of fetal macrosomia? A: A. Arrest in cervical dilatation B. Failure of descent C. Non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern D. Prolonged latent phase of labor

Q: What is the best imaging modality to diagnose acute appendicitis during pregnancy? A: A. CT scan B. MRI C. Ultrasound D. A and B

Q: Which of the following fetal positions is NOT a candidate for vaginal delivery? A: A. Right mentum anterior B. Right mentum posterior C. Direct mentum anterior D. Left mentum transverse

Q: What fetal station corresponds to low forceps delivery? A: A. Station +2 B. Station +1 C. Station 0 D. Station -1

Q: In which condition is endocarditis prophylaxis NOT recommended in a pregnant woman? A: A. Prior endocarditis B. Prosthetic valve replacement C. Valvulopathy after heart transplant D. Repaired cyanotic heart disease without pelvic infection

Q: Which of the following is NOT included in the acute management of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)? A: A. Anticoagulation B. Carotid sinus massage C. Valsalva maneuver D. Immersion of the face in water

Q: A 33-year-old G1P0 at 18 weeks comes in with vaginal bleeding. PE: cervix 3–4 cm dilated, BOW protruding, FHT = 160 bpm. What is the diagnosis? A: A. Imminent abortion B. Incomplete abortion C. Inevitable abortion D. Late abortion

Q: A G4P3 (3003) delivered in a jeepney 2 hours after the onset of labor pains. What is the diagnosis? A: A. Short latent phase B. Normal progress of labor C. Normal second stage of labor D. Precipitous labor and delivery

Q: Leopold’s Maneuver III in a G6P3 (3023) at 38 weeks reveals a freely movable fetal head. Where is the presenting part most likely located? A: A. Inlet B. Midpelvis C. Outlet D. False pelvis

Q: A pregnant patient presents with lower urinary tract symptoms but has sterile urine. What is the most likely causative organism? A: A. Proteus mirabilis B. Enterobacter spp. C. Escherichia coli D. Chlamydia trachomatis

Q: What is the most important clue to the diagnosis of incompetent cervix? A: A. Late abortions at 18–22 weeks B. Presence of comorbidities like diabetes mellitus C. One previous pregnancy loss in the first trimester D. Previous tubal or uterine surgery

Q: When fetal growth estimates fall below the 10th centile at 24 weeks, what is the next best step? A: A. Ask the mother to eat more B. Prescribe amino acid supplements C. Request for targeted anomaly scan D. Do Doppler velocimetry studies

Q: A 28-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks develops exertional dyspnea. Which physical finding indicates cardiovascular disease rather than normal pregnancy? A: A. Diastolic murmur B. Jugular venous distension C. Mammary souffle D. Venous hum

Q: What sonographic measurement has the highest efficacy in estimating fetal weight, especially in suspected macrosomia? A: A. Soft tissue thickness of the femur B. Abdominal circumference C. Cheek-to-cheek diameter D. Chest circumference

Q: A primigravid woman has the following pelvimetry findings: parallel sidewalls, well-curved sacrum, non-prominent ischial spines, sacrosciatic notch admits 3 fingers easily. What is the pelvic capacity? A: A. Inlet contraction B. Midpelvic contraction C. Outlet contraction D. Adequate pelvis

Q: Which of the following is not part of Studdiford’s criteria for primary abdominal pregnancy? A: A. Age of gestation may be as late as 12 weeks B. Both tubes and ovaries must be in normal condition C. There should be no uterine evidence of implantation D. The pregnancy must be 6 cm away from tubes and ovaries and attached to peritoneum

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding antihypertensives in preeclampsia? A: A. Maintain MAP <90 mmHg B. Normalize BP to 90–120/70–90 mmHg C. Methyldopa can be given at any time during pregnancy D. High starting dose should be used to avoid cerebrovascular autoregulation loss

Q: In twin pregnancy, when the first twin is breech and the second twin is cephalic, what is the best delivery mode to avoid complications? A: A. Postpartum hemorrhage B. Interlocking twins C. Entrapped head of the first twin D. Cord entanglement

Q: Which of the following is a placental cause of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)? A: A. Megaplacenta in syphilis B. 40% placental infarction C. Total abruptio placenta D. Placental weight of 500 g

Q: A 25-year-old G2P1 at 35 weeks presents with generalized pruritus (especially palms and soles), mild jaundice, and elevated bilirubin and liver transaminases. What is the appropriate mode of delivery? A: A. Immediate induction of labor B. Immediate cesarean section C. Induction of labor at 37 weeks D. Cesarean section at 39 weeks

Q: A non-reactive non-stress test (NST) is evident on fetal tracing when: A: A. There are no recurrent late decelerations with the 3 uterine contractions B. Less than 50% of uterine contractions show variable decelerations C. There are fewer than 2 accelerations in a 20-minute window with fetal movements D. Variability is 0–5 bpm

Q: The goal of antihypertensive therapy in pregnancy is to lower blood pressure by only 20% or to a target of 140–150/90–100 mmHg in order to: A: A. Prevent myocardial infarction B. Maintain adequate utero-placental perfusion C. Prevent cerebrovascular hemorrhage D. Stop progression to severe preeclampsia

Q: Clinical signs of placental abruption following blunt abdominal trauma in pregnancy include all EXCEPT: A: A. Tetanic contraction B. Vaginal bleeding C. Painless contraction D. Non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern

Q: A 35-year-old G4P2 at 26 weeks was hospitalized for UTI and treated with parenteral cephalosporins. She developed new-onset diarrhea after a week. What is the ideal test for diagnosis? A: A. Stool culture and sensitivity B. Fecalysis C. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) D. Test for occult blood

Q: What is the most likely neonatal complication of maternal hyperparathyroidism during pregnancy? A: A. Intraventricular hemorrhage B. Neonatal tetany C. Necrotizing enterocolitis D. Respiratory distress syndrome

Q: What is the most common cause of early pregnancy loss? A: A. Immunologic causes like APAS B. Maternal anatomic deformities C. Maternal medical problems like diabetes D. Fetal chromosomal abnormalities

Q: Which antepartum fetal surveillance test is most appropriate for a term growth-restricted fetus? A: A. Doppler velocimetry B. Non-stress test C. Biophysical profile D. Contraction stress test

D. Contraction stress test

Q: Which of the following is considered a fetal resuscitation method during labor? A: A. Administration of oxygen directly to the fetus B. Direct laryngeal suctioning of the fetus C. Discontinuation of uterine stimulants like oxytocin D. Placing the parturient in supine lithotomy position

Q: A patient presents at term by size but is unsure of her last menstrual period. Which clinical finding is most helpful in determining the gestational age? A: A. Estimated fetal weight B. Quickening C. Fundic height D. Force her to remember her LMP

Q: Which of the following glycemic levels during pregnancy indicates pre-gestational diabetes? A: A. HbA1c = 5.2% B. Two-hour postprandial blood sugar = 110 mg/dL C. Fasting blood glucose = 7.5 mmol/L D. Random blood sugar = 6 mmol/L

Q: All of the following are complications of asthma in pregnancy EXCEPT: A: A. Abortion B. Preeclampsia C. Abruptio placenta D. Neonatal hypoxia

Q: Antenatal corticosteroids may be given even beyond 34 weeks of gestation primarily to: A: A. Reduce cerebrovascular hemorrhage and necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) B. Further enhance lung maturity C. Stabilize the capillaries to decrease hemolysis D. Reduce inflammation of maternal tissues, especially in the lungs

A 25 y/o 32 weeks pregnant woman with diagnosed IUGR presented with following umbilical doppler waveform. What advice will you give the patient? a. We need a back up test like the biophysical profile b. Patient has to be admitted for closer monitoring c. Immediate termination of pregnancy is in order d. We can continue expectant management as rest on left lateral recumbent position and increase food intake

In the following tracing, the baseline heart rate is * a. 120-130 bpm b. 130-140 bpm c. 140-150 bpm d. 150-160 bpm

Interpret this tracing: a. Category 1 b. Reactive NST c. Negative CST d. Category 3