Finals Flashcards

1
Q

Induction of developmental defects in the somatic tissues of the fetus

A

Teratogens is

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2
Q

During what time of pregnancy does teratogens is is being tested

A

Organogenesis

Fetuses and neonate a

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3
Q

Induction of changes in the genetic material of animals of any age and therefore induction of heritable abnormalities

A

Mutagenesis

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4
Q

Standard in vitro test for mutagenesis that uses special strain of Salmonella

A

Ames test

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5
Q

Exposure of the fetus to a radiation, infection or chemical. Teratogens is or mutagenesis?

A

Teratogens is

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6
Q

In Vigo mutagenecity test carried out in mice

A

Dominant lethal test

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7
Q

The maximum dose at which a specified toxic effect is not seen

A

No-effect dose

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8
Q

Smallest dose that is observed to kill any experimental animal

A

Minimum lethal dose

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9
Q

The dose that kills approximately 50%of the animal

A

Median lethal dose (LD 50)

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10
Q

Either studies in animals have revealed adverse effect son the fetus and there are no controlled studies in women, or studies in women and animals are not available. Drugs should be given only when potential benefits justifies the potential risk

A

Category C

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11
Q

There is positive evidence of human fetal risk, but the benefit from use in pregnant women may be acceptable despite risk

A

Category D

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12
Q

Alternating periods of administration of test drug, placebo preparation and the standard treatment

A

Crossover design

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13
Q

What phase of clinical trial uses small number of healthy volunteers to find the maximum tolerated dose

A

Phase 1

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14
Q

Phase that is performed in research centers by specially trained clinical pharmacologist

A

Phase 1

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15
Q

Patients are 100-200 and determine efficacy of drug which is done in special clinical centers

A

Phase 2

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16
Q

Utilizes single blind design and has the highest rate of drug failures

A

Phase 2

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17
Q

Therapeutic confirmatory trials, designed to minimize errors by randomness controlled trials, usually expensive

A

Phase 3

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18
Q

Immunologic processes may become apparent at this stage

A

Phase 3

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19
Q

Drug for rare disease

A

Orphan drugs

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20
Q

Leading candidate for a successful new drug and can proceed to patent application

A

Lead compound

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21
Q

Measurement of the percentage of receptors bound by a drug in relation to dose

A

Graded dose binding relationship and binding affinity

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22
Q

Concentration of drug required to bing 50% of the receptor sites

A

I’d

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23
Q

Maximum amount of drug or radioligand which can bind specifically to the receptors in a membrane preparation

A

Bmax

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24
Q

True or false: smaller the Kd, greater the affinity of drug to its receptor

A

True

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25
True or false: smaller the EC50, the greater the potency of the drug
True
26
Ability of the drug to bind to its receptor
Affinity
27
Greatest effect an agonist can produce if the dose is taken to the highest tolerated level
eMac
28
Amount of drug needed to produce a given effect
Potency
29
Provide information about the variation in sensitivity to the drug in a given population
Quintal dose response relationship
30
A drug sufficiently high concentration result in all the receptors achieving the activated state
Full agonist
31
Ra-Dpa + Ri- Dpa
Partial agonist
32
True or false: In the presence of a full agonist, a partial agonist acts as an inhibitor
True
33
Cause a parallel shift to the right
Competitive antagonist
34
Irreversible antagonist appear to cause a ___________ shift to the maximum
Downward
35
Histamine and epinephrine- what kind of antagonist?
Physiologic antagonist
36
Propranolol and glucagon- what kind?
Physiologic antagonist
37
Protamine binds to heparin to reverse its action
Chemical antagonist
38
Dosage range between the minimum effective therapeutic concentration or dose, and the minimum toxic concentration or dose
Therapeutic window
39
Represents safety of a drug
Therapeutic index
40
Steroid hormones have what kind of receptor?
Intracellular
41
Mimic or antagonize the action of endogenous ligands, regulate flow of ions through excitable membranes
Membrane receptor directly coupled to ion channels
42
Nicotine receptor for Ach
Membrane receptor
43
Serpentine, coupled via GTP to adenylyl Cyclades
Receptor linked via coupling protein to intracellular effectors
44
Increases cAMP production
Gs protein
45
Decreases cAMP production
Gi protein
46
Activates phospholipase C
Gq protein
47
Frequent or continuous exposure to agonist often results in short term diminution of the receptor response
Tachyphylaxis
48
The following increases rate of diffusion according to Fick's law except: A. Increase concentration gradient B. increase surface area C. Increase membrane thickness
C
49
Expression of the ability of a drug to diffuse across membrane
Lipid water partition coefficient
50
Fractions of the drug which is available in the systemic circulation and obtained by comparing the AUC of drug with that of an IV
Bioavailability
51
Rate and availability of two products after administration are similar in the same doses
Bio equivalence
52
True or false: bioequivalent should always be pharmaceutical lay equivalent
True
53
True or false: pharmaceuticals equivalent should always be bioequivalent
False
54
Criteria for both bioequivalent and pharmaceuticals equivalent is bothe met
Therapeutic equivalence
55
True or false: more lipid soluble the drug is, the more it is able to traverse compartments, the faster the distribution
True
56
More ionized the drug, the more it is able to traverse lipid barriers, true or false?
False- less ionized
57
Small drug molecules, can pass through membrane barriers, true or false?
True
58
True or false: greater the binding, the greater the volume of distribution
False | Greater binding- lesser volume- lesser availability To receptors
59
Volume necessary to contain the drug homogenously and concentration found on blood and plasma
Vid
60
True or false: Drug with Vd of greater than 1 has the ability to cross the BBB
True