Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Virology > Final (RNA Viruses) > Flashcards

Final (RNA Viruses) Flashcards

1
Q

Non-enveloped?

A

picorna, calici, reo, birna, astro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

dsRNA?

A

birna, reo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What BSL level is Nipah Virus? Family?

A

BSL4; Paramyxo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What family is TGE in pigs?

A

corona 1a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clinical signs of TGE?

A

villus atrophy -> diarrhea (smelly)

vomiting, bloat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Porcine Endemic Diarrhea is in which family?

A

corona 1b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is another name for Porcine Hemagglutinating Encephalomyelitis?

A

Vomiting and Wasting Disease (corona 2a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which coronavirus causes diarrhea in calves mostly in winter?

A

Bovine cornavirus (2a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which coronavirus causes adult diarrhea in cattle and decrease in milk production?

A

Winter Dysentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most obvious clinical sign of FIP?

A

ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If there is a weak CMI to FIP infection, which form occurs?

A

wet (effusive) -> Ab increase the uptakes into macs for replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If there is an intermediate CMI response to FIP, which form occurs

A

dry -> granulomas, ocular, CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Best test for FIP?

A

Rivalto effusion test (drop disappears = negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vaccine for FIP?

A

yes but not recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Chicken producing eggs with soft shell, deformed. What virus?

A

Avian infectious bronchitis (corona 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F you can give live avian infectious bronchitis vaccine to layers and breeders?

A

No, give them inactivated vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Another name for bovine torovirus

A

Breda virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is unique about torovirus morphology?

A

doughnut shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Main clinical sign of bovine torovirus?

A

another calf diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Morphology of Calicivirus

A

32 “cups” on surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Important lesion for feline calicivirus?

A

oral ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Can FCV be fatal?

A

Yes there is a highly virulent strain (FCV-VSD) that is systemic and the current vaccine doesn’t cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What clinical sign might be indicative of FCV-VSD?

A

sloughing foot pads, ear crust, facial edema along with oral ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Is vesicular exanthema of swine present in US?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which diseases are indistinguishable from vesicular exanthema?

A

FMD, swine vesicular disease, vesicular stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which family is infectious bursal disease?

A

Birnaviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Survivors of infectious bursal disease have what problems?

A

depleted B cells so increased susceptibility to other pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens to the bursa in infectious bursal disease?

A

swells, hemorrhages, atrophies (1/8 original size)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What causes the cytokine storm in infectious bursal disease?

A

indirect T cell activation and direct macrophage activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is indicative of bornaviridae?

A

Joest Degen eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Do you see neuron necrosis with borna?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does borna cause?

A

encephalomyelitis in horses (fatal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Morphology of astroviridae?

A

5 or 6 points, no envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which cells does astro destroy?

A

M cells causing watery diarrhea (in sheep destroys mature enterocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are clinical signs of astro?

A

diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is PrPc

A

normal protein made of alpha sheets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is PrPsc

A

misfolded protein made mostly of beta sheets -> infective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F PrPsc is susceptible to proteases?

A

F: Prpc is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F You can acquired spongiform encephalopathy from a corneal transplat?

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are 3 signs of prions in the brain?

A
  1. vacuolization (grey matter)
  2. astroglial hypertrophy and proliferation
  3. loss of neurons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T/F with prions you will see inflammation

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

2 prion diseases?

A

Scrapie and Mad Cow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the first sign of Scrapie?

A

intense pruritus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F Sheep with pApA gene will show neuro signs before sAsA?

A

F: pA is a longer incubation than sA

SIP gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Two tests for diagnosis of Scrapie?

A

tonsilar biopsy and 3rd eyelid test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F pruritus is the first symptom of bovine spongiform encephalopathy?

A

F: no pruritus with Mad Cow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

2 diseases in Flaviviridae genus Pestivirus?

A

BVDV and hog cholera/swine fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Stargazing is a clinical sign of which virus?

A

BVDV in PI calves (along with hydraencephaly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

T/F the cytopathic strain has an uncleaved NS2-3 protein?

A

F: cleaved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does the cytopathic BVDV cause?

A

repro and enteric issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What happens when a pregnant cow gets BVDV 2-4 months into gestation?

A

PI calf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What happens when a preg cow gets BVDV 5-9 months gestation?

A

early: abortion
mid: deformed
late: normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the primary site of infection for hog cholera?

A

tonsils

54
Q

Clinical signs of hog cholera:

A

huddling together, cyanosis, diarrhea, *turkey egg kidneys, button ulcers

55
Q

You see a pig goose stepping so you think…

A

hog cholera

56
Q

Two diseases in Flaviviridae genus flavivirus?

A

West Nile, Louping Ill

57
Q

Is Louping Ill zoonotic

A

yes

58
Q

T/F most horses die from West Nile

A

F” most are asymptomatic

59
Q

How is louping ill transmitted?

A

ixodes ricinus (transtadial)

60
Q

What animals does louping ill infect ?

A

sheep and red grouse

61
Q

What animal causes most cases of cattle rabies?

A

skunk

62
Q

wildlife rabies reservoirs in US

A

fox, skunk, insectivorous bats

63
Q

T/F sites that are closer to the head and more innervated are more dangerous for rabies?

A

T

64
Q

T/F Dogs and cats are highly susceptible to rabies?

A

F: cats and cattle

65
Q

T/F the dumb form is found in the limbic system?

A

F: furious form; dumb form is in neurocortex

66
Q

T/F there are no gross lesions for rabies

A

T

67
Q

When will you see rabies antibodies in the serum?

A

After neuro signs appear

68
Q

3 phases of rabies

A

prodromal
furious (acute)
dumn (paralytic)

69
Q

Negri bodies

A

rabies inclusion bodies (eosinophilic)

70
Q

How do you test for rabies?

A

direct FAT

isolate via intracerebral inoculation of mice

71
Q

What genus is rabies?

A

lyssavirus

72
Q

What genus is vesicular stomatitis?

A

vesiculovirus

73
Q

T/F NJ serotype of Vesicular Stomatitis is most virulent

A

T

74
Q

What is the first sign of vesicular stomatitis in cows and horses?

A

profuse salivation and fever

75
Q

What is the first sign of vesicular stomatitis in pigs?

A

lameness

76
Q

What disease is Rhabdoviridae genus ephermerovirus?

A

Bovine ephemeral fever (3 day sickness)

77
Q

How is 3 day sickness transmitted

A

good ole mosquitoes

78
Q

What is unique about bloodwork of an animal with bovine ephermeral fever?

A

neutrophilia with left shift, increased fibrinogen and decreased calcium

79
Q

T/F paralysis due to bovine ephermeral fever is spastic

A

F: flaccid

80
Q

3 diseases of Togaviridae genus alphavirus

A

EEEV, WEEV, VEEV

81
Q

Where does EEEV replicate ?

A

neurons, vascular endothelium, glial cells

82
Q

What does EEEV cause?

A

non suppurative encephalomyelitis

83
Q

T/F EEEV is more virulent than WEEV?

A

T

84
Q

What animals can amplify WEEV?

A

prairie dogs, rabbits (bird reservoir)

85
Q

T/F in utero infection can occur with VEEV?

A

T

86
Q

How are picornaviridae classified?

A

by stability at low pH

87
Q

Can horses be infected with FMD?

A

no

88
Q

What is a characteristic lesion of FMD in young calves (

A

tiger heart (myocardial failure and death)

89
Q

Is there persistance of FMD in pigs?

A

no (pharynx of cattle and sheep)

90
Q

What causes Hairy Panters?

A

endocrine damage due to FMD (anemia, diabetes, increased hair, heat intolerance)

91
Q

What virus is Picornaviridae genus tremovirus?

A

avian encephalomyelitis (epidemic tremor)

92
Q

What happens to eggs of chickens with epidemic tremor?

A

decreased number but no change in quality

93
Q

Characteristic lesion of avian encephalomyelitis ?

A

central chromatolysis in medulla

94
Q

Do layers with avian encephalomyelitis show neuro signs?

A

no, just drop in hatchability of eggs

95
Q

What do you sample to isolate avian encephalomyelitis?

A

duodenum and brain

96
Q

T/F epidemic tremor doesn’t cause disease in other animals or people

A

T

97
Q

Picornaviridae genus cardiovirus

A

encephalomyocarditis in pigs and elephants

98
Q

What is the natural host for encephalomyocarditis?

A

rats

99
Q

2 diseases in Reoviridae genus orbivirus

A

African Horse Sickness and Blue Tongue

100
Q

Main reservoir for Blue Tongue?

A

cattle

101
Q

How is Blue tongue transmitted?

A

culicoides

102
Q

What animals does blue tongue infect?

A

sheep and deer

103
Q

Can dogs get african horse sickness

A

yes

104
Q

How is AHS serotyped?

A

OSP VP2

105
Q

reservoir for AHS?

A

zebras

106
Q

pulmonary form of AHS?

A

Dunkop

107
Q

cardiac form of AHS?

A

Dikkop

108
Q

Which form would have eyelid edema as a clinical sign?

A

Dikkop

109
Q

How are rotaviruses classified?

A

VP6 protein in middle layer

110
Q

Where do rotaviruses replicate

A

mature enterocytes of upper SI

111
Q

What is the rotavirus endotoxin?

A

NSP4

112
Q

How do you diagnose rotavirus infection?

A

PAGE

113
Q

What disease is Reoviridae genus orthoreoviridae?

A

Avian reovirus

114
Q

Clinical sign of avian reovirus?

A

swelling hocks and lameness

115
Q

2 diseases in Arteriviridae

A

equine viral arteritis and porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS)

116
Q

Can mares carry equine viral arteritis?

A

No just stallions

117
Q

Clinical signs of equine viral arteritis?

A

edema in hind limbs, urticaria, temporary infertility in stallions

118
Q

Can equine viral arteritis cause abortion?

A

yes due to necrotizing myometritis and placental detachment

119
Q

Other names for PRRS?

A

swine mystery disease, blue ear disease

120
Q

Repro form of PRRS

A

late term abortions, umbilical cord lesions

121
Q

respiratory form of PRRS

A

thumping, necrotizing pneumonia

122
Q

What is the genus for Rift Valley Fever?

A

phlebovirus (Bunya)

123
Q

What can trigger Rift Valley Fever?

A

heavy rains cause mosquito egg to hatch

124
Q

What is the main lesion of Rift Valley Fever in sheep?

A

liver necrosis and nasal crust

125
Q

T/F Rift Valley Fever is more severe in cattle than sheep?

A

F but both have high abortions

126
Q

Why is Rift Valley Fever economically important?

A

causes 90-100% abortion in cattle and sheep

127
Q

How is Akabane transmitted?

A

culicoides and mosquitoes

128
Q

What genus is Akabane

A

orthobunyavirus

129
Q

When do you test for Ab of Akabane?

A

in serum BEFORE colostrum ingestion

130
Q

Does Akabane cause signs in adult animals?

A

no

131
Q

Does Schmallenberg cause signs in adult animals?

A

yes, diarrhea and decreased milk production

same fetal affects

132
Q

What does Akabane and Schmallenberg cause in fetuses?

A

Arthrogryposis, hydraencephaly

Virology (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions