FINAL Review Flashcards
activate synaptic vesicles in axon terminals
calcium ions
serves as the actual trigger for muscle contract by removing the inhibition of the troponin molecules.
calcium ions
destroys ACh
acetylcholinesterase
a neurotransmitter released at motor end plates by axon terminals
acetylcholine
diffusion across the cell membrane results in depolarization
sodium ions
used to convert ADP to ATP by transfer of a high-energy phosphate group. A reserve high-energy compound.
creatine phosphate
Joint 1
balls ad socket
Joint 2
pivot
Joint 3
hinge
Joint 4
plane
Joint 5
saddle
Joint 6
condyloid
True or False
A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint
True
True or False
The wrist joint can exhibit adduction and eversion movements.
False
True or False
A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering a loss of the synovial fluid.
False
True or False
Symphyses are synarthrotic joints designed for strength with flexibility.
Fasle
Marathons (long time)
aerobic pathway
weight lifting (really short time)
direct phosphorylation
25 meter swim (short time)
anaerobic pathway
True or False
Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscles fibers in a muscle contract.
False
True or False
A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.
False
True or False
Eccentric contractions are more forceful than concentric contractions
False
True or False
An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops.
True.
True or False
A resting potential is caused by a same concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell.
False
Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?
smooth
excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances
ca 2+ and ATP
Myoglobin
stores oxygen in muscle cells.
What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?
sarcoplasmic reticulum
What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell?
the arrangement of myofilaments
Which of the following surrounds the fascicles within a muscle?
perimysium
Rigor mortis occurs because
no ATP is available to release the attached actin and mysoin molecules.
What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?
a sarcomere
what is the functional role of the T tubules?
enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction.
During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to
lactic acid.
The muscle cell membrane is called the
sarcolemma.
The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that
the site of calcium regulation differs.
An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is
glycolysis
Muscle tone is
a state of sustained partial contraction.
What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?
motor end plate
Which of the following is not a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process?
lastissimus dorsi
What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?
an agonist.
When the term biceps, triceps or quadriceps forms part of a muscle’s name, what does it tell you about the muscle?
The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean?
The muscle elevates.
Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?
frontalis
Which one of these muscles have a parallel fasicle arrangement?
The sartorius
A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is an
antagonist.
A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle?
buccinator
When these muscles contact (bilateral) a person flexes the head.
sternocleidomastoid
Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?
it closes, purses, and protudes the lips.
Which muscles is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?
rectus abdominis and diaphragm
The deltoid acts to
abduct the arm.
A muscle that inserts on the radial tuberosity is most likely involved in
elbow flexion.
Which of the following is a muscle that originates from the zygomatic arch and functions in elevating the mandible?
masseter
The less-movable end of a skeletal muscle is the
origin.
Which of the following muscles is not a member of the hamstrings group?
vastus lateralis
Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants as the buttocks and arm muscles are poorly developed?
vastus lateralis
The quadriceps femoris is composed of three “vastus” muscles and the
rectus femoris.
Susan was injured in an automobile accident that severed the motor neurons innervating her quadriceps group. Even though she has had extensive physcial therapy, she is still suffering muscle atrophy. Why is the therapy not working?
In denervation atrophy, fibrous connective tissue replaces the muscle tissue that was lost. When atrophy is complete, fibrous tissue cannot be reversed to muscle tissue.
Susan decided to enter a 5-K race designed to raise money for a class trip (she is a nice person). She did not do any preconditioning, nor has she ever jogged before. The morning after the race, Susan had so much pain in both her anterior legs, she was unable to go to school. What caused the pain?
Brian has shin splints. This is a condition in which the anterior tibialis muscle is irritated, inflamed, and swollen. The circulation is impaired by the tight fascial wrappings, causing pain.
Free nerve endings in the skin detect changes in skin temperature (getting colder).
b
Information about body temperature is sent through afferent pathways to the brain.
c
Skeletal muscles respond with shivering reflex which provides heat to return the body’s temperature to a homeostatic balance or “ideal” value.
E
Appropriate response information is sent through efferent pathways.
D
A change in the temperature of the external environment (getting colder).
A
True or False
The left hyoichondriac regions contains the majority of the stomach
False
True or False
The part of the serous membrane that lines the perionteal cavity wall is called parietal peritoneum.
True
True or Falso
The olecranal area is proximal to the carpal area.
True
Negative or positive feedback
used for blood clotting
positive feedback
Negative or Positive feedback
used for changes in blood glucose
negative feedback
Negative or positive feedback
used for changes in blood pressure
negative feedback
Negative or positive feed back?
used for childbirth
positive feedback
Histology would be best defined as a study of
tissues.
The throacic cavity contains the _______. It is found _____ to the vertebral cavity.
Heart and lungs: anterior
You are told to take an axillary temperature on a small child. You will place the thermometer
in the armpit.
You are asked to take a person’s heart rate at the popliteal pulse point. You will lokk for this pulse
on the posterior side of the knee.
One of the descriptions below is from the perspective of anatomical study, the rest are from a physiological perspective. Select the description below that comes froma an anatomical perspective.
The innermost lining of the lungs is composed primarily of a thin tissue called simple squamous epithelium.
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?
frontal
Which of the following are survival needs of the body?
nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure and oxygen.
Which is phosphate?
C
Which is deoxyribose sugar?
B
Which is Thymine?
D
Which is
23) guanine
24) hydrogen bonds
23) E
24) A
Which of the following elements is necessary for proper conduction of nerve impulses?
Na
In general, the lipids that we refer to as oils have
unsaturated fatty acids.
The genetic information is coded in DNA by the
sequence of nucleotides.
Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of
glycogen.
Salts are always
ionic compounds
The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?
2,8,1
Which of the following statements is false?
When hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentratin also decreases.
When acids and bases are mixed, they react with each other to form water and a salt.
The more hydrogen ions in a solution, the more acidic the solution.
The pH of blood is slightly basic.
When hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentratin also decreases.
Which of the following is the major extracellular cation?
hydrogen
magnesium
potassium
sodium
sodium
Choose the answer that best describes HCO3-.
a bicarbonate ion
Which of the following is an example of a suspension?
salt water
blood
rubbing alcohol
cytosol
blood
The four elemetns that make up about 96% of body weight are
carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
Atom X has 17 protons. how many electrons are in its valence shell (outermost energy level)?
7
What does the formula C6H12O6 mean?
There are 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen and 6 oxygen atoms.
What is a dipole?
a polar molecule
Lactose is a
disaccharide
When DNA is replicated, it is necessary fo the two strands to “unzip” temporarily. Choose which bonding type is most appropriate for holding the strands together in this way.
hydrogen bonding
A patient is hyperventilating. The “blowing off” of excessive carbon dioxide causes a decrease in blood H+ concentration. How can the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system function to correct this imbalance?
CO2 + H2O ⇔ H2CO3 ⇔ H+ + HCO3-
H2CO3 dissociates to form more H+ and lower pH
Salivary amylase is an enzyme produced by the salivary glands that breaks down carbohydrates. What will happen to this enzyme as it follows the food into the stomach where the pH drops to 2.5?
The enzyme will denature and become inactive.
Tendons are strong, rope-like structures that connect skeletal muscle to bone. Which of the following proteins would provide stength to a tendon?
collagen
Phospholipids make up most of the lipid part of the cell membrane. Since water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell, which of the following phospholipid arrangements makes the most sense?
two back-to-back phospholipid layers wth the polar heads facing out on both sides.
T or F
Buffers resist abrupt and large changes in the pH of body fluids by releasing or binding anions.
False
T or F
Glucose is an example of a polysaccharide.
False
T or F
It is the difference in the R group that makes each amino acid chemically unique.
True
T or F
Triglycerides are a poor source of store energy.
False
Match the letter to the correct statement
49) site of enzymatic breakdown of phagocytized material
50) When ruptured it releases the enzymes responsible for autolysis.
51) Packages proteins for insertion in the cell membrane or for exocytosis.
52) Produces ATP aerobically.
53) Site of synthesis of lipid and steroid molecules.
54) Forms the mitotic spindle
55) replicate for cell division.
49) C
50) C
51) E
52) B
53) A
54) D
55) D
Passive membrane transport processes include
movement of a substance down its concentration gradient.
Crenation is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in
a hypertonic solution.
A gene can best be defined as
a segment of DNA that carries instructions for a polypeptide chain.
Which of the following would not be restricted (limited) by low levels of ATP?
osmosis
The lungs deliver a regular supply of oxygen to the blood, which in turn circulated to most all cells of the body. At the same time oxygen is consumed during aerobic cellular respiration within these cells. This implies that
oxygen will passively diffuse into the cells.
A cell engulfing a relatively large particle will likely utilizze
phagocytosis
Colchicine is a drug that can prevent formation of microtubules. Which is the most likely affect colchicine would have on cell division?
It will arrest mitosis by preventing the formation of spindle microtubules.
Beta cells in the pancreas produce and secrete the protein insulin. You would expect to see a relatively large amount of which organelles in these cells?
Golgi apparatus, rough endoplasmic reticulum
Myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) must rhythmically contract for a lifetime. This requires a considerable amount of energy production by the cells. You would expect to see a relatively high amount of which organelle in these cells?
mitochondria
Canceroud cells can divide so rapidly that they will often produce a glycocalyx that is different than the other cells in the body. This may result in
cells of the immune system recognizing the tumorous cells as foreign and destroying them.
The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome for protein formation is
tRNA
chromosomes uncoil to form chromatin
telophase
chromosomal centromeres split and chromosomes migrate to opposite ends of the cell
anaphase
nuclear membrane and nucleolus disintegrate.
late prophase
Chromosomes align on the spindle equator.
metaphase
Centrioles move to opposite ends of the cell.
early prophase
A type of transport protein found in the plasma membrane of cells lining the inside of the intestine allows sodium ions to diffuse down their concentration gradient. The ions move through the transport protein and into the cell. These transport proteins will use the kinetic energy of the diffusing sodium ions to bring glucose into the cells as well. Which of the following would stop transport of glucose through this transport protein?
stopping the activity of the sodium potassium pump.
Match the letter to the correct statement.
74) Supports and protects; stores calcium
75) Forms tendons and ligaments
76) Supports and protects; insulates against heat loss; reserve source of fuel.
77) Provides tensile strength with the ability to absorb compressive shock.
78) Composed of cells in a fluid matrix.
74) D bone
75) B dense regular connective
76) A adipose
77) C fibrocartilage
78) E Blood
Why must a normal body temperature be maintained in order for chemical reactions to be continued at life-sustaining rates?
If body temperature is too low, chemical reactions slow and eventually stop. If body
temperature is too high, chemical reactions speed up and body proteins lose their normal shape,
resulting in loss of function.
Name at least four properties about enzymes.
- enzymes are proteins
- enzymes are catalysts.
- Each enzyme is chemically specific.
- Enzymes allow reactions to occur at normal body temperature by decreasing the amount of activation energy required.
In All living cells hydrostatic and osmotic pressure exist. Define these pressures and explain how they are used in the concept of tonicity of the cell.
Hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of water exerted on the cell membrane. Osmotic pressure is created by different concentrations of molecules in a solution separated by the cell membrane. Because these pressures are exerted on the membrane they can be used by the cell to change the shape of the cell, regulate substances entering and exiting the cell, and change the osmolarity of the cell.
How is the resting potential formed? How is it maintained?
Movement of ions across the membrane , intracellular and extracellular, results in the change of voltage thereby creating a change in potential.
The difference of ionic concentrations across the plasma membrane result in a membrane potential. Because sodium is diffusing into the cell and postassium is diffusing out of the cell, the sodium-potassium pump maintains the resting potential by actively transporting 3 Na+ for every 2 K+ it transports in.
The epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body.
serous membrane
The epithelial membrane that lines body cavities open to the exterior membrane.
mucous membrane
Consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
cutaneous
Found lining the digestive and respiratory tracts.
mucous membrane
makes up the pleura and pericardium
Serous membrane
Lines blood vessels and the heart.
Endothelium
The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they possess_____
a. elastic fibers
b. reticular fibers
c. hydroxyapatite crystals
d. collagen fibers
d. collagen fibers.
A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells____.
a. aids in digestion
b. lines most of the respiratory tract.
c. is more durable than all other epithelia
d. is found in some of the larger glands.
lines most of the respiratory tract.
Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs?
a. simple squamous
b. pseudostratified columnar
c. simple columnar
d. simple cuboidal
simple squamous
Connective tissue extracellular matrix is composed of ________.
a) all organic compounds
b) ground substance and cells
c) fibers and ground substance
d) cells and fibers
fibers and ground substance
Cell type NOT found in areolar connective tissue.
a. fibroblast
b. marcophage
c. mast cell
d. chondrocyte
chondrocyte
Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which epithelial tissue?
a. stratified squamous
b. simple squamous
c. simple columnar
d. transitional
simple columnar
Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as____.
a. exocrine
b. endocrine
c. ceruminous
d. sebaceous
b. endocrine
Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?
a. aprocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion
b. holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secreory process, but repairs themselves.
c. merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.
d. these glands are ductless.
merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process
Which is true concerning muscle tissue?
a. contains contractile units made of collagen
b. is a single-celled tissue
c. highly cellular and well vascularized
d. cuboidal shape enhances function
high cellular and well vascularized
The salivary glands are a good example of a(n) ______exocrine gland.
a. compound tubuloalveolar
b. compound alveolar
c. simple branched alveolar
d. compund tubular
compound tubuloalveolar
Bones are porous and thin but bone composition is normal.
osteoporosis
Bone formed is poorly mineralized and soft. Deforms on weight bearing.
osteomalacia
excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption
paget’s disease
T/F
Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of red blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones.
False
T/F
The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compact bones
True
T/F
The hormone that is primarily involved in the control of bone remodeling is PTH.
True
The structure of bone tissue suits function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion stress?
a. irregular bone
b. trabecular bone
c. spongy bone
d. compact bone
compact bone
Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of
a. fat
b. sharpey’s fibers
c. elastic tissue
d. blood-forming cells
fat
The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the _____.
a. chondrocyte
b. osteoblast
c. osteocyte
d. osteoclast
osteoblast
What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?
a. increased osteoclast activity
b. decreased osteoclast activity
c. decrease epiphyseal plate activity
d. inadequate calcification of bone
decreased epiphyseal plate activity
A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the
a. diaphysis
b. epiphysis
c. metaphysis
d. articular cartilage
diaphysis
Ossification of the ends of long bones ___.
a. is a characterisitic of intramembranous bone formation
b. takes twice as long as diaphysis ossicification
c. involved medullary cavity formation
d. is produced by secondary ossification centers.
is produced by secondary ossification centers.
Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?
a. epiphyseal line
b. epiphyseal plate
c. lacuna
d. osteon
epiphyseal plate
Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?
a. parathyroid hormone
b. thyroid hormone
c. calcium
d. growth hormone
growth hormone
The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ______.
a. cartilage and interstitial lamellae
b. yellow marrow and spicules
c. blood vessels and nerve fibers
d. adipose tissue and nerve fibers
blood vessels and nerve fibers
For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary?
a. a bone collar forms around the cartilage model
b. ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane.
c. the cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate.
d. a medullary cavity forms.
ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane
The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________.
a. appositional growth
b. closing of the epiphyseal plate
c. concentric growth
d. epiphyseal plate closure
appositional growth
Bones are constantly undergoing resorption (breaking bone down) for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?
a. stem cell
b. osteocyte
c. osteoblast
d. osteoclast
osteoclast
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
a. thyroxine
b. estrogen
c. parathyroid hormone
d. calcitonin
parathyroid hormone
In humans the effect of the hormone calcitonin is to….
A. temporarily decrease blood calcium levels when administered in large doses
b. decrease mitosis of chondrocytes at the peiphyseal plate
c. increase blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts.
d. increase blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoblasts.
temporarily decrease blood calcium levels when administered in large doses.
Ossification (Osteogenesis) is the process of _______.
a. making a cartilage model of the fetal bone
b. bone destruction to liberate calcium
c. making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage
d. bone formation
bone formation
In some cases the epiphyseal plate of long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause?
a. osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity
b. overproduction of thyroid hormone
c. too much vitamin D in the diet
d. elevated levels of sex hormones
elevated levels of sex hormone
The pubic symphysis connects the two hip bones anteriorly and provides a little movement during childbirth. Choose the most appropriate for this structure that is subjected to both pressure and stretch.
a. bone
b. hyaline cartilage
c. fibrocartilage
d. elastic cartilage
fibrocartilage
When an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by its own matric secretions it is reffered to as an
a. osteocyte
b. osteoclast
c. chondrocyte
d. osteogenic cell
osteocyte
These very small bones are at the medial wall of each orbit
lacrimal bones
Failure of these anerior bones to fuse causes a condition known as cleft palate.
maxillae
This bone houses the apparatus of the internal and middle ear.
Temporal bones
This bone is wing-shaped and extends behind the eyes and forms part of the floor of the cranial vault.
Sphenoid
The bones that contain teeth.
Maxillae
This bone has a passageway into the nasal cavity.
lacrimal bones
The sella turcica is a portion of this bone.
sphenoid
The fingers have three of these bones and the thumb has only two.
Phalanges
This bone articulates with the glenoid fossa.
humerus
Forearm gone that articulates with most of the carpals.
radius
The sella turcica is a part of the ……. bone and houses the ……gland.
a. sphenoid;thymuss
b. sphenoid; pituitary
c. ethmoid; pituitary
d. etmoid; thymus
sphenoid; pituitary
The glenohumeral joint that articulates the humerus to the pectoral girdle is a highly mobile joint. This mobility comes at a cost because……..
a. these type of joints are harder to control and coordinate
b. the blood vessels that lead to the arm and hand can easily be cut off by the free range of motion
c. muscles that span this mobile joint will only provide a reduced amount of power
d. the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate
the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate
The axial skeleton includes
a. the skull,scapula and the vertebral column
b. the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis
c. the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
d. arms, legs, hands and feet
the skull, vertebral column and rib cage
What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs?
a. to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine
b. to remove curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column
c. to hold together the vertebra and support the body
d. to prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine.
to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine.
The pelvic girdle does not include the …….
a. ischium
b. ilium
c. pubis
d. femur
femur
Which of the following bones is not weight bearing?
a. tibia
b. talus
c. fibula
d. femur
fibula
Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus?
a. head
b. lateral malleolus
c. calcaneus
d. medial malleolus
calcaneus
All of the following statements refer to events of tissue repair. Put the events in proper numbered order according to the sequence of occurrence. The initial event, the injury, is already indicated as number one.
- The skin receives a cut that penetrates into the dermis and bleeding begins.
- Epithelial regeneration is nearly complete.
- Granulation tissue is formed.
- Blood clotting occurs and stops the blood flow.
- The scar retracts.
- Macrophages engulf and clean away cellular debris.
- Fibroblasts elaborate connective tissue fibers to span the break.
- The skin receives a cut that penetrates into the dermis and bleeding begins.
- Blood clotting occurs and stops the blood flow.
- Granulation tissue is formed
- Fibroblasts elaborate connective tissue fibers to span the break.
- Macrophages engulf and clean away cellular debris.
- The wound retracts
- Epithelis regeneration is nearly complete.
How are burns commonly classified? Give examples.
First-degree (superficial) burns. First-degree burns affect only the epidermis, or outer layer of skin. The burn site is red, painful, dry, and with no blisters. Mild sunburn is an example. Long-term tissue damage is rare and usually consists of an increase or decrease in the skin color.
Second-degree (partial thickness) burns. Second-degree burns involve the epidermis and part of the dermis layer of skin. The burn site appears red, blistered, and may be swollen and painful.
Third-degree (full thickness) burns. Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis and may go into the subcutaneous tissue. The burn site may appear white or charred
Fourth degree burns. Fourth degree burns also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed.
Susan noticed a large, brown spot on her skin. She has been playing tennis in the sun for several years without sun protection. She reported the discovery to a friend, who told her to apply the ABCD rule to determine whether or not she had malignant melanoma. Her friend told her that if her answer was “no” to the questions that were asked by the ABCD rule, she had nothing to worry about. What is the ABCD rule and should she ignore the spot if her answers are negative?
The ABCD rule is:
Asymmetry: The two sides of the spot or mole do not match
Border irregularity: The borders of the lesion exhibit indentations
Color: The pigment of the spot contains several colors
Diameter: The spot is greater than 6mm in diameter (pencil eraser)
If the answers are negative she should be less concerned but continue to monitor the spot and ask her doctor.
Describe the composition of the intervertebral discs.
Intervertebral discs are composed of an inner semifluid nucleus pulposus, which gives the discs
elasticity and compressibility, and a covering of fibrocartilage, the annulus fibrosus, which limits
expansion and holds successive vertebrae together.
What is a herniated disc?
In a herinated disc, the anulus fibrosus commonly ruptures and the nucleus pulposus protrudes through it. This even typically compresses adjacent nerves, causing pain.
Proper blood calcium levels are required for muscle contraction, nerve function, and other critical activities in the body.
How does the body maintain homeostasis in response to decreased blood calcium levels? Discuss the main gland, hormone, and target of the hormone.
In response to decreased blood calcium levels, the parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone (PTH) which stimulates osteoclasts to liberate calcium from bone and into blood. PTH also encourages the digestive system to absorb more calcium and the kidneys to retain more calcium in blood.
Identify the four major cranial sutures in any order and the bones they connect.
The four major cranial sutures are the coronal suture, which connects the front bone with the two parietal bones; the sagittal suture, which connects the two parietal bones; the squamous suture, which connects the parietal bones to the temporal bone and the lambdoid suture which connects the occipital bone to the parietal bones and the temporal bones.
If Susan’s blood calcium level is normal, does that mean she does not have osteoporosis? Explain.
In osteoporosis, bone is being broken down faster than it s being built. When bone is broken down calcium is released into the blood. So it is possible she could still have osteoporosis because osteoporosis affects density to maintain blood levels.
A skeleton was found in a wooded area. It was brought to a forensic medicine laboratory for identification. The first thing the coroner did was determine the age, sex, and possible size of the person. What was examined in order to get this information?
the ilium, ischium, and pubic bones
The neuron cannot responds to a second stimulus, no matter how strong.
absolute refractory period
The interior of the cells become less negative due to an influx of sodium ions
depolarization
The specific period during which potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron due to a change in membrane permeability.
repolarization
Also called a nerve impulse transmitted by axons.
action potential
An exceptionally strong stimulus can trigger a response.
relative refractory period
T/F
Efferent nerve fibers may be described as sensory nerve fibers.
False
T/F
Cells bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system.
true
Myelination of the nerve fibers in the PNS is the job of the oligodendroctye.
False
T or F
During depolarization, the inside of the neuron’s membrane becomes more positive.
True
T or F
In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.
True
T or F
Large-diameter nerve fibers conduct impulses much faster than small-diameter fibers.
True
The action potential is caused by permeability changes in the plasma membrane.
True
Which of the choices below describes the ANS?
a. motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands
b. sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract
c. motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
d. Sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS.
motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart’s rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
a. sensory (afferent) division
b. somatic nervous system
c. sympathetic division
d. parasympathetic division
parasympathetic division
What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?
a. type of stimulus receptor
b. size of action potentials
c. frequency of action potentials.
d. origin of the stimulus
frequency of actions potentials
Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle?
a. cholinesterase
b. acetylcholine
c. gamma aminobutyric acid
d. norepinephrine
acetylcholine
Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials?
a. leakage channel
b. voltage-gated channel
c. mechanically gated channel
d. ligand-gated channel
voltage-gated channel
If a post synaptic neurn is stimulated to threshold by spatial summation it implies that…….
a. the post synaptic cell has a lower than normal threshold
b. the post synaptic cell is slow to repolarize
c. the postsynaptic cells has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons
d. the post synaptic cell has many voltage-gated ion channel
the postsynaptic cell has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons
When a neurotransmitter like acetylcholine is acting in an excitatory manner which of the following is likely a result of the acetylcholine acting on the post synaptic cell?
A. chemically gated sodium channels will be closed.
b. chemically gated potassium channels will be open
c. chemically gated chloride channels will open
d. chemically gated sodium channels will open
chemically gatd sodium channels will open
The term central nervous system refers to the
a. brain and spinal cord
b. peripheral and spinal nerves
c. spinal cord and spinal nerves
d. brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves
brain and spinal cord
Saltatory conduction is made possible by
a. large nerve fibers
b. diphasic impulses
c. the myelin sheath
d. erratic transmission of nerve impulses
the myelin sheath
Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?
a. sodium
b. calcium
c. chloride
d. potassium
potassium
An inhibitory postsynapotic potential is associated with
a. lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur
b. hyperpolarization
c. opening of voltage-regulated channels
d. a change in sodium ion permeability
hyperpolarization
Which of the following neurotransmitters inhibits pain and is mimicked by morphine, heroin, and methadone?
a. endorphin
b. serotonin
c. nitric oxide
d. acetylcholine
endorphin
auditory area
temporal lobe
primary somatosensory cortex
parietal lobe
primary (somatic) motor cortex
frontal lobe
motor speech (broca’s area)
frontal lobe
premotor cortex
frontal lobe
visual area
occipital lobe
gustatory (taste) area
insula
seat of intelligence, abstract reasoning
frontal lobe
T or F
One functional center found within the medulla oblongata is a respiratory center involved in the control of the rate and dept of breathing.
True
T or F
Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres.
False
T or F
The limbic system acts aas our emotional, or affective, brain.
True
T or False
Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons.
False
horn containing autonomic neurons
lateral horn
site of axons and afferent neurons
dorsal horn
site of sensory soma
dorsal root ganglion
site of efferent soma
ventral horn
multipolar neurons are common here
vental horn
Which brain waves are not normal for awake adults but are common for children?
a. theta
b. alpha
c. delta
d. beta
theta
White matter is found in all of the following locations except the
a. corpus callosum
b. outer portion of the spinal cord
c. cerebral cortex
d. corticospinal tracts
cerebral cortex
REM sleep is associated with
a. decreased activity of the brain, expecially the cerebral cortex
b. decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex
c. temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm
d. decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure
temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm
