FINAL Review

Question 1

activate synaptic vesicles in axon terminals

Answer 1

calcium ions

Question 2

serves as the actual trigger for muscle contract by removing the inhibition of the troponin molecules.

Answer 2

calcium ions

Question 3

destroys ACh

Answer 3

acetylcholinesterase

Question 4

a neurotransmitter released at motor end plates by axon terminals

Answer 4

acetylcholine

Question 5

diffusion across the cell membrane results in depolarization

Answer 5

sodium ions

Question 6

used to convert ADP to ATP by transfer of a high-energy phosphate group. A reserve high-energy compound.

Answer 6

creatine phosphate

Question 7

Joint 1

Answer 7

balls ad socket

Question 8

Joint 2

Answer 8

pivot

Question 9

Joint 3

Answer 9

hinge

Question 10

Joint 4

Answer 10

plane

Question 11

Joint 5

Answer 11

saddle

Question 12

Joint 6

Answer 12

condyloid

Question 13

True or False

A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint

Answer 13

True

Question 14

True or False

The wrist joint can exhibit adduction and eversion movements.

Answer 14

False

Question 15

True or False

A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering a loss of the synovial fluid.

Answer 15

False

Question 16

True or False

Symphyses are synarthrotic joints designed for strength with flexibility.

Answer 16

Fasle

Question 17

Marathons (long time)

Answer 17

aerobic pathway

Question 18

weight lifting (really short time)

Answer 18

direct phosphorylation

Question 19

25 meter swim (short time)

Answer 19

anaerobic pathway

Question 20

True or False

Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscles fibers in a muscle contract.

Answer 20

False

Question 21

True or False

A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.

Answer 21

False

Question 22

True or False

Eccentric contractions are more forceful than concentric contractions

Answer 22

False

Question 23

True or False

An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops.

Answer 23

True.

Question 24

True or False

A resting potential is caused by a same concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell.

Answer 24

False

Question 25

Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?

Answer 25

smooth

Question 26

excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances

Answer 26

ca ²⁺ and ATP

Question 27

Myoglobin

Answer 27

stores oxygen in muscle cells.

Question 28

What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?

Answer 28

sarcoplasmic reticulum

Question 29

What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell?

Answer 29

the arrangement of myofilaments

Question 30

Which of the following surrounds the fascicles within a muscle?

Answer 30

perimysium

Question 31

Rigor mortis occurs because

Answer 31

no ATP is available to release the attached actin and mysoin molecules.

Question 32

What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?

Answer 32

a sarcomere

Question 33

what is the functional role of the T tubules?

Answer 33

enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction.

Question 34

During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to

Answer 34

lactic acid.

Question 35

The muscle cell membrane is called the

Answer 35

sarcolemma.

Question 36

The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that

Answer 36

the site of calcium regulation differs.

Question 37

An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is

Answer 37

glycolysis

Question 38

Muscle tone is

Answer 38

a state of sustained partial contraction.

Question 39

What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?

Answer 39

motor end plate

Question 40

Which of the following is not a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process?

Answer 40

lastissimus dorsi

Question 41

What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?

Answer 41

an agonist.

Question 42

When the term biceps, triceps or quadriceps forms part of a muscle’s name, what does it tell you about the muscle?

Answer 42

The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.

Question 43

The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean?

Answer 43

The muscle elevates.

Question 44

Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?

Answer 44

frontalis

Question 45

Which one of these muscles have a parallel fasicle arrangement?

Answer 45

The sartorius

Question 46

A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is an

Answer 46

antagonist.

Question 47

A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle?

Answer 47

buccinator

Question 48

When these muscles contact (bilateral) a person flexes the head.

Answer 48

sternocleidomastoid

Question 49

Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?

Answer 49

it closes, purses, and protudes the lips.

Question 50

Which muscles is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?

Answer 50

rectus abdominis and diaphragm

Question 51

The deltoid acts to

Answer 51

abduct the arm.

Question 52

A muscle that inserts on the radial tuberosity is most likely involved in

Answer 52

elbow flexion.

Question 53

Which of the following is a muscle that originates from the zygomatic arch and functions in elevating the mandible?

Answer 53

masseter

Question 54

The less-movable end of a skeletal muscle is the

Answer 54

origin.

Question 55

Which of the following muscles is not a member of the hamstrings group?

Answer 55

vastus lateralis

Question 56

Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants as the buttocks and arm muscles are poorly developed?

Answer 56

vastus lateralis

Question 57

The quadriceps femoris is composed of three “vastus” muscles and the

Answer 57

rectus femoris.

Question 58

Susan was injured in an automobile accident that severed the motor neurons innervating her quadriceps group. Even though she has had extensive physcial therapy, she is still suffering muscle atrophy. Why is the therapy not working?

Answer 58

In denervation atrophy, fibrous connective tissue replaces the muscle tissue that was lost. When atrophy is complete, fibrous tissue cannot be reversed to muscle tissue.

Question 59

Susan decided to enter a 5-K race designed to raise money for a class trip (she is a nice person). She did not do any preconditioning, nor has she ever jogged before. The morning after the race, Susan had so much pain in both her anterior legs, she was unable to go to school. What caused the pain?

Answer 59

Brian has shin splints. This is a condition in which the anterior tibialis muscle is irritated, inflamed, and swollen. The circulation is impaired by the tight fascial wrappings, causing pain.

Question 60

Free nerve endings in the skin detect changes in skin temperature (getting colder).

Answer 60

b

Question 61

Information about body temperature is sent through afferent pathways to the brain.

Answer 61

c

Question 62

Skeletal muscles respond with shivering reflex which provides heat to return the body’s temperature to a homeostatic balance or “ideal” value.

Answer 62

E

Question 63

Appropriate response information is sent through efferent pathways.

Answer 63

D

Question 64

A change in the temperature of the external environment (getting colder).

Answer 64

A

Question 65

True or False

The left hyoichondriac regions contains the majority of the stomach

Answer 65

False

Question 66

True or False

The part of the serous membrane that lines the perionteal cavity wall is called parietal peritoneum.

Answer 66

True

Question 67

True or Falso

The olecranal area is proximal to the carpal area.

Answer 67

True

Question 68

Negative or positive feedback

used for blood clotting

Answer 68

positive feedback

Question 69

Negative or Positive feedback

used for changes in blood glucose

Answer 69

negative feedback

Question 70

Negative or positive feedback

used for changes in blood pressure

Answer 70

negative feedback

Question 71

Negative or positive feed back?

used for childbirth

Answer 71

positive feedback

Question 72

Histology would be best defined as a study of

Answer 72

tissues.

Question 73

The throacic cavity contains the _______. It is found _____ to the vertebral cavity.

Answer 73

Heart and lungs: anterior

Question 74

You are told to take an axillary temperature on a small child. You will place the thermometer

Answer 74

in the armpit.

Question 75

You are asked to take a person’s heart rate at the popliteal pulse point. You will lokk for this pulse

Answer 75

on the posterior side of the knee.

Question 76

One of the descriptions below is from the perspective of anatomical study, the rest are from a physiological perspective. Select the description below that comes froma an anatomical perspective.

Answer 76

The innermost lining of the lungs is composed primarily of a thin tissue called simple squamous epithelium.

Question 77

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?

Answer 77

frontal

Question 78

Which of the following are survival needs of the body?

Answer 78

nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure and oxygen.

Question 79

Which is phosphate?

Answer 79

C

Question 80

Which is deoxyribose sugar?

Answer 80

B

Question 81

Which is Thymine?

Answer 81

D

Question 82

Which is

23) guanine
24) hydrogen bonds

Answer 82

23) E
24) A

Question 83

Which of the following elements is necessary for proper conduction of nerve impulses?

Answer 83

Na

Question 84

In general, the lipids that we refer to as oils have

Answer 84

unsaturated fatty acids.

Question 85

The genetic information is coded in DNA by the

Answer 85

sequence of nucleotides.

Question 86

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of

Answer 86

glycogen.

Question 87

Salts are always

Answer 87

ionic compounds

Question 88

The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?

Answer 88

2,8,1

Question 89

Which of the following statements is false?

When hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentratin also decreases.

When acids and bases are mixed, they react with each other to form water and a salt.

The more hydrogen ions in a solution, the more acidic the solution.

The pH of blood is slightly basic.

Answer 89

When hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentratin also decreases.

Question 90

Which of the following is the major extracellular cation?

hydrogen

magnesium

potassium

sodium

Answer 90

sodium

Question 91

Choose the answer that best describes HCO^3-.

Answer 91

a bicarbonate ion

Question 92

Which of the following is an example of a suspension?

salt water

blood

rubbing alcohol

cytosol

Answer 92

blood

Question 93

The four elemetns that make up about 96% of body weight are

Answer 93

carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

Question 94

Atom X has 17 protons. how many electrons are in its valence shell (outermost energy level)?

Answer 94

7

Question 95

What does the formula C₆H₁₂O₆ mean?

Answer 95

There are 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen and 6 oxygen atoms.

Question 96

What is a dipole?

Answer 96

a polar molecule

Question 97

Lactose is a

Answer 97

disaccharide

Question 98

When DNA is replicated, it is necessary fo the two strands to “unzip” temporarily. Choose which bonding type is most appropriate for holding the strands together in this way.

Answer 98

hydrogen bonding

Question 99

A patient is hyperventilating. The “blowing off” of excessive carbon dioxide causes a decrease in blood H⁺ concentration. How can the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system function to correct this imbalance?

CO2 + H2O ⇔ H2CO3 ⇔ H+ + HCO3-

Answer 99

H2CO3 dissociates to form more H+ and lower pH

Question 100

Salivary amylase is an enzyme produced by the salivary glands that breaks down carbohydrates. What will happen to this enzyme as it follows the food into the stomach where the pH drops to 2.5?

Answer 100

The enzyme will denature and become inactive.

Question 101

Tendons are strong, rope-like structures that connect skeletal muscle to bone. Which of the following proteins would provide stength to a tendon?

Answer 101

collagen

Question 102

Phospholipids make up most of the lipid part of the cell membrane. Since water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell, which of the following phospholipid arrangements makes the most sense?

Answer 102

two back-to-back phospholipid layers wth the polar heads facing out on both sides.

Question 103

T or F

Buffers resist abrupt and large changes in the pH of body fluids by releasing or binding anions.

Answer 103

False

Question 104

T or F

Glucose is an example of a polysaccharide.

Answer 104

False

Question 105

T or F

It is the difference in the R group that makes each amino acid chemically unique.

Answer 105

True

Question 106

T or F

Triglycerides are a poor source of store energy.

Answer 106

False

Question 107

Match the letter to the correct statement

49) site of enzymatic breakdown of phagocytized material
50) When ruptured it releases the enzymes responsible for autolysis.
51) Packages proteins for insertion in the cell membrane or for exocytosis.
52) Produces ATP aerobically.
53) Site of synthesis of lipid and steroid molecules.
54) Forms the mitotic spindle
55) replicate for cell division.

Answer 107

49) C
50) C
51) E
52) B
53) A
54) D
55) D

Question 108

Passive membrane transport processes include

Answer 108

movement of a substance down its concentration gradient.

Question 109

Crenation is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in

Answer 109

a hypertonic solution.

Question 110

A gene can best be defined as

Answer 110

a segment of DNA that carries instructions for a polypeptide chain.

Question 111

Which of the following would not be restricted (limited) by low levels of ATP?

Answer 111

osmosis

Question 112

The lungs deliver a regular supply of oxygen to the blood, which in turn circulated to most all cells of the body. At the same time oxygen is consumed during aerobic cellular respiration within these cells. This implies that

Answer 112

oxygen will passively diffuse into the cells.

Question 113

A cell engulfing a relatively large particle will likely utilizze

Answer 113

phagocytosis

Question 114

Colchicine is a drug that can prevent formation of microtubules. Which is the most likely affect colchicine would have on cell division?

Answer 114

It will arrest mitosis by preventing the formation of spindle microtubules.

Question 115

Beta cells in the pancreas produce and secrete the protein insulin. You would expect to see a relatively large amount of which organelles in these cells?

Answer 115

Golgi apparatus, rough endoplasmic reticulum

Question 116

Myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) must rhythmically contract for a lifetime. This requires a considerable amount of energy production by the cells. You would expect to see a relatively high amount of which organelle in these cells?

Answer 116

mitochondria

Question 117

Canceroud cells can divide so rapidly that they will often produce a glycocalyx that is different than the other cells in the body. This may result in

Answer 117

cells of the immune system recognizing the tumorous cells as foreign and destroying them.

Question 118

The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome for protein formation is

Answer 118

tRNA

Question 119

chromosomes uncoil to form chromatin

Answer 119

telophase

Question 120

chromosomal centromeres split and chromosomes migrate to opposite ends of the cell

Answer 120

anaphase

Question 121

nuclear membrane and nucleolus disintegrate.

Answer 121

late prophase

Question 122

Chromosomes align on the spindle equator.

Answer 122

metaphase

Question 123

Centrioles move to opposite ends of the cell.

Answer 123

early prophase

Question 124

A type of transport protein found in the plasma membrane of cells lining the inside of the intestine allows sodium ions to diffuse down their concentration gradient. The ions move through the transport protein and into the cell. These transport proteins will use the kinetic energy of the diffusing sodium ions to bring glucose into the cells as well. Which of the following would stop transport of glucose through this transport protein?

Answer 124

stopping the activity of the sodium potassium pump.

Question 125

Match the letter to the correct statement.

74) Supports and protects; stores calcium
75) Forms tendons and ligaments
76) Supports and protects; insulates against heat loss; reserve source of fuel.
77) Provides tensile strength with the ability to absorb compressive shock.
78) Composed of cells in a fluid matrix.

Answer 125

74) D bone
75) B dense regular connective
76) A adipose
77) C fibrocartilage
78) E Blood

Question 126

Why must a normal body temperature be maintained in order for chemical reactions to be continued at life-sustaining rates?

Answer 126

If body temperature is too low, chemical reactions slow and eventually stop. If body
temperature is too high, chemical reactions speed up and body proteins lose their normal shape,
resulting in loss of function.

Question 127

Name at least four properties about enzymes.

Answer 127

1. enzymes are proteins
2. enzymes are catalysts.
3. Each enzyme is chemically specific.
4. Enzymes allow reactions to occur at normal body temperature by decreasing the amount of activation energy required.

Question 128

In All living cells hydrostatic and osmotic pressure exist. Define these pressures and explain how they are used in the concept of tonicity of the cell.

Answer 128

Hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of water exerted on the cell membrane. Osmotic pressure is created by different concentrations of molecules in a solution separated by the cell membrane. Because these pressures are exerted on the membrane they can be used by the cell to change the shape of the cell, regulate substances entering and exiting the cell, and change the osmolarity of the cell.

Question 129

How is the resting potential formed? How is it maintained?

Answer 129

Movement of ions across the membrane , intracellular and extracellular, results in the change of voltage thereby creating a change in potential.

The difference of ionic concentrations across the plasma membrane result in a membrane potential. Because sodium is diffusing into the cell and postassium is diffusing out of the cell, the sodium-potassium pump maintains the resting potential by actively transporting 3 Na+ for every 2 K+ it transports in.

Question 130

The epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body.

Answer 130

serous membrane

Question 131

The epithelial membrane that lines body cavities open to the exterior membrane.

Answer 131

mucous membrane

Question 132

Consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

Answer 132

cutaneous

Question 133

Found lining the digestive and respiratory tracts.

Answer 133

mucous membrane

Question 134

makes up the pleura and pericardium

Answer 134

Serous membrane

Question 135

Lines blood vessels and the heart.

Answer 135

Endothelium

Question 136

The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they possess_____

a. elastic fibers
b. reticular fibers
c. hydroxyapatite crystals
d. collagen fibers

Answer 136

d. collagen fibers.

Question 137

A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells____.

a. aids in digestion
b. lines most of the respiratory tract.
c. is more durable than all other epithelia
d. is found in some of the larger glands.

Answer 137

lines most of the respiratory tract.

Question 138

Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs?

a. simple squamous
b. pseudostratified columnar
c. simple columnar
d. simple cuboidal

Answer 138

simple squamous

Question 139

Connective tissue extracellular matrix is composed of ________.

a) all organic compounds
b) ground substance and cells
c) fibers and ground substance
d) cells and fibers

Answer 139

fibers and ground substance

Question 140

Cell type NOT found in areolar connective tissue.

a. fibroblast
b. marcophage
c. mast cell
d. chondrocyte

Answer 140

chondrocyte

Question 141

Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which epithelial tissue?

a. stratified squamous
b. simple squamous
c. simple columnar
d. transitional

Answer 141

simple columnar

Question 142

Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as____.

a. exocrine
b. endocrine
c. ceruminous
d. sebaceous

Answer 142

b. endocrine

Question 143

Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?

a. aprocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion
b. holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secreory process, but repairs themselves.
c. merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.
d. these glands are ductless.

Answer 143

merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process

Question 144

Which is true concerning muscle tissue?

a. contains contractile units made of collagen
b. is a single-celled tissue
c. highly cellular and well vascularized
d. cuboidal shape enhances function

Answer 144

high cellular and well vascularized

Question 145

The salivary glands are a good example of a(n) ______exocrine gland.

a. compound tubuloalveolar
b. compound alveolar
c. simple branched alveolar
d. compund tubular

Answer 145

compound tubuloalveolar

Question 146

Bones are porous and thin but bone composition is normal.

Answer 146

osteoporosis

Question 147

Bone formed is poorly mineralized and soft. Deforms on weight bearing.

Answer 147

osteomalacia

Question 148

excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption

Answer 148

paget’s disease

Question 149

T/F

Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of red blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones.

Answer 149

False

Question 150

T/F

The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compact bones

Answer 150

True

Question 151

T/F

The hormone that is primarily involved in the control of bone remodeling is PTH.

Answer 151

True

Question 152

The structure of bone tissue suits function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion stress?

a. irregular bone
b. trabecular bone
c. spongy bone
d. compact bone

Answer 152

compact bone

Question 153

Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of

a. fat
b. sharpey’s fibers
c. elastic tissue
d. blood-forming cells

Answer 153

fat

Question 154

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the _____.

a. chondrocyte
b. osteoblast
c. osteocyte
d. osteoclast

Answer 154

osteoblast

Question 155

What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?

a. increased osteoclast activity
b. decreased osteoclast activity
c. decrease epiphyseal plate activity
d. inadequate calcification of bone

Answer 155

decreased epiphyseal plate activity

Question 156

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the

a. diaphysis
b. epiphysis
c. metaphysis
d. articular cartilage

Answer 156

diaphysis

Question 157

Ossification of the ends of long bones ___.

a. is a characterisitic of intramembranous bone formation
b. takes twice as long as diaphysis ossicification
c. involved medullary cavity formation
d. is produced by secondary ossification centers.

Answer 157

is produced by secondary ossification centers.

Question 158

Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?

a. epiphyseal line
b. epiphyseal plate
c. lacuna
d. osteon

Answer 158

epiphyseal plate

Question 159

Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?

a. parathyroid hormone
b. thyroid hormone
c. calcium
d. growth hormone

Answer 159

growth hormone

Question 160

The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ______.

a. cartilage and interstitial lamellae
b. yellow marrow and spicules
c. blood vessels and nerve fibers
d. adipose tissue and nerve fibers

Answer 160

blood vessels and nerve fibers

Question 161

For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary?

a. a bone collar forms around the cartilage model
b. ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane.
c. the cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate.
d. a medullary cavity forms.

Answer 161

ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane

Question 162

The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________.

a. appositional growth
b. closing of the epiphyseal plate
c. concentric growth
d. epiphyseal plate closure

Answer 162

appositional growth

Question 163

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption (breaking bone down) for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?

a. stem cell
b. osteocyte
c. osteoblast
d. osteoclast

Answer 163

osteoclast

Question 164

Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?

a. thyroxine
b. estrogen
c. parathyroid hormone
d. calcitonin

Answer 164

parathyroid hormone

Question 165

In humans the effect of the hormone calcitonin is to….

A. temporarily decrease blood calcium levels when administered in large doses

b. decrease mitosis of chondrocytes at the peiphyseal plate
c. increase blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts.
d. increase blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoblasts.

Answer 165

temporarily decrease blood calcium levels when administered in large doses.

Question 166

Ossification (Osteogenesis) is the process of _______.

a. making a cartilage model of the fetal bone
b. bone destruction to liberate calcium
c. making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage
d. bone formation

Answer 166

bone formation

Question 167

In some cases the epiphyseal plate of long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause?

a. osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity
b. overproduction of thyroid hormone
c. too much vitamin D in the diet
d. elevated levels of sex hormones

Answer 167

elevated levels of sex hormone

Question 168

The pubic symphysis connects the two hip bones anteriorly and provides a little movement during childbirth. Choose the most appropriate for this structure that is subjected to both pressure and stretch.

a. bone
b. hyaline cartilage
c. fibrocartilage
d. elastic cartilage

Answer 168

fibrocartilage

Question 169

When an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by its own matric secretions it is reffered to as an

a. osteocyte
b. osteoclast
c. chondrocyte
d. osteogenic cell

Answer 169

osteocyte

Question 170

These very small bones are at the medial wall of each orbit

Answer 170

lacrimal bones

Question 171

Failure of these anerior bones to fuse causes a condition known as cleft palate.

Answer 171

maxillae

Question 172

This bone houses the apparatus of the internal and middle ear.

Answer 172

Temporal bones

Question 173

This bone is wing-shaped and extends behind the eyes and forms part of the floor of the cranial vault.

Answer 173

Sphenoid

Question 174

The bones that contain teeth.

Answer 174

Maxillae

Question 175

This bone has a passageway into the nasal cavity.

Answer 175

lacrimal bones

Question 176

The sella turcica is a portion of this bone.

Answer 176

sphenoid

Question 177

The fingers have three of these bones and the thumb has only two.

Answer 177

Phalanges

Question 178

This bone articulates with the glenoid fossa.

Answer 178

humerus

Question 179

Forearm gone that articulates with most of the carpals.

Answer 179

radius

Question 180

The sella turcica is a part of the ……. bone and houses the ……gland.

a. sphenoid;thymuss
b. sphenoid; pituitary
c. ethmoid; pituitary
d. etmoid; thymus

Answer 180

sphenoid; pituitary

Question 181

The glenohumeral joint that articulates the humerus to the pectoral girdle is a highly mobile joint. This mobility comes at a cost because……..

a. these type of joints are harder to control and coordinate
b. the blood vessels that lead to the arm and hand can easily be cut off by the free range of motion
c. muscles that span this mobile joint will only provide a reduced amount of power
d. the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate

Answer 181

the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate

Question 182

The axial skeleton includes

a. the skull,scapula and the vertebral column
b. the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis
c. the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
d. arms, legs, hands and feet

Answer 182

the skull, vertebral column and rib cage

Question 183

What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs?

a. to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine
b. to remove curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column
c. to hold together the vertebra and support the body
d. to prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine.

Answer 183

to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine.

Question 184

The pelvic girdle does not include the …….

a. ischium
b. ilium
c. pubis
d. femur

Answer 184

femur

Question 185

Which of the following bones is not weight bearing?

a. tibia
b. talus
c. fibula
d. femur

Answer 185

fibula

Question 186

Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus?

a. head
b. lateral malleolus
c. calcaneus
d. medial malleolus

Answer 186

calcaneus

Question 187

All of the following statements refer to events of tissue repair. Put the events in proper numbered order according to the sequence of occurrence. The initial event, the injury, is already indicated as number one.

1. The skin receives a cut that penetrates into the dermis and bleeding begins.
2. Epithelial regeneration is nearly complete.
3. Granulation tissue is formed.
4. Blood clotting occurs and stops the blood flow.
5. The scar retracts.
6. Macrophages engulf and clean away cellular debris.
7. Fibroblasts elaborate connective tissue fibers to span the break.

Answer 187

1. The skin receives a cut that penetrates into the dermis and bleeding begins.
2. Blood clotting occurs and stops the blood flow.
3. Granulation tissue is formed
4. Fibroblasts elaborate connective tissue fibers to span the break.
5. Macrophages engulf and clean away cellular debris.
6. The wound retracts
7. Epithelis regeneration is nearly complete.

Question 188

How are burns commonly classified? Give examples.

Answer 188

First-degree (superficial) burns. First-degree burns affect only the epidermis, or outer layer of skin. The burn site is red, painful, dry, and with no blisters. Mild sunburn is an example. Long-term tissue damage is rare and usually consists of an increase or decrease in the skin color.

Second-degree (partial thickness) burns. Second-degree burns involve the epidermis and part of the dermis layer of skin. The burn site appears red, blistered, and may be swollen and painful.

Third-degree (full thickness) burns. Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis and may go into the subcutaneous tissue. The burn site may appear white or charred

Fourth degree burns. Fourth degree burns also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed.

Question 189

Susan noticed a large, brown spot on her skin. She has been playing tennis in the sun for several years without sun protection. She reported the discovery to a friend, who told her to apply the ABCD rule to determine whether or not she had malignant melanoma. Her friend told her that if her answer was “no” to the questions that were asked by the ABCD rule, she had nothing to worry about. What is the ABCD rule and should she ignore the spot if her answers are negative?

Answer 189

The ABCD rule is:
Asymmetry: The two sides of the spot or mole do not match
Border irregularity: The borders of the lesion exhibit indentations
Color: The pigment of the spot contains several colors
Diameter: The spot is greater than 6mm in diameter (pencil eraser)
If the answers are negative she should be less concerned but continue to monitor the spot and ask her doctor.

Question 190

Describe the composition of the intervertebral discs.

Answer 190

Intervertebral discs are composed of an inner semifluid nucleus pulposus, which gives the discs
elasticity and compressibility, and a covering of fibrocartilage, the annulus fibrosus, which limits
expansion and holds successive vertebrae together.

Question 191

What is a herniated disc?

Answer 191

In a herinated disc, the anulus fibrosus commonly ruptures and the nucleus pulposus protrudes through it. This even typically compresses adjacent nerves, causing pain.

Question 192

Proper blood calcium levels are required for muscle contraction, nerve function, and other critical activities in the body.

How does the body maintain homeostasis in response to decreased blood calcium levels? Discuss the main gland, hormone, and target of the hormone.

Answer 192

In response to decreased blood calcium levels, the parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone (PTH) which stimulates osteoclasts to liberate calcium from bone and into blood. PTH also encourages the digestive system to absorb more calcium and the kidneys to retain more calcium in blood.

Question 193

Identify the four major cranial sutures in any order and the bones they connect.

Answer 193

The four major cranial sutures are the coronal suture, which connects the front bone with the two parietal bones; the sagittal suture, which connects the two parietal bones; the squamous suture, which connects the parietal bones to the temporal bone and the lambdoid suture which connects the occipital bone to the parietal bones and the temporal bones.

Question 194

If Susan’s blood calcium level is normal, does that mean she does not have osteoporosis? Explain.

Answer 194

In osteoporosis, bone is being broken down faster than it s being built. When bone is broken down calcium is released into the blood. So it is possible she could still have osteoporosis because osteoporosis affects density to maintain blood levels.

Question 195

A skeleton was found in a wooded area. It was brought to a forensic medicine laboratory for identification. The first thing the coroner did was determine the age, sex, and possible size of the person. What was examined in order to get this information?

Answer 195

the ilium, ischium, and pubic bones

Question 196

The neuron cannot responds to a second stimulus, no matter how strong.

Answer 196

absolute refractory period

Question 197

The interior of the cells become less negative due to an influx of sodium ions

Answer 197

depolarization

Question 198

The specific period during which potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron due to a change in membrane permeability.

Answer 198

repolarization

Question 199

Also called a nerve impulse transmitted by axons.

Answer 199

action potential

Question 200

An exceptionally strong stimulus can trigger a response.

Answer 200

relative refractory period

Question 201

T/F

Efferent nerve fibers may be described as sensory nerve fibers.

Answer 201

False

Question 202

T/F

Cells bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system.

Answer 202

true

Question 203

Myelination of the nerve fibers in the PNS is the job of the oligodendroctye.

Answer 203

False

Question 204

T or F

During depolarization, the inside of the neuron’s membrane becomes more positive.

Answer 204

True

Question 205

T or F

In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.

Answer 205

True

Question 206

T or F

Large-diameter nerve fibers conduct impulses much faster than small-diameter fibers.

Answer 206

True

Question 207

The action potential is caused by permeability changes in the plasma membrane.

Answer 207

True

Question 208

Which of the choices below describes the ANS?

a. motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands
b. sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract
c. motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
d. Sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS.

Answer 208

motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

Question 209

Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart’s rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?

a. sensory (afferent) division
b. somatic nervous system
c. sympathetic division
d. parasympathetic division

Answer 209

parasympathetic division

Question 210

What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?

a. type of stimulus receptor
b. size of action potentials
c. frequency of action potentials.
d. origin of the stimulus

Answer 210

frequency of actions potentials

Question 211

Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle?

a. cholinesterase
b. acetylcholine
c. gamma aminobutyric acid
d. norepinephrine

Answer 211

acetylcholine

Question 212

Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials?

a. leakage channel
b. voltage-gated channel
c. mechanically gated channel
d. ligand-gated channel

Answer 212

voltage-gated channel

Question 213

If a post synaptic neurn is stimulated to threshold by spatial summation it implies that…….

a. the post synaptic cell has a lower than normal threshold
b. the post synaptic cell is slow to repolarize
c. the postsynaptic cells has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons
d. the post synaptic cell has many voltage-gated ion channel

Answer 213

the postsynaptic cell has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons

Question 214

When a neurotransmitter like acetylcholine is acting in an excitatory manner which of the following is likely a result of the acetylcholine acting on the post synaptic cell?

A. chemically gated sodium channels will be closed.

b. chemically gated potassium channels will be open
c. chemically gated chloride channels will open
d. chemically gated sodium channels will open

Answer 214

chemically gatd sodium channels will open

Question 215

The term central nervous system refers to the

a. brain and spinal cord
b. peripheral and spinal nerves
c. spinal cord and spinal nerves
d. brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves

Answer 215

brain and spinal cord

Question 216

Saltatory conduction is made possible by

a. large nerve fibers
b. diphasic impulses
c. the myelin sheath
d. erratic transmission of nerve impulses

Answer 216

the myelin sheath

Question 217

Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?

a. sodium
b. calcium
c. chloride
d. potassium

Answer 217

potassium

Question 218

An inhibitory postsynapotic potential is associated with

a. lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur
b. hyperpolarization
c. opening of voltage-regulated channels
d. a change in sodium ion permeability

Answer 218

hyperpolarization

Question 219

Which of the following neurotransmitters inhibits pain and is mimicked by morphine, heroin, and methadone?

a. endorphin
b. serotonin
c. nitric oxide
d. acetylcholine

Answer 219

endorphin

Question 220

auditory area

Answer 220

temporal lobe

Question 221

primary somatosensory cortex

Answer 221

parietal lobe

Question 222

primary (somatic) motor cortex

Answer 222

frontal lobe

Question 223

motor speech (broca’s area)

Answer 223

frontal lobe

Question 224

premotor cortex

Answer 224

frontal lobe

Question 225

visual area

Answer 225

occipital lobe

Question 226

gustatory (taste) area

Answer 226

insula

Question 227

seat of intelligence, abstract reasoning

Answer 227

frontal lobe

Question 228

T or F

One functional center found within the medulla oblongata is a respiratory center involved in the control of the rate and dept of breathing.

Answer 228

True

Question 229

T or F

Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres.

Answer 229

False

Question 230

T or F

The limbic system acts aas our emotional, or affective, brain.

Answer 230

True

Question 231

T or False

Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons.

Answer 231

False

Question 232

horn containing autonomic neurons

Answer 232

lateral horn

Question 233

site of axons and afferent neurons

Answer 233

dorsal horn

Question 234

site of sensory soma

Answer 234

dorsal root ganglion

Question 235

site of efferent soma

Answer 235

ventral horn

Question 236

multipolar neurons are common here

Answer 236

vental horn

Question 237

Which brain waves are not normal for awake adults but are common for children?

a. theta
b. alpha
c. delta
d. beta

Answer 237

theta

Question 238

White matter is found in all of the following locations except the

a. corpus callosum
b. outer portion of the spinal cord
c. cerebral cortex
d. corticospinal tracts

Answer 238

cerebral cortex

Question 239

REM sleep is associated with

a. decreased activity of the brain, expecially the cerebral cortex
b. decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex
c. temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm
d. decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure

Answer 239

temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm