Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vet Nursing 3: Large Animal > FINAL REVIEW > Flashcards

FINAL REVIEW Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

What is the occupational death rate in livestock careers?

A

21 workers per 100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many disabling accidents are noted per year in livestock careers?

A

110,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How should you approach a horse?

A

45 degree angle at the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When tying a horse how long should the rope be?

A

2 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is one mild form of horse restraint used to discourage a horse from moving around or kicking?

A

Elevate one leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When is tail restraint in horses contraindicated?

A

Adult horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of shavings should not be used in horses?

A

Pine and black walnut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who pays for the prepurchase exam for a horse?

A

The buyer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of estrous cycle do horses have?

A

Seasonally polyestrus (long day breeders)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the duration of estrus for horses?

A

2-12 days (5-7 average)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How often do horses come into estrus?

A

15-26 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the time of ovulation in horses?

A

Last 48 hours of estrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the optimal breeding time in horses?

A

Every 24-48 hours while in heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common cause of infertility in horses?

A

Uterine infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What reasons are uterine infusions performed in horses?

A

Treatment of uterine infection

Routine flushing

Post-breeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the milk teeth in horses?

A

Deciduous teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the term for retained deciduous teeth, stuck on top of erupting permanent teeth?

A

Caps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the term for the chewing surface of teeth in horses?

A

Occlusive tables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the term for the first premolar teeth?

A

Wolf teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

At what age are all permanent teeth erupted in horses?

A

5 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the term for the angle between lower and upper incisors in horses?

A

Incisive arcade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the term for the indentation in the occlusive table?

A

Cups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is absent in smooth mouthed horses?

A

Cups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many teeth do horses have? (Male vs Female)

A

Male: 40-42

Female: 36-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many teeth does a young horse have?

A

24 deciduous teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Central incisors in horses erupt at what age?

A

1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Lateral incisors erupt at what age in horses?

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Corner incisors erupt at what age in horses?

A

9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A horse at 5 years old has occlusive tables of what shape?

A

Flattened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

At what age are horses occlusive tables oval shaped?

A

9 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

At what age are horses occlusive tables round shaped?

A

15 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At what age are horses occlusive tables triangle shaped?

A

20 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If horses are young what what is the angle of their incisors?

A

Perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If horses are older what is the angle of their incisors?

A

Parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

At what age do canine teeth erupts in horses?

A

4 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where are wolf teeth usually present in horses?

A

Maxillary jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What position are horses placed for necropsy?

A

Left lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Creeping paralysis is a clinical sign of what disease in horses?

A

Botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum (Bacteroides spp) is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Canker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Odor or friable, white cottage cheese frog are clinical signs of what disease in horses?

A

Canker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Lyme Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is used to diagnose lyme disease in horses?

A

ELISA or IFA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the treatment options for lyme disease in horses?

A

IV tetracycline

Oral doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Neorickettsia risticci is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Potomac Horse Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is Potomac Horse Fever diagnosed?

A

Culture and PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the treatment for Potomac Horse Fever?

A

Oxytetracycline and supportive therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Dermatophilus congolensis is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Rain rot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Streptococcus equi is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Strangles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Sawhorse appearance, recumbent and dyspnea are all clinical signs of what disease in horses?

A

Tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Thrush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Sarcocystis neurona or Neospora hughesi is the causitive agent for what disease in horses?

A

EPM

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Muscle atrophy and cranial nerve abnormalities are clinical signs of what disease in horses?

A

EPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Babesia equi or Babesia cabelli is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Piroplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Small round lesions covered with scales are clinical signs of what disease in horses?

A

Dermatophytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Cheesy material and air pockets that pack with debris, laminitis, lameness, and black foul smelling material are clinical signs of what disease in horses?

A

White Line Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Equine alphaviruses are the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Encephalomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Flu-like symptoms, abortion and pneumonia are the clinical signs of what disease in horses?

A

Equine Arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Retroviridae family are the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Equine Infectious Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Reportable disease in horses?

A

Equine Infectious Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Orthomyxoviridae family is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Equine Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Equine herpes virus 1 and 4 are the causitive agents of what disease in horses?

A

Rhinoneumonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Rhabdoviridae family is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Vesicular Stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Flaviviridae family are the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

West Nile Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Equus caballus is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Cutaneous Papillomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Warts are a clinical sign of what disease in horses?

A

Cutaneous Papillomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Flexing at the poll and depression are clinical signs of what disease in horses?

A

Choke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Exposure to air pollutants is the causitive agent for what disease in horses?

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism and cortisol excess is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Cushing Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the treatment for Cushing disease in horses?

A

Cyproheptadine or pergolide mesylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

˜Cramping, fatigue, and muscle pain in horses; most often associated with exercise are the clinical signs of what disease in horses?

A

Exertional Myopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Low T3 and T4 levels are the causitive agents of what disease in horses?

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

˜Broken rings in the trachea and paralysis of the muscles that control vocal cord tension are the causitive agent of what disease in horses?

A

Roaring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Compression of the spinal cord in the neck region and incoordination are signs of what disease in horses?

A

Wobbler Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When are Fall lambs born?

A

Before December 25th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When are Fall lambs marketed?

A

Early spring to June

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What lambs are also known as Easter lambs?

A

Fall lambs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

At what age are Fall lambs considered Hothouse Lambs?

A

50-90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When are early spring lambs born?

A

January or February

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When are early spring lambs marketed?

A

Before the end of June

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When are late spring lambs born?

A

March, April, May

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What lambs are often worth less?

A

Late Spring Lambs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is accelerated lambing?

A

3 lamb crops in 2 years, bred out of season

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

In what breed of sheep are triplets common?

A

Finnish Sheep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What breed of sheep are used for crossbreeding?

A

Lincolns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What goats are also known as scrub goats, brush goats, and meat goats?

A

Spanish goats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the preferred color for pygmy goats?

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What pygmy goats can not be registered?

A

Polled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What breed of goats is known as the “Queen of the Dairy Goats”?

A

Saanen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the fleece of the angora goat also known as?

A

Mohair

90
Q

How often is wool sheared?

A

Twice a year

91
Q

What are the three grading systems for wool?

A

Micron

Numerical count (USDA)

American system

92
Q

When are wool prices highest?

A

May-July, peak again in October

93
Q

When are wool prices lowest?

A

January, February, August, September, November, and December

94
Q

What term describes shearing around the udder, belly, and tail before lambing?

A

Crutching

95
Q

What is the term for shearing around tail and sheath before mating?

A

Tagging

96
Q

What is the term for shearing wool above and below the eyes, to help prevent wool blindness?

A

Facing

97
Q

When is regrowth of wool protective again after shearing?

A

6 weeks

98
Q

When should shearing pregnant animals be avoided?

A

Last 6 weeks of pregnancy

99
Q

What goat breed does not produce cashmere?

A

Angora

100
Q

How often are lamas and alpacas sheared?

A

Annually

101
Q

When can dyeing be done during the fiber processing?

A

At any stage

102
Q

What type of estrous cycle do sheep have?

A

Seasonally polyestrus, short day

103
Q

What is the estrus cycle frequency of sheep?

A

13-19 days, average 17

104
Q

What is the gestation period for sheep?

A

148 days

105
Q

What type of estrous cycle do goats have?

A

Varies by breed

106
Q

What is the frequency of estrus in goats?

A

12-30 days, 22 average

107
Q

What is the gestation period in goats?

A

140-160 days, average 151

108
Q

When can embryo transfer be performed in ovine?

A

5-6 days after estrus

109
Q

Goats that are HH are what?

A

Polled, 35% infertility

110
Q

Goats that are Hh are what?

A

Polled (H is dominant), normal

111
Q

Goats that are hh are what?

A

Horned, normal

112
Q

How long does stage 1 parturition last in ewes?

A

1-4 hours

113
Q

How long does stage 1 parturition last in goats?

A

up to 12 hours

114
Q

How long does stage 2 parturition last in sheep and goats?

A

1-2 hours

115
Q

When is assistance required in parturition of goats and sheep?

A

Contractions without fetus in 30 minutes to 1 hour

116
Q

How long does stage 3 parturition last in sheep and goats?

A

2-6 hours, assistance after 12 hours

117
Q

Dystocia is common in sheep or goats?

A

Sheep

118
Q

How can urine be collected from sheep?

A

Hold nostrils and mouth shut for up to 45 seconds

119
Q

How can urine be collected from goats?

A

After lateral recumbency, placed a new stall or pen area

120
Q

What is the maximum volume for each IM injection site in goats?

A

5 mL

121
Q

What muscles should be avoided in sheep and goats for IM injections?

A

Gluteal, due to thin muscles

122
Q

What is the most common site for IM injections in sheep and goats?

A

Lateral cervical muscles, avoid in show goats

123
Q

What muscle is used for IM injections in show goats?

A

Longissimus muscle

124
Q

What is the maximum volume that can be administered SQ in sheep and goats per site?

A

Up to 50 mL

125
Q

How long is food withheld for sheep and goats?

A

12-24 hours

126
Q

How long should lambs and kids be fastested prior to surgery once on solid foods?

A

2-4 hours

127
Q

What local anesthetic are sheep and goats more sensitive to?

A

Lidocaine

128
Q

At what dose is Lidocaine toxic in sheep and goats?

A

10 mL/kg total

129
Q

At what concentration should lidocaine never be given to sheep and goats?

A

Greater than 2%

130
Q

What is the most common block in sheep and goats?

A

L block

131
Q

How much oxygen should be given to sheep and goats before induction?

A

3-5 L/min, given for 1-2 minutes

132
Q

At what age are sheep and goats castrated?

A

2-4 weeks

133
Q

How far from the body should tail docking be performed in sheep and goats?

A

1 inch away

134
Q

How should sheep and goats be placed for C-section?

A

Right lateral recumency, incision in left flank, do not elevate head

135
Q

Clostridium novyi, C. sordellii, C. chauvoei are causitive agents of what disease in sheep and goats?

A

Big Head

136
Q

Clostridium novyi type B is the causitive agent of what disease in sheep and goats?

A

Black Disease

137
Q

What is the treatment for Black disease?

A

Tetracycline

138
Q

What are the causitive agents of Brucellosis in goats?

A

Brucella melitensis and B. abortus

139
Q

What are the causitive agents of Brucellosis in sheep?

A

Brucella ovis and B. melitensis

140
Q

What is the causitive agent of Caseous Lymphadentitis in sheep and goats?

A

Cornyebacterium pseudotuberculosis

141
Q

What disease in sheep and goats can cause late term abortion, still births and weak lambs?

A

Vibriosis

142
Q

What is the causitive agent of Bluetongue?

A

Orbivirus

143
Q

Ulcerations on mouth or nose are indications of what disease in sheep and goats?

A

Bluetongue

144
Q

Lesions in oral cavity, eyelids, feet, and teats are clinical signs of what disease sheep and goats?

A

Contagious ecthyma

145
Q

Skeletal defects primarily seen in Suffolk and Hampshire breeds of sheep are clinical signs of what disease?

A

Hereditary Chondrodysplasia

146
Q

Beefmaster bovine are crossbreeds of what breeds?

A

Herefords, Shorthorns and Brahmans

147
Q

What is the largest breed of cattle?

A

Chianina

148
Q

What are Holsteins ranks in milk production and milk fat?

A

1st in milk production

5th in milk fat

149
Q

What are Jerseys ranks in milk production and milk fat?

A

5th in milk production

1st in milk fat

150
Q

During what phase of milk production does milk production increase rapidly?

A

Phase 1

151
Q

During what phase of milking production do most metabolic diseases occur?

A

Phase 1

152
Q

What is the goal during phase 2 of milk production?

A

To maintain peak milk production

153
Q

When does milking hit peak production?

A

Phase 2

154
Q

What is the longest phase of milk production?

A

Phase 3

155
Q

How much milk do cows produce on average per year?

A

2000 gallons

156
Q

How much milk is produced from the rear udder?

A

60%

157
Q

How much milk does the fore udder produce?

A

40%

158
Q

What dairy product is less controlled and is used for butter, cheese and powdered milk?

A

Grade B milk

159
Q

Feeder calves immediately transitioned to a high concentrate diet with small amounts of roughage

A

Intermediate finishing

160
Q

What type of estrous cycles do bovine have?

A

Year round polyestrus

161
Q

What is the maximum volume that can be injected SQ per site in bovine?

A

250 mL

162
Q

Should skin be tented when doing SQ injections in bovine?

A

No, except in calves

163
Q

Where are intradermal injections given for TB testing?

A

Caudal tail fold

164
Q

Where are intradermal injections given for allergies?

A

Lateral cervical or flank area

165
Q

What is the average growth for bovine hooves?

A

5 mm per month

166
Q

How much water must be drank for cows to produce 1 gallon of milk?

A

3-5 gallons of water

167
Q

During peak lactation how much water do cows drink?

A

45 gallons of water per day

168
Q

How much water do cows drink per day on average?

A

10-14 gallons

169
Q

How many gallons can the rumen of a cow hold?

A

42.5 lbs

170
Q

What do cows eructate?

A

Methane and CO2

171
Q

What vitamin is synthesized in the rumen?

A

Vitamin C

172
Q

What is the pH of bovine rumen?

A

6.2-7.2

173
Q

What position are bovine in for necropsy?

A

Left lateral recumbency

174
Q

What is the most common block used in bovine?

A

L block

175
Q

What nerves are blocked by the paravertebral block?

A

T13, L1, L2

176
Q
A
177
Q

What block is used in bovine for dehorning?

A

Cornual nerve block

178
Q

What block is used in bovine for distal extremities?

A

Bier Block

179
Q

What bovine do NOT receive Bang’s vaccine?

A

Bull calves

180
Q

What disease in bovine may have necrotic muscle, distinct rancid smell and are usually feedlot cattle?

A

Blackleg

181
Q

What disease in cattle is known as scours?

A

Calf enteritis

182
Q

How is Johne’s disease transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral

183
Q

What are the stages for Johne’s disease?

A

Silent, subclinical, clinical, advanced clinical

184
Q

What disease in bovine may cause Crohn’s disease in humans?

A

Johne’s disease

185
Q

What disease in bovine may be caused by contaminated silage?

A

Listeriosis

186
Q

What is the causitive agent of lumpy jaw in cattle?

A

Actinomyces bovis

187
Q

What is the causitive agent in pink eye for bovine?

A

Moraxella bovis

188
Q

Highly contagious bovine disease caused by the causitive agent Picornaviridae family

A

Foot and Mouth disease

189
Q

Bovine herpes virus is the causitive agent for what disease?

A

Infectious Bovine rhinotracheitis

190
Q

An ‘S’ shape in the neck of bovine might indicate what disease?

A

Hypocalcemia

191
Q

True or False

Cows suffering hypocalcemia have fevers

A

FALSE

192
Q

Gas distension in bovine is also known as what?

A

Bloat

193
Q

Fluid distension in bovine is also known as what?

A

Splashy Rumen

194
Q

What drug may be irritating when injected into the muscle of foals?

A

Xylazine

195
Q

What is the most common combination used for sedation in equine?

A

Xylazine/butorphanol

196
Q

What is the number one concern for swine growers and pigs?

A

Air quality

197
Q

Company that produces animal also owns packing plant and slaughters animal for market

A

Vertical integration

198
Q

What is the temperature for pasteurization in swine meat processing?

A

180 degrees F

199
Q

What is cut to expose the ribeye in swine?

A

12th and 13th ribs

200
Q

Supply genetics to produce more pigs per litter, have higher milk production and typically docile temperament

A

Maternal lines

201
Q

Supplies genetics that allow for fast growth, produce well muscled meaty carcasses, and typically durable and leaner

A

Terminal lines

202
Q

What breeds of swine are maternal?

A

Chester white, Yorkshire, Tamworth, Landrace, Hereford

203
Q

What type of estrous cycle do swine have?

A

Polyestrous

204
Q

When are piglets at the biggest risk?

A

2-3 days of age

205
Q

What is the only chemical used in swine euthanasia that does not leave residue?

A

Carbon dioxide gas

206
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica is the causitive agent for what disease in swine?

A

Atrophic rhinitis

207
Q

Brucella suis is the causitive agent for what disease in swine?

A

Brucellosis

208
Q

Enveloped DNA herpesvirus is the causitive agent of what disease in swine?

A

Pseudorabies

209
Q

Coronavirus in swine is the causitive agent of what disease?

A

Transmissible Gastritis

210
Q

Reportable disease in swine that may be confused with TGE

A

Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea

211
Q

˜The muscle cells appear to have an impaired ability to regulate calcium flowing in and out of the cell, this is indicative to what disease in swine?

A

Malignant hyperthermia

212
Q

Deficiency of zinc may cause what disease in swine?

A

Parakeratosis

213
Q

Lack of calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D are indicative of what disease in swine?

A

Rickets

214
Q

What is the rarest camelid?

A

Suri llama

215
Q

In what camelid is twinning more common?

A

Llama

216
Q

What are considered the fighting teeth an camelids?

A

Permanent upper incisors and upper and lower canines

217
Q

Camelids are sensitive to what that can cause toxicity?

A

Copper

218
Q

Zinc deficiency in llamas and alpacas may present as what?

A

Dermatitis

219
Q

Use of the high jugular in camelids decreases chances for what?

A

Arterial blood collection

220
Q

´Parelaphostrongylus tenuis is responsible for what?

A

Meningeal worm

Vet Nursing 3: Large Animal (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions