FINAL REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

What is the occupational death rate in livestock careers?

A

21 workers per 100,000

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2
Q

How many disabling accidents are noted per year in livestock careers?

A

110,000

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3
Q

How should you approach a horse?

A

45 degree angle at the shoulder

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4
Q

When tying a horse how long should the rope be?

A

2 feet

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5
Q

What is one mild form of horse restraint used to discourage a horse from moving around or kicking?

A

Elevate one leg

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6
Q

When is tail restraint in horses contraindicated?

A

Adult horses

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7
Q

What type of shavings should not be used in horses?

A

Pine and black walnut

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8
Q

Who pays for the prepurchase exam for a horse?

A

The buyer

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9
Q

What type of estrous cycle do horses have?

A

Seasonally polyestrus (long day breeders)

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10
Q

What is the duration of estrus for horses?

A

2-12 days (5-7 average)

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11
Q

How often do horses come into estrus?

A

15-26 days

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12
Q

What is the time of ovulation in horses?

A

Last 48 hours of estrus

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13
Q

What is the optimal breeding time in horses?

A

Every 24-48 hours while in heat

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14
Q

What is the most common cause of infertility in horses?

A

Uterine infection

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15
Q

What reasons are uterine infusions performed in horses?

A

Treatment of uterine infection

Routine flushing

Post-breeding

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16
Q

What are the milk teeth in horses?

A

Deciduous teeth

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17
Q

What is the term for retained deciduous teeth, stuck on top of erupting permanent teeth?

A

Caps

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18
Q

What is the term for the chewing surface of teeth in horses?

A

Occlusive tables

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19
Q

What is the term for the first premolar teeth?

A

Wolf teeth

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20
Q

At what age are all permanent teeth erupted in horses?

A

5 years old

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21
Q

What is the term for the angle between lower and upper incisors in horses?

A

Incisive arcade

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22
Q

What is the term for the indentation in the occlusive table?

A

Cups

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23
Q

What is absent in smooth mouthed horses?

A

Cups

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24
Q

How many teeth do horses have? (Male vs Female)

A

Male: 40-42

Female: 36-40

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25
How many teeth does a young horse have?
24 deciduous teeth
26
Central incisors in horses erupt at what age?
1 month
27
Lateral incisors erupt at what age in horses?
3 months
28
Corner incisors erupt at what age in horses?
9 months
29
A horse at 5 years old has occlusive tables of what shape?
Flattened
30
At what age are horses occlusive tables oval shaped?
9 years old
31
At what age are horses occlusive tables round shaped?
15 years old
32
At what age are horses occlusive tables triangle shaped?
20 years old
33
If horses are young what what is the angle of their incisors?
Perpendicular
34
If horses are older what is the angle of their incisors?
Parallel
35
At what age do canine teeth erupts in horses?
4 years old
36
Where are wolf teeth usually present in horses?
Maxillary jaw
37
What position are horses placed for necropsy?
Left lateral
38
Creeping paralysis is a clinical sign of what disease in horses?
Botulism
39
Fusobacterium necrophorum (Bacteroides spp) is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Canker
40
Odor or friable, white cottage cheese frog are clinical signs of what disease in horses?
Canker
41
Borrelia burgdorferi is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Lyme Disease
42
What is used to diagnose lyme disease in horses?
ELISA or IFA
43
What are the treatment options for lyme disease in horses?
IV tetracycline Oral doxycycline
44
Neorickettsia risticci is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Potomac Horse Fever
45
How is Potomac Horse Fever diagnosed?
Culture and PCR
46
What is the treatment for Potomac Horse Fever?
Oxytetracycline and supportive therapy
47
Dermatophilus congolensis is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Rain rot
48
Streptococcus equi is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Strangles
49
Sawhorse appearance, recumbent and dyspnea are all clinical signs of what disease in horses?
Tetanus
50
Fusobacterium necrophorum is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Thrush
51
Sarcocystis neurona or Neospora hughesi is the causitive agent for what disease in horses?
EPM Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis
52
Muscle atrophy and cranial nerve abnormalities are clinical signs of what disease in horses?
EPM
53
Babesia equi or Babesia cabelli is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Piroplasmosis
54
Small round lesions covered with scales are clinical signs of what disease in horses?
Dermatophytosis
55
Cheesy material and air pockets that pack with debris, laminitis, lameness, and black foul smelling material are clinical signs of what disease in horses?
White Line Disease
56
Equine alphaviruses are the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Encephalomyelitis
57
Flu-like symptoms, abortion and pneumonia are the clinical signs of what disease in horses?
Equine Arteritis
58
Retroviridae family are the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Equine Infectious Anemia
59
Reportable disease in horses?
Equine Infectious Anemia
60
Orthomyxoviridae family is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Equine Influenza
61
Equine herpes virus 1 and 4 are the causitive agents of what disease in horses?
Rhinoneumonitis
62
Rhabdoviridae family is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Vesicular Stomatitis
63
Flaviviridae family are the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
West Nile Virus
64
Equus caballus is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Cutaneous Papillomas
65
Warts are a clinical sign of what disease in horses?
Cutaneous Papillomas
66
Flexing at the poll and depression are clinical signs of what disease in horses?
Choke
67
Exposure to air pollutants is the causitive agent for what disease in horses?
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
68
Hyperadrenocorticism and cortisol excess is the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Cushing Disease
69
What is the treatment for Cushing disease in horses?
Cyproheptadine or pergolide mesylate
70
˜Cramping, fatigue, and muscle pain in horses; most often associated with exercise are the clinical signs of what disease in horses?
Exertional Myopathies
71
Low T3 and T4 levels are the causitive agents of what disease in horses?
Hypothyroidism
72
˜Broken rings in the trachea and paralysis of the muscles that control vocal cord tension are the causitive agent of what disease in horses?
Roaring
73
Compression of the spinal cord in the neck region and incoordination are signs of what disease in horses?
Wobbler Syndrome
74
When are Fall lambs born?
Before December 25th
75
When are Fall lambs marketed?
Early spring to June
76
What lambs are also known as Easter lambs?
Fall lambs
77
At what age are Fall lambs considered Hothouse Lambs?
50-90 days
78
When are early spring lambs born?
January or February
79
When are early spring lambs marketed?
Before the end of June
80
When are late spring lambs born?
March, April, May
81
What lambs are often worth less?
Late Spring Lambs
82
What is accelerated lambing?
3 lamb crops in 2 years, bred out of season
83
In what breed of sheep are triplets common?
Finnish Sheep
84
What breed of sheep are used for crossbreeding?
Lincolns
85
What goats are also known as scrub goats, brush goats, and meat goats?
Spanish goats
86
What is the preferred color for pygmy goats?
White
87
What pygmy goats can not be registered?
Polled
88
What breed of goats is known as the "Queen of the Dairy Goats"?
Saanen
89
What is the fleece of the angora goat also known as?
Mohair
90
How often is wool sheared?
Twice a year
91
What are the three grading systems for wool?
Micron Numerical count (USDA) American system
92
When are wool prices highest?
May-July, peak again in October
93
When are wool prices lowest?
January, February, August, September, November, and December
94
What term describes shearing around the udder, belly, and tail before lambing?
Crutching
95
What is the term for shearing around tail and sheath before mating?
Tagging
96
What is the term for shearing wool above and below the eyes, to help prevent wool blindness?
Facing
97
When is regrowth of wool protective again after shearing?
6 weeks
98
When should shearing pregnant animals be avoided?
Last 6 weeks of pregnancy
99
What goat breed does not produce cashmere?
Angora
100
How often are lamas and alpacas sheared?
Annually
101
When can dyeing be done during the fiber processing?
At any stage
102
What type of estrous cycle do sheep have?
Seasonally polyestrus, short day
103
What is the estrus cycle frequency of sheep?
13-19 days, average 17
104
What is the gestation period for sheep?
148 days
105
What type of estrous cycle do goats have?
Varies by breed
106
What is the frequency of estrus in goats?
12-30 days, 22 average
107
What is the gestation period in goats?
140-160 days, average 151
108
When can embryo transfer be performed in ovine?
5-6 days after estrus
109
Goats that are HH are what?
Polled, 35% infertility
110
Goats that are Hh are what?
Polled (H is dominant), normal
111
Goats that are hh are what?
Horned, normal
112
How long does stage 1 parturition last in ewes?
1-4 hours
113
How long does stage 1 parturition last in goats?
up to 12 hours
114
How long does stage 2 parturition last in sheep and goats?
1-2 hours
115
When is assistance required in parturition of goats and sheep?
Contractions without fetus in 30 minutes to 1 hour
116
How long does stage 3 parturition last in sheep and goats?
2-6 hours, assistance after 12 hours
117
Dystocia is common in sheep or goats?
Sheep
118
How can urine be collected from sheep?
Hold nostrils and mouth shut for up to 45 seconds
119
How can urine be collected from goats?
After lateral recumbency, placed a new stall or pen area
120
What is the maximum volume for each IM injection site in goats?
5 mL
121
What muscles should be avoided in sheep and goats for IM injections?
Gluteal, due to thin muscles
122
What is the most common site for IM injections in sheep and goats?
Lateral cervical muscles, avoid in show goats
123
What muscle is used for IM injections in show goats?
Longissimus muscle
124
What is the maximum volume that can be administered SQ in sheep and goats per site?
Up to 50 mL
125
How long is food withheld for sheep and goats?
12-24 hours
126
How long should lambs and kids be fastested prior to surgery once on solid foods?
2-4 hours
127
What local anesthetic are sheep and goats more sensitive to?
Lidocaine
128
At what dose is Lidocaine toxic in sheep and goats?
10 mL/kg total
129
At what concentration should lidocaine never be given to sheep and goats?
Greater than 2%
130
What is the most common block in sheep and goats?
L block
131
How much oxygen should be given to sheep and goats before induction?
3-5 L/min, given for 1-2 minutes
132
At what age are sheep and goats castrated?
2-4 weeks
133
How far from the body should tail docking be performed in sheep and goats?
1 inch away
134
How should sheep and goats be placed for C-section?
Right lateral recumency, incision in left flank, do not elevate head
135
Clostridium novyi, C. sordellii, C. chauvoei are causitive agents of what disease in sheep and goats?
Big Head
136
Clostridium novyi type B is the causitive agent of what disease in sheep and goats?
Black Disease
137
What is the treatment for Black disease?
Tetracycline
138
What are the causitive agents of Brucellosis in goats?
Brucella melitensis and B. abortus
139
What are the causitive agents of Brucellosis in sheep?
Brucella ovis and B. melitensis
140
What is the causitive agent of Caseous Lymphadentitis in sheep and goats?
Cornyebacterium pseudotuberculosis
141
What disease in sheep and goats can cause late term abortion, still births and weak lambs?
Vibriosis
142
What is the causitive agent of Bluetongue?
Orbivirus
143
Ulcerations on mouth or nose are indications of what disease in sheep and goats?
Bluetongue
144
Lesions in oral cavity, eyelids, feet, and teats are clinical signs of what disease sheep and goats?
Contagious ecthyma
145
Skeletal defects primarily seen in Suffolk and Hampshire breeds of sheep are clinical signs of what disease?
Hereditary Chondrodysplasia
146
Beefmaster bovine are crossbreeds of what breeds?
Herefords, Shorthorns and Brahmans
147
What is the largest breed of cattle?
Chianina
148
What are Holsteins ranks in milk production and milk fat?
1st in milk production 5th in milk fat
149
What are Jerseys ranks in milk production and milk fat?
5th in milk production 1st in milk fat
150
During what phase of milk production does milk production increase rapidly?
Phase 1
151
During what phase of milking production do most metabolic diseases occur?
Phase 1
152
What is the goal during phase 2 of milk production?
To maintain peak milk production
153
When does milking hit peak production?
Phase 2
154
What is the longest phase of milk production?
Phase 3
155
How much milk do cows produce on average per year?
2000 gallons
156
How much milk is produced from the rear udder?
60%
157
How much milk does the fore udder produce?
40%
158
What dairy product is less controlled and is used for butter, cheese and powdered milk?
Grade B milk
159
Feeder calves immediately transitioned to a high concentrate diet with small amounts of roughage
Intermediate finishing
160
What type of estrous cycles do bovine have?
Year round polyestrus
161
What is the maximum volume that can be injected SQ per site in bovine?
250 mL
162
Should skin be tented when doing SQ injections in bovine?
No, except in calves
163
Where are intradermal injections given for TB testing?
Caudal tail fold
164
Where are intradermal injections given for allergies?
Lateral cervical or flank area
165
What is the average growth for bovine hooves?
5 mm per month
166
How much water must be drank for cows to produce 1 gallon of milk?
3-5 gallons of water
167
During peak lactation how much water do cows drink?
45 gallons of water per day
168
How much water do cows drink per day on average?
10-14 gallons
169
How many gallons can the rumen of a cow hold?
42.5 lbs
170
What do cows eructate?
Methane and CO2
171
What vitamin is synthesized in the rumen?
Vitamin C
172
What is the pH of bovine rumen?
6.2-7.2
173
What position are bovine in for necropsy?
Left lateral recumbency
174
What is the most common block used in bovine?
L block
175
What nerves are blocked by the paravertebral block?
T13, L1, L2
176
177
What block is used in bovine for dehorning?
Cornual nerve block
178
What block is used in bovine for distal extremities?
Bier Block
179
What bovine do NOT receive Bang's vaccine?
Bull calves
180
What disease in bovine may have necrotic muscle, distinct rancid smell and are usually feedlot cattle?
Blackleg
181
What disease in cattle is known as scours?
Calf enteritis
182
How is Johne's disease transmitted?
Fecal-oral
183
What are the stages for Johne's disease?
Silent, subclinical, clinical, advanced clinical
184
What disease in bovine may cause Crohn's disease in humans?
Johne's disease
185
What disease in bovine may be caused by contaminated silage?
Listeriosis
186
What is the causitive agent of lumpy jaw in cattle?
Actinomyces bovis
187
What is the causitive agent in pink eye for bovine?
Moraxella bovis
188
Highly contagious bovine disease caused by the causitive agent Picornaviridae family
Foot and Mouth disease
189
Bovine herpes virus is the causitive agent for what disease?
Infectious Bovine rhinotracheitis
190
An 'S' shape in the neck of bovine might indicate what disease?
Hypocalcemia
191
True or False Cows suffering hypocalcemia have fevers
FALSE
192
Gas distension in bovine is also known as what?
Bloat
193
Fluid distension in bovine is also known as what?
Splashy Rumen
194
What drug may be irritating when injected into the muscle of foals?
Xylazine
195
What is the most common combination used for sedation in equine?
Xylazine/butorphanol
196
What is the number one concern for swine growers and pigs?
Air quality
197
Company that produces animal also owns packing plant and slaughters animal for market
Vertical integration
198
What is the temperature for pasteurization in swine meat processing?
180 degrees F
199
What is cut to expose the ribeye in swine?
12th and 13th ribs
200
Supply genetics to produce more pigs per litter, have higher milk production and typically docile temperament
Maternal lines
201
Supplies genetics that allow for fast growth, produce well muscled meaty carcasses, and typically durable and leaner
Terminal lines
202
What breeds of swine are maternal?
Chester white, Yorkshire, Tamworth, Landrace, Hereford
203
What type of estrous cycle do swine have?
Polyestrous
204
When are piglets at the biggest risk?
2-3 days of age
205
What is the only chemical used in swine euthanasia that does not leave residue?
Carbon dioxide gas
206
Bordetella bronchiseptica is the causitive agent for what disease in swine?
Atrophic rhinitis
207
Brucella suis is the causitive agent for what disease in swine?
Brucellosis
208
Enveloped DNA herpesvirus is the causitive agent of what disease in swine?
Pseudorabies
209
Coronavirus in swine is the causitive agent of what disease?
Transmissible Gastritis
210
Reportable disease in swine that may be confused with TGE
Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea
211
˜The muscle cells appear to have an impaired ability to regulate calcium flowing in and out of the cell, this is indicative to what disease in swine?
Malignant hyperthermia
212
Deficiency of zinc may cause what disease in swine?
Parakeratosis
213
Lack of calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D are indicative of what disease in swine?
Rickets
214
What is the rarest camelid?
Suri llama
215
In what camelid is twinning more common?
Llama
216
What are considered the fighting teeth an camelids?
Permanent upper incisors and upper and lower canines
217
Camelids are sensitive to what that can cause toxicity?
Copper
218
Zinc deficiency in llamas and alpacas may present as what?
Dermatitis
219
Use of the high jugular in camelids decreases chances for what?
Arterial blood collection
220
´Parelaphostrongylus tenuis is responsible for what?
Meningeal worm