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Vet Nursing 3: Large Animal > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the term for the sharp bend in a rope?

A

Bight

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2
Q

What is the term for when one rope is wrapped around another to make part of a knot?

A

Throw

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3
Q

What is the term for a temporary fastening of a rope to a hook, post or other object?

A

Hitch

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4
Q

When tying a horse use ___ ___ of rope

A

2 feet

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5
Q

When leading a horse how far away should you be?

A

12-18 inches

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6
Q

How far down the lead rope do you hold when leading a horse?

A

6-12 inches

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7
Q

What are the three ways lead shanks can be used?

A

Over the nose

Through the mouth

Under the chin

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8
Q

What is one mild form of horse restraint?

A

Elevate the leg

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9
Q

When is tail restraint appropriate?

A

Foals

Small ponies

NEVER adults

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10
Q

What are the two main types of twitches?

A

Natural and Mechanical

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11
Q

Twitches should never be used on _____

A

Foals

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12
Q

When working on a mare or foal, which should be caught first?

A

Mare

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13
Q

What is the proper way to restrain a foal?

A

One arm around neck, other arm around hindquarters or holding tail

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14
Q

What type of shavings should NOT be used for bedding in a horse stall?

A

Pine or black walnut

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15
Q

What types of bedding are appropriate for horses?

A

Wood shavings, Grain straw, saw dust, peat moss, shredded paper

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16
Q

What are some complications associated with recumbent cases in horses?

A

Decubital ulcers, compartment syndrome, eye and limb trauma, respiratory disease, bladder dysfunction, GI dysfunction

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17
Q

What are the common areas for whorls (aka cowlick)?

A

Forehead, crest of neck, jugular grooves

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18
Q

What is marked on a diagram to indicate a whorl?

A

An “X”

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19
Q

Ruminants breathing through their mouth is a sign of what?

A

heat stress or distress

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20
Q

Where is the pulse rate found on swine?

A

Auricular (ear) artery, coccygeal

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21
Q

Where is the pulse rate found on cattle?

A

Facial artery, coccygeal artery, median, great metatarsal

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22
Q

Where is the pulse rate found on sheep?

A

Femoral

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23
Q

What cardiac sounds are heard in cattle?

A

S1 and S2

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24
Q

What cardiac sounds are heard in horses?

A

S1, S2, S3, S4

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25
Q

Second-degree AV block is normal but should be noted in which species?

A

Horses

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26
Q

When the blood is moving at high speeds through the heart valves, it creates a readily heard sound known as?

A

Ejection Murmurs (Horses)

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27
Q

Rumen contractions can be counted by ballottement, aka __________

A

Palpation

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28
Q

Describe the process of using ballottement to determine rumen contractions.

A

Press both fists firmly into the left paralumbar fossa for 1 minute

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29
Q

What is the normal number of rumen contractions?

A

2 per minute

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30
Q

How long should you listen to each quadrant for abdominal auscultation?

A

One minute per quadrant

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31
Q

What do blue mucus membranes indicate?

A

Bacterial septicemia, septic shock, or both

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32
Q

What do brick red mucus membranes indicate?

A

Endotoxic shock (horse)

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33
Q

What do yellow mucus membranes indicate?

A

Icteric, liver dysfunction, abnormal hemolysis of the RBCs

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34
Q

What do pale mucus membranes indicate?

A

poor perfusion (in horses does not indicate disease)

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35
Q

What are petechial hemorrhages?

A

1mm diameter pinpoint hemorrhages, clotting disorder

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36
Q

What are ecchymotic hemorrhages?

A

1mm-1cm hemorrhages

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37
Q

What are purpuric hemorrhages?

A

larger hemorrhages

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38
Q

Less than 1 second skin turgor test at the point of shoulder indicates hydration status __%

A

<5%

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39
Q

8 second skin turgor test indicates what?

A

Severe dehydration

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40
Q

If CRT is 5-8 seconds dehydration and ____ are indicated

A

Shock

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41
Q

What is used to dilate the eye for an eye exam?

A

Tropicamide

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42
Q

What is used to clean the eye?

A

Povidone-iodine solution diluted to 50% with sterile saline

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43
Q

What is the term for a female horse after their third birthday?

A

Mare

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44
Q

What is the term for an intact male between 2 and 3 years of age?

A

Colt

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45
Q

What is the term for a female horse between 2 and 3 years old?

A

Filly

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46
Q

What is the term for a young horse that is 1 1/2 to second birthday?

A

Long yearling

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47
Q

What is the normal TPR in an adult horse?

A

T: 99-101.5

P: 28-44

R: 6-12

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48
Q

What is a common pulse rate in an athletic horse?

A

<28

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49
Q

What is the pule rate in a foal at birth?

A

60-80 bpm

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50
Q

What is the pulse rate in a foal’s first two weeks of life?

A

70-100 bpm

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51
Q

What is the term for a cross between a female donkey and a male horse?

A

Hinny

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52
Q

What is the term for a cross between a male donkey and a female horse?

A

Mule

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53
Q

What is the term for a female mule that has an estrus cycle?

A

Molly

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54
Q

What are the characteristics of a molly?

A

Short thick heads with long ears

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55
Q

What type of estrous cyle do horses have?

A

Seasonally polyestrous (long day breeder)

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56
Q

What is the age of a horse (male or female) at puberty?

A

10-24 months

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57
Q

What is the proper age to begin breeding horses?

A

2-3 years old

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58
Q

What is the frequency of horses estrus cycles?

A

15-26 days

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59
Q

What is the duration of estrus in horses?

A

2-12 days (average 5-7)

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60
Q

What is the time of ovulation in a horse?

A

Last 48 hours of estrus

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61
Q

What is the optimal time to breed a horse?

A

Every 24-48 hours while the mare is in heat

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62
Q

What is the gestation period for light breeds?

A

305-365 days

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63
Q

What is the weaning age of horses?

A

4-7 months

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64
Q

What is the most common cause of infertility?

A

Uterine infection

65
Q

When are uterine infusions be performed?

A

Treatment of uterine infection, routine flushing, “postbreeding”

66
Q

What procedure evaluates the histological condition of the endometrium?

A

Endometrial (uterine) Biopsy

67
Q

What common fixatives are used in a endometrial biopsy?

A

Bouin’s fixative, 10% buffered formalin, 70% alcohol

68
Q

Samples should not sit in Bouin’s fixative for more than ____ hours

A

24 hours

69
Q

How long does stage 1 of parturition last?

A

2-4 hours

70
Q

What are the signs of stage 1 parturition?

A

Restlessness, pacing, sweating, disinterest in food

71
Q

How long does stage 2 of parturition last?

A

20-30 minutes

72
Q

When does stage 2 of parturition occur?

A

Begins with breaking of water, delivery of fetus

73
Q

How long does stage 3 of parturition last?

A

4-6 hours

74
Q

What occurs during stage 3 of parturition?

A

Passing placenta

75
Q

What is the normal presentation of a fetus?

A

Nose-diving position

76
Q

What are some complications associated with C-sections?

A

Infection, septicemia, laminitis, hemorrhage, retained placenta

77
Q

If a _-____ is performed, recovery of a live foal is uncommon

A

C-section

78
Q

What are the normal pulse rates for a neonatal foal?

A

>60 bpm at 5 minutes

75-100 bpm for first week

79
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for a neonatal foal?

A

>60 at 5 minutes

60-80 for first 1-2 hours

Decreases to 30-40 for first month

80
Q

When does the first urination and defecation occur in foals?

A

Urination- 10 hours

Defecation- 24 hours

81
Q

What does blood gas collection determine?

A

Oxygen content

Carbon dioxide content

pH

82
Q

What size needle is used for an atlantooccipital tap?

A

18G, 3 inch spinal needle

83
Q

What size needle is used for a lumbosacral tap?

A

8 Inches

84
Q

Where is the atlantooccipital space located?

A

Just caudal to the poll on the dorsal midline at the level of the wings of the atlas

85
Q

Where is the lumbosacral space located?

A

Dorsal midline at the wings of the ilium

86
Q

Blood gas analysis is used most often in assessing patients with _____ disease and monitoring patients under anesthesia

A

Respiratory

87
Q

What do blood gas samples determine?

A

Oxygen content

Carbon dioxide content

pH

88
Q

What type of blood is preferred for gas analysis and why?

A

Arterial is preferred over venous because it more accurately reflects ventilation status

89
Q

What are two things that must NOT happen when collecting a blood gas sample?

A

It must NOT clot and it must NOT come into contact with atmospheric air.

90
Q

When collecting a blood gas sample, what size syringe and gauge needle should be used?

A

25G and 3 ml syringe

91
Q

What can be done to prevent clotting of a blood gas sample?

A

Pull up enough heparin to fill hub of syringe before pulling blood

92
Q

How much blood is needed for a blood gas collection?

A

1 mL

93
Q

When should blood gas samples be run after the sample is taken?

A

10 minutes to 1 1/2 hours after

94
Q

When is a cystocentesis appropriate to perform in equine?

A

Foals and Miniature horses

95
Q

What is the positioning for an abdominocentesis?

A

Adults- Standing

Foals- lateral recumbency

96
Q

After an abdominocentesis, ________ is normal after removal of the needle

A

bleeding

97
Q

What solution is used to prep an area for an arthrocentesis?

A

Povidone-Iodine solution

98
Q

How is the sample collected for a thoracocentesis?

A

Through an intercostal space on the ventral aspect, usually located via ultrasound

99
Q

What are the signs of a pneumothorax?

A

Dyspnea

Cyanosis

Increased respiratory rate

Possible collapse

100
Q

How is a fiberoptic endoscope placed for a transtracheal aspiration?

A

Through the nasal cavity to enter the tracheal lumen

101
Q

Where is a percutaneous transtracheal aspiration performed?

A

Ventral midline of the neck, over the middle third of the cervical trachea, placed between tracheal rings

102
Q

Why is using sedation not ideal for percutaneous transtracheal aspiration?

A

May interfere procedure with cough reflex

103
Q

What complications are associated with percutaneous transtracheal aspirations?

A

Infection/abscession

SQ emphysema

104
Q

A nasogastric tube should never be placed without _______

A

lubrication

105
Q

How long can a nasogastric tube be placed for?

A

48 hours

106
Q

Why should tubes be capped on nasogastric tubes?

A

Clinicians believe it may cause bloat if air enters

107
Q

How should a nasogastric tube be removed?

A

Hand over hand, keeping hands away from nostrils at least 12 inches

*Make sure to kink tube when pulling it out*

108
Q

What is the maximum volume that can be administered per IM site?

A

15 mL

109
Q

What is the maximum volume that can be injected in pectoral and semitendinosus muscles?

A

5-10 mL

110
Q

Draft horses maximum volume that can be injected can be increased by ___ mL per location

A

5 mL

111
Q

What is the risk of a neck injection being given too high?

A

Hitting the nuchal ligament

112
Q

What is the risk of a neck injection given too low?

A

Hitting the cervical vertebrae

113
Q

What is the risk of a neck injection being given too forward?

A

Injury to the ear ligaments

114
Q

What is the preferred injection site for foals?

A

Semitendinosus (buttocks)

115
Q

Why are gluteal muscles not ideal for injections?

A

If an abscess occurs it is harder to drain

116
Q

What is the most common IV injection site?

A

Jugular vein

117
Q

What veins can be used for IV injections?

A

Jugular, coccygeal, saphenous and cephalic

118
Q

Less than 1 mL injections can be given how?

A

Intradermal

119
Q

What are the most common catheter sizes used?

A

10G, 14G, 16G

120
Q

What guage catheter is recommended for emergency cases?

A

10G

121
Q

What veins are most used for catheterization?

A

Jugular is most preferred, if not accessible, lateral thoracic

122
Q

How much liquid can be given to an average adult horse for an enema?

A

1-3 gallons

123
Q

What is the key to external coaptation?

A

Padding

124
Q

How should all layers of a bandage be placed?

A

In the same direction

125
Q

How often should external coaptation be monitored?

A

Atleast once daily

126
Q

What is the most common bandaging done?

A

Distal limb

127
Q

Where are microchips placed?

A

Halfway between the withers and poll, about 1 1/2 inches below the breast of the neck

128
Q

A microchip is injected 1-1/2 inches beneath the skin into the ______ _____

A

Nuchal ligament

129
Q

Where is lip tattooing done?

A

Mucosal side of upper lip

130
Q

When should horses be tattooed?

A

Preferably 1 year of age

131
Q

What is typically tattooed on the horses lip?

A

The first letter indicating their birth month, followed by their registration number

132
Q

What is the term for a small diameter hole (perforation) through bone into a sinus?

A

Centesis (sinocentesis)

133
Q

What is the term for the process of making a larger diameter hole into a sinus by removal of a small, circular piece of bone?

A

Trephining

134
Q

Retained deciduous teeth, stuck on top of the erupting permanent teeth

A

Caps

135
Q

What is the term for the chewing surface of the teeth?

A

Occlusive Tables

136
Q

What are wolf teeth?

A

First premolars, males only

137
Q

When are a horses permanent teeth fully erupted?

A

Age 5

138
Q

What is the term for the angle between lower and upper incisors?

A

Incisive arcade

139
Q

What are absent in a smooth mouth?

A

Caps

140
Q

How many deciduous teeth does a young horse have?

A

24

141
Q

How many teeth do male horses have?

A

40-42

142
Q

How many teeth do female horses have?

A

36-40

143
Q

When do central incisors erupt?

A

1 Month

144
Q

When do lateral incisors erupt?

A

3 months

145
Q

When do corner incisors erupt?

A

9 months

146
Q

When reading occlusive tables on teeth to age, where should you look?

A

Corner incisor and upper third incisor

147
Q

If occlusive table shape is flattened, how old is the horse?

A

5 years old

148
Q

If the occlusive table are oval shaped how old is the horse?

A

9 years old

149
Q

If the occlusive table is round how old is the horse?

A

15

150
Q

If the occulsive table is triangular, how old is the horse?

A

20 years old

151
Q

If the angle of the incisors is perpendicular is the horse young or old?

A

Young

152
Q

If the angle of the incisors is parallel, is the horse old or young?

A

Old

153
Q

At what age does the canine tooth erupt in horses?

A

4 years

154
Q

What is the percentage of mares with canine teeth?

A

20% but are usually much smaller

155
Q

Where are wolf teeth found?

A

Maxillary jaw

156
Q

What is the term for the removal of enamel points and hooks on upper and lower molars?

A

Floating

157
Q

What is the difference of using power tools versus hand tools for equine dentistry?

A

They work faster, not necessarily better

158
Q
A

Vet Nursing 3: Large Animal (7 decks)

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