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Vet Nursing 3: Large Animal > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of estrus cycle do swine have?

A

Polyestrous

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2
Q

How many piglets should be weaned per year?

A

21-22 piglets

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3
Q

How many litters should sows have per year?

A

2-3 (average 2.57)

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4
Q

What is the boar effect?

A

Stimulate or detect estrus through presence of boar

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5
Q

What is an appropriate length of time for farrowing intervals during stage 2 parturition in swine?

A

16 minutes

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6
Q

All piglets should be delivered between __ and __ hours

A

4 and 6

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7
Q

When should assistance be sought during swine farrowing?

A

No progress after 45-60 mins

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8
Q

What percentage of swine suffer dystocia?

A

1%

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9
Q

What are piglets highly susceptible due to sparce hair at birth?

A

Hypothermia

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10
Q

When are piglets at the greatest risk?

A

2-3 days old

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11
Q

What temperature should farrowing environment be?

A

80-85 degrees

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12
Q

What can orphan piglets be raised on?

A

Whole cow’s milk or commercial sow milk replacer

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13
Q

Runts are defined as weighing less than __ lbs at birth

A

2 lbs

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14
Q

What percentage of runts don’t make it?

A

60%

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15
Q

What three things does swine growth depend on?

A

Genetic inheritence, feed, care

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16
Q

What are essential for maintenance of growth, gestation and lactation in swine?

A

Protein and amino acids

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17
Q

What venipuncture site in swine is best for large volumes?

A

Cranial vena cava

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18
Q

Where should SQ injections be administered in small pigs <50 lbs?

A

Auxiliary area caudal to elbow

Inguinal region in flank skin fold

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19
Q

Where should SQ injections be administered in large swine?

A

Loose skin behind base of ear

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20
Q

Where are IM injections administered in swine?

A

Dorsal neck muscle behind ears

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21
Q

For IM injections in piglets do not exceed __ mL and __ mL in larger swine

A

2 mL , 3 mL

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22
Q

How are fluids administered in swine?

A

Fluids often given IP

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23
Q

“Baby pig thumps” are often seen in what case?

A

Anemic piglets

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24
Q

What is the only chemical used in euthanasia that does not leave tissue residue?

A

Carbon dioxide gas

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25
What recumbency are swine in for necropsy?
Left lateral recumbency
26
What are the anesthetic risks in swine?
Hypoventilation, hyperthermia, airway obstruction,
27
What's the most consistent site for preanesthetic drugs in swine?
IM back, gluteal or shoulder muscles
28
What is the pharyngeal recess in swine?
Blind pouch located dorsal to the esophagus, that if entered will not allow the endotracheal tube to advance
29
What may be used to reduce the risk of laryngospasm?
Topical lidocaine
30
What are the preferred anesthetic gases used for swine?
Isoflurane and Sevoflurane
31
True or False Nitrous oxide can be used safely in swine
True
32
What is the IV fluid rate for dehydrated or sick swine?
10 ml/kg/hr
33
What is the causitive agent for Atrophic Rhinitis in swine?
Bordetella bronchiseptica
34
Brucellosis may cause what in swine?
Abortion
35
Necro-hemorrhagic enteritis and hemorrhagic diarrhea are clinical signs of what disease in swine?
Clostridium perfringens type C
36
What disease in swine may caue anemia, pale mucous membranes, jaundice, staggering, paralysis, weak neonates, unthriftiness and reproductive failure?
Eperythrozoonosis
37
What is the causitive agent of Exudative Epidermitis?
Staphylococcus hyicus
38
Redness of the skin, erosions of the coronary band and dark exudate are clinical signs of what condition in swine?
Exudative epidermitis
39
Haemophilus parasuis, H. parainfluenzae, Mycoplasma hyorhinis are the causitive agents of what condition in swine?
Glasser disease
40
What disease in swine is associated with the clincal signs SMEDI?
Lepto
41
What are the treatments for Lepto in swine?
Chlortetracycline and oxytetracycline
42
Swine with dry cough, decreased growth rate and food efficiency, with sporadic dysnea are signs of what disease?
Mycoplasma Pneumonia
43
How are streptococcal infections classified in swine?
Groups D, C, L, E
44
Serpulina hyodysenteriae is the causitive agent of what disease?
Swine Dysentry
45
Pestivirus is associated with what swine disease?
Hog Cholera
46
What are the clinical signs of porcine parvovirus?
Mummification, abortions, stillbirth
47
What is used to diagnose porcine parvovirus?
Fluorescent antibody tests
48
What is the causitive agent for pseudorabies in swine?
Enveloped DNA herpesvirus
49
What is the causitive agent of swine influenza?
Orthomyxovirus of the influenza A
50
Coronavirus is the causitive agent of what in swine?
Transmissible gastroenteritis
51
Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea Virus is caused by what viral family?
Coronavirus
52
PEDV must be tested to differentiate from what?
TGE
53
What strain of PEDV in piglets may show no symptoms?
OH851
54
What condition in swine may cause the muscles cells to have an impaired ability to regulate calcium flowing in and out of the cell?
Malignant Hyperthermia
55
What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
IV Dantrolene
56
Deficiency in zinc may cause what condition in swine?
Parakeratosis
57
What should be balanced in the treatment for parakeratosis?
Calcium and Zinc
58
Parakeratosis results in what symptom?
Rough, scaly skin
59
Lack of calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D in the diet may cause what in swine?
Ricketts
60
What camelids are considered Old World?
Dromedary and Bacterian
61
What are considered New World camelids?
Llama, Alpaca, Guanaco, Vicuna
62
What two camelids are considered wild animals?
Vicuna and Guanaco
63
What is the most rare camelid?
Suri
64
What is the classical type camelid?
Ccara Llama
65
Llamas should be able to pack ___ of their weight for about ___ miles per day
1/3, 10
66
What is the most common alpaca?
Huacaya
67
What alpacas provide the finest fibers?
Yearling alpacas
68
What type of estrous cycle do camelids have?
Polyestrous
69
What is the age of puberty for female llama vs alpaca?
Llama- 6-12 months Alpaca- 1 year
70
At what age can camelids be bred?
2.5-3.5 years old
71
What camelid is twinning most common?
Llama
72
If camelids are being artificially inseminated what horn should be transcervically inseminated?
Left uterine horn
73
At what age can camelids be fed grain?
3 months
74
Crias begin nursing at \_\_-\_\_ hours
6-8 hours
75
What teeth do female and castrated males not typically have?
Permanent canines
76
What are the fighting teeth in camelids?
Permanent upper incisors and upper and lower canines
77
What teeth rarely erupt in females and only erupt in 5% of male camelids?
Deciduous canines
78
True or False Camelids require routine floating
False
79
What is the calcium requirement in camelids?
0.3% on a dry matter basis with a calcium/phosphorus ration of no less than 1.2 : 1
80
What deficiency is thought to be linked to failure to thrive syndrome in crias?
Iron deficiency
81
What mineral deficiency may present as dermatitis in camelids?
Zinc
82
How long does it take for wool to grow back in camelids?
18 months
83
Where is arterial blood sampling performed on camelids?
Low neck jugular
84
What age camelids is fasting not recommended?
Younger than 4 months
85
How long should food be withheld in camelids older than 4 months of age before procedures?
12-18 hours
86
What is the most common complication of camelids under general anesthesia?
Nasal edema
87
What happens to camelids castrated before 2 years of age?
Hindlegs straighten
88
Heat stress is more common in which camelid?
Llamas due to double coat
89
How do camelids get meningeal worms?
feces of white tailed deer, consumed by snails
90
What is peak period for meningeal worms?
April-May and November-December
91
How is meningeal worm prevented?
Deworming in the summer months (June-September)

Vet Nursing 3: Large Animal (7 decks)

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