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Vet Nursing 3: Large Animal > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What type of estrus cycle do swine have?

A

Polyestrous

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2
Q

How many piglets should be weaned per year?

A

21-22 piglets

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3
Q

How many litters should sows have per year?

A

2-3 (average 2.57)

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4
Q

What is the boar effect?

A

Stimulate or detect estrus through presence of boar

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5
Q

What is an appropriate length of time for farrowing intervals during stage 2 parturition in swine?

A

16 minutes

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6
Q

All piglets should be delivered between __ and __ hours

A

4 and 6

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7
Q

When should assistance be sought during swine farrowing?

A

No progress after 45-60 mins

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8
Q

What percentage of swine suffer dystocia?

A

1%

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9
Q

What are piglets highly susceptible due to sparce hair at birth?

A

Hypothermia

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10
Q

When are piglets at the greatest risk?

A

2-3 days old

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11
Q

What temperature should farrowing environment be?

A

80-85 degrees

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12
Q

What can orphan piglets be raised on?

A

Whole cow’s milk or commercial sow milk replacer

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13
Q

Runts are defined as weighing less than __ lbs at birth

A

2 lbs

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14
Q

What percentage of runts don’t make it?

A

60%

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15
Q

What three things does swine growth depend on?

A

Genetic inheritence, feed, care

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16
Q

What are essential for maintenance of growth, gestation and lactation in swine?

A

Protein and amino acids

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17
Q

What venipuncture site in swine is best for large volumes?

A

Cranial vena cava

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18
Q

Where should SQ injections be administered in small pigs <50 lbs?

A

Auxiliary area caudal to elbow

Inguinal region in flank skin fold

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19
Q

Where should SQ injections be administered in large swine?

A

Loose skin behind base of ear

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20
Q

Where are IM injections administered in swine?

A

Dorsal neck muscle behind ears

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21
Q

For IM injections in piglets do not exceed __ mL and __ mL in larger swine

A

2 mL , 3 mL

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22
Q

How are fluids administered in swine?

A

Fluids often given IP

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23
Q

“Baby pig thumps” are often seen in what case?

A

Anemic piglets

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24
Q

What is the only chemical used in euthanasia that does not leave tissue residue?

A

Carbon dioxide gas

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25
Q

What recumbency are swine in for necropsy?

A

Left lateral recumbency

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26
Q

What are the anesthetic risks in swine?

A

Hypoventilation, hyperthermia, airway obstruction,

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27
Q

What’s the most consistent site for preanesthetic drugs in swine?

A

IM back, gluteal or shoulder muscles

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28
Q

What is the pharyngeal recess in swine?

A

Blind pouch located dorsal to the esophagus, that if entered will not allow the endotracheal tube to advance

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29
Q

What may be used to reduce the risk of laryngospasm?

A

Topical lidocaine

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30
Q

What are the preferred anesthetic gases used for swine?

A

Isoflurane and Sevoflurane

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31
Q

True or False

Nitrous oxide can be used safely in swine

A

True

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32
Q

What is the IV fluid rate for dehydrated or sick swine?

A

10 ml/kg/hr

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33
Q

What is the causitive agent for Atrophic Rhinitis in swine?

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

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34
Q

Brucellosis may cause what in swine?

A

Abortion

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35
Q

Necro-hemorrhagic enteritis and hemorrhagic diarrhea are clinical signs of what disease in swine?

A

Clostridium perfringens type C

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36
Q

What disease in swine may caue anemia, pale mucous membranes, jaundice, staggering, paralysis, weak neonates, unthriftiness and reproductive failure?

A

Eperythrozoonosis

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37
Q

What is the causitive agent of Exudative Epidermitis?

A

Staphylococcus hyicus

38
Q

Redness of the skin, erosions of the coronary band and dark exudate are clinical signs of what condition in swine?

A

Exudative epidermitis

39
Q

Haemophilus parasuis, H. parainfluenzae, Mycoplasma hyorhinis are the causitive agents of what condition in swine?

A

Glasser disease

40
Q

What disease in swine is associated with the clincal signs SMEDI?

A

Lepto

41
Q

What are the treatments for Lepto in swine?

A

Chlortetracycline and oxytetracycline

42
Q

Swine with dry cough, decreased growth rate and food efficiency, with sporadic dysnea are signs of what disease?

A

Mycoplasma Pneumonia

43
Q

How are streptococcal infections classified in swine?

A

Groups D, C, L, E

44
Q

Serpulina hyodysenteriae is the causitive agent of what disease?

A

Swine Dysentry

45
Q

Pestivirus is associated with what swine disease?

A

Hog Cholera

46
Q

What are the clinical signs of porcine parvovirus?

A

Mummification, abortions, stillbirth

47
Q

What is used to diagnose porcine parvovirus?

A

Fluorescent antibody tests

48
Q

What is the causitive agent for pseudorabies in swine?

A

Enveloped DNA herpesvirus

49
Q

What is the causitive agent of swine influenza?

A

Orthomyxovirus of the influenza A

50
Q

Coronavirus is the causitive agent of what in swine?

A

Transmissible gastroenteritis

51
Q

Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea Virus is caused by what viral family?

A

Coronavirus

52
Q

PEDV must be tested to differentiate from what?

A

TGE

53
Q

What strain of PEDV in piglets may show no symptoms?

A

OH851

54
Q

What condition in swine may cause the muscles cells to have an impaired ability to regulate calcium flowing in and out of the cell?

A

Malignant Hyperthermia

55
Q

What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

A

IV Dantrolene

56
Q

Deficiency in zinc may cause what condition in swine?

A

Parakeratosis

57
Q

What should be balanced in the treatment for parakeratosis?

A

Calcium and Zinc

58
Q

Parakeratosis results in what symptom?

A

Rough, scaly skin

59
Q

Lack of calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D in the diet may cause what in swine?

A

Ricketts

60
Q

What camelids are considered Old World?

A

Dromedary and Bacterian

61
Q

What are considered New World camelids?

A

Llama, Alpaca, Guanaco, Vicuna

62
Q

What two camelids are considered wild animals?

A

Vicuna and Guanaco

63
Q

What is the most rare camelid?

A

Suri

64
Q

What is the classical type camelid?

A

Ccara Llama

65
Q

Llamas should be able to pack ___ of their weight for about ___ miles per day

A

1/3, 10

66
Q

What is the most common alpaca?

A

Huacaya

67
Q

What alpacas provide the finest fibers?

A

Yearling alpacas

68
Q

What type of estrous cycle do camelids have?

A

Polyestrous

69
Q

What is the age of puberty for female llama vs alpaca?

A

Llama- 6-12 months

Alpaca- 1 year

70
Q

At what age can camelids be bred?

A

2.5-3.5 years old

71
Q

What camelid is twinning most common?

A

Llama

72
Q

If camelids are being artificially inseminated what horn should be transcervically inseminated?

A

Left uterine horn

73
Q

At what age can camelids be fed grain?

A

3 months

74
Q

Crias begin nursing at __-__ hours

A

6-8 hours

75
Q

What teeth do female and castrated males not typically have?

A

Permanent canines

76
Q

What are the fighting teeth in camelids?

A

Permanent upper incisors and upper and lower canines

77
Q

What teeth rarely erupt in females and only erupt in 5% of male camelids?

A

Deciduous canines

78
Q

True or False

Camelids require routine floating

A

False

79
Q

What is the calcium requirement in camelids?

A

0.3% on a dry matter basis with a calcium/phosphorus ration of no less than 1.2 : 1

80
Q

What deficiency is thought to be linked to failure to thrive syndrome in crias?

A

Iron deficiency

81
Q

What mineral deficiency may present as dermatitis in camelids?

A

Zinc

82
Q

How long does it take for wool to grow back in camelids?

A

18 months

83
Q

Where is arterial blood sampling performed on camelids?

A

Low neck jugular

84
Q

What age camelids is fasting not recommended?

A

Younger than 4 months

85
Q

How long should food be withheld in camelids older than 4 months of age before procedures?

A

12-18 hours

86
Q

What is the most common complication of camelids under general anesthesia?

A

Nasal edema

87
Q

What happens to camelids castrated before 2 years of age?

A

Hindlegs straighten

88
Q

Heat stress is more common in which camelid?

A

Llamas due to double coat

89
Q

How do camelids get meningeal worms?

A

feces of white tailed deer, consumed by snails

90
Q

What is peak period for meningeal worms?

A

April-May and November-December

91
Q

How is meningeal worm prevented?

A

Deworming in the summer months (June-September)

Vet Nursing 3: Large Animal (7 decks)

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