Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RADT A111 - Patient Care > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

X-rays were discovered in 1895 in:

A

Germany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When fast-moving electrons collide with the target of an x-ray tube, the kinetic energy of their motion is converted into x-rays and:

A

Heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The majority of radiography education programs are based in/on:

A

Colleges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Of the following types of electromagnetic energy, which has the shortest wavelength?

A

Gamma rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is not an accurate statement regarding the characteristics of x-rays?
A. They can penetrate matter that is impenetrable to light. B. They can be refracted by a lens.
C. They have an exposure effect on photographic emulsions.
D. They cannot be detected by the human senses.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The characteristic most often used to describe the energy of an x-ray beam is its:

A

Wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An x-ray beam that has been attenuated by matter is called:

A

Remnant radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A device used to indicate the location of the radiation field and to control its size is called a:

A

collimator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An x-ray machine that permits viewing of the x-ray image in motion in real time is called a:

A

fluoroscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The four prime factors of radiographic exposure are exposure time, milliamperage, kilovoltage, and:

A

SID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The prime factor that controls the wavelength of the x-ray beam is:

A

Kilovoltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The prime factor that controls the rate at which x-rays are produced is:

A

mA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The mAs value of an exposure is varied to provide control of:

A

radiation intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The imaging system that provides an instantaneous digital image on a monitor is called:

A

Digital radiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following factors is not affected by a change in the mA setting?

A

OID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following factors is used to control image contrast?

A

kVp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The inverse square law states that radiation intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the:

A

SID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A variation in the size or shape of the image in comparison to the object it represents is called:

A

Distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The only recognized professional society open to all radiologic technologists in the United States today is the:

A

ASRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The day-to-day scheduling of staff in the radiography department is the responsibility of the:

A

Lead radiographer/manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A pulmonologist who practices exclusively in a hospital intensive care unit may be referred to as:

A

an intensivist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The designated eligibility groups for Medicaid are recognized by the __________, although the _____________ regulates who falls within these eligibility groups.

A

federal government; state government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which criterion does The Joint Commission (the accrediting agency for hospitals) not use to certify that a hospital meets certain minimum standards?

A

Education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A moral agent is one who:

A

is responsible for implementing an ethical decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

“A response in which understanding and compassion are accompanied by an objective detachment that enables you to act appropriately.” This phrase describes the characteristic of:

A

Empathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is not a component of ethical analysis?

A

Determining who is at fault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution in the context of a professional relationship is termed:

A

malpractice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Health care providers may disclose a patient’s protected health information without the patient’s consent to:

A

another physician providing care to the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following terms best describes assertive behavior?

A

Firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following statements is true with respect to individuals with decreased levels of consciousness?

A

They are not responsible for their actions or answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The onset of chronic conditions is most common during which of the following life stages?

A

Middle adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following characteristics is not typical of adolescents?

A

They tend to move at a slower pace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The most likely cause of a fire in an imaging department is:

A

an electrical problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The federal agency governing workplace safety in the United States is:

A

OSHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is not a typical component of a spill kit?
A. nitrile gloves
B. mop
C. kitty litter
D. plastic bags

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the radiographer in case of fire?

A

Assess the situation and direct the activities of others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The most common types of workplace disabilities reported by health care workers are:

A

musculoskeletal disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MSDS documents are likely to be needed in the event of:

A

a chemical spill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The study of workplace injury prevention is called:

A

ergonomics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fires start when three elements occur in the same place at the same time. These three elements are oxygen, excessive heat, and:

A

fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Eighty percent of imaging technologists experience some form of work-related injury, usually in the form of RMIs and RSIs affecting the shoulder, arm, or wrist, if their area of specialization is:

A

sonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Stress due to repetitive motion, overreaching, or maintaining the same positions for long periods causes:

A

microtrauma to muscle tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When a patient arrives by wheelchair and cannot stand to get onto the x-ray table, which of the following methods is most appropriate?

A

Hydraulic lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Patients who have not stood or walked since an accident, surgery, stroke, or heart attack should be transported by:

A

Stretcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When assisting a patient to sit from a supine position, or to lie down from a sitting position, you should place your arms under the shoulders and:

A

Knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Infants and toddlers are usually transported in:

A

Cribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A feeling of faintness or light-headedness that occurs with changes in body position after long periods of rest is termed:

A

orthostatic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When an ambulatory patient has a weak leg as a result of a stroke or other condition, it is helpful to:

A

position yourself on the patient’s weak side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Patients who have undergone which of the following procedures must not flex at the hips more than 90 degrees?

A

Hip replacement via posterior approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following items is NOT useful for facilitating a stretcher transfer?

A

Transfer belt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When transferring a patient who is unable to assist with transfer to or from a stretcher, you should position the patient’s arms:

A

Across the chest

50
Q

Microorganisms that live on or inside the body without causing disease are referred to as:

A

Normal flora

51
Q

Bacteria can be classified or grouped based on:
A. staining
B. oxygen requirements
C. shape
D. all of the above

A

D

52
Q

Microorganisms classified as acid-fast are a type of:

A

Bacteria

53
Q

Yeasts are one type of:

A

fungus

54
Q

Bacterial forms that are resistant to destruction and can remain viable for many years are called:

A

endospores

55
Q

Tuberculosis, strep throat, and necrotizing fasciitis are diseases caused by:

A

Bacteria

56
Q

The term “reservoir of infection” refers to the:

A

place where the pathogen resides

57
Q

The term nosocomial applies to infections that are:

A

hospital acquired

58
Q

An object that has been contaminated with a pathogenic organism is called a:

A

fomite

59
Q

Particles of evaporated droplets containing microorganisms and measuring 5 μm or smaller are called:

A

Droplet nuclei

60
Q

The immunity transferred from mother to child at birth or via breast milk is classified as:

A

Passive immunity

61
Q

HAI stands for an infection that was formerly referred to as:

A

nosocomial

62
Q

The most complete source of information about infectious diseases in the United States is the:

A

CDC

63
Q

A gastrointestinal HAI that causes diarrhea and is caused by a gram-positive spore-forming bacillus is:

A

Clostridium difficile

64
Q

Mucocutaneous Candida, disseminated herpes, cytomegalovirus, and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia are all examples of:

A

opportunistic infections associated with AIDS

65
Q

The risk of contracting HIV from a needlestick injury is:

A

Less than 1%

66
Q

Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination?.

A

Hep B

67
Q

A particulate respirator is essential for protection from exposure to which of the following diseases?

A

TB

68
Q

Under the system of protective or neutropenic precautions, the “dirty” technologist touches the:

A

x-ray equipment

69
Q

Which of the following forms of hepatitis has no vaccine?

A

Type C

70
Q

What is the most likely mode of transmission for hepatitis A?

A

Vehicle or direct contact

71
Q

Which of the following methods of sterilization is the quickest and most convenient method for items that can withstand heat and moisture?

A

Autoclaving

72
Q

The fastest and safest method for sterilizing items that cannot withstand heat is:

A

gas plasma technology

73
Q

Which of the following sterilization methods requires the dissipation of poisonous gas?

A

Gas sterilization using Freon and ethylene oxide

74
Q

When a sterile procedure is delayed, which of the following is NOT an appropriate method of dealing with the sterile tray?

A

If the tray is open, set it aside and avoid touching it

75
Q

A microorganism-free area prepared for the use of sterile supplies and equipment is called a(n):

A

sterile field

76
Q

When you contaminate a field or observe its contamination by someone else, the ethical awareness that requires you to tell the person in charge is referred to as a:

A

sterile conscience

77
Q

The surgical hand rub is an alternative to:

A

surgical hand scrub

78
Q

When preparing for a surgical procedure that requires complete sterile attire, which of the following steps takes place after the surgical hand scrub?

A

Put on surgical gown

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT worn by a radiographer when performing imaging procedures in surgery?

A

Sterile gown

80
Q

It is important to check the patient chart for I&O orders when patients:

A

request a drink of water

81
Q

When emptying a urinary collection bag, it is important to:
A. wear protective gloves
B. measure the quantity emptied
C. record the quantity in the chart
D. all of the above

A

D

82
Q

Which of the following positions is considered safe for a patient who is nauseated and may vomit?

A

Lateral recumbent

83
Q

The definition of decubitus ulcers is tissue death due to:

A

lack of adequate circulation

84
Q

What is the name of the position in which the patient is lying supine with the head lower than the feet?

A

Trendelenburg

85
Q

The term for loss of bladder or bowel control is:

A

Incontinence

86
Q

It is most comfortable for a patient with abdominal pain to be positioned:

A

-in the semi-Fowler position -with a bolster under the knees

87
Q

A physician’s order is legally required order to:

A

use wrist and ankle straps to secure a patient to the bed

88
Q

Periosteal reaction from repeated bruising of the bone is visible radiographically and should lead to suspicion of:

A

nonaccidental trauma

89
Q

Which of the following signs should raise concern about the possibility of elder abuse?

A

Bruises, abrasions, or burns

90
Q

Part of your initial assessment of a patient’s status should include assessment of body temperature by:

A

evaluating skin temperature by touch

91
Q

110/78 mm Hg is a typical measurement for which of the following vital signs?

A

Blood pressure

92
Q

A serum bilirubin test is used to measure:

A

conjugated hemoglobin content in blood

93
Q

When a patient’s appearance takes on a bluish color, especially in the nail beds and mucous membranes of the mouth, the patient is described as:

A

Cyanotic

94
Q

The normal heart rate for an adult is:

A

60 - 100 bpm

95
Q

When the heart rate is measured by placing a stethoscope on the chest directly over the heart, this is called a(n):

A

Apical pulse

96
Q

The term tachycardia refers to:

A

rapid heart rate

97
Q

Which of the following instruments is used to monitor both the pulse and the oxygen saturation of the blood?

A

Pulse oximeter

98
Q

Which precaution must be followed when obtaining a lateral chest x-ray on a patient who has recently had a pacemaker implanted?

A

Do not abduct the left arm.

99
Q

Nasogastric tubes are placed in patients for the purpose of: A. feeding
B. decompression of gas and fluids
C. imaging
D. all of the above

A

D

99
Q

An example of a nasogastric tube used to feed the patient is a _________ tube.

A

Dobbhoff

100
Q

The tip of a PICC or any central venous catheter should be visualized in the:

A

Superior vena cava

101
Q

When a Swan–Ganz catheter is in a wedged capillary position, it lies in:

A

a branch of the pulmonary artery

102
Q

Which of the following is NOT a central venous catheter?

A

Swan-Ganz

103
Q

An implanted device that electrically stimulates the heart to control its rate is called a:

A

Pacemaker

104
Q

A surgical opening into the trachea that provides a temporary or permanent artificial airway is called a:

A

Tracheostomy

105
Q

Before entering the surgical suite, the radiographer must don the required surgical attire that includes:

A

nonsterile shirt and nonsterile pants, a mask, and cap or hood.

106
Q

Which of the following members of the surgical team is most likely place the IR for a surgical image of the abdominal area?

A

surgeon

107
Q

A surgical cholangiogram is performed to demonstrate:

A

the common bile duct.

108
Q

When performing a laparoscopic surgical procedure, the peritoneal cavity is insufflated with:

A

carbon dioxide

109
Q

The sterile corridor in the operating room is the area between the patient and the:

A

instrument tray

110
Q

A rigid fiberoptic device for viewing inside the abdominal cavity is called a:

A

laparoscope

111
Q

Which of the following procedures is NOT useful in the diagnosis of atherosclerosis?

A

CT myelography

112
Q

Which of the following procedures must be done to treat a stenosis with angioplasty?

A

Arteriogram

113
Q

Which of the following is NOT a nuclear medicine procedure?

A

CT scan

114
Q

A contrast agent that contains microscopic bubbles is used to enhance visualization in which of the following modalities?

A

Ultrasound

115
Q

Which of the following modalities is useful for imaging the soft tissue structures of joints?

A

MRI

116
Q

An aortogram is a specific type of:

A

Angiogram

117
Q

Physical compression of the tissue being imaged is essential in which of the following modalities?

A

mammography

118
Q

The imaging modality that provides localization for amniocentesis is:

A

ultrasound

119
Q

Which of the following modalities does NOT involve the use of ionizing radiation?

A

MRI

120
Q

Doppler methods for assessing blood flow in arteries and veins are aspects of which of the following imaging modalities?

A

Ultrasound

121
Q

A type of reimbursement method in which payment is made for all services related to a particular health care need or condition is termed ________

A

episode-of-care

122
Q
A

RADT A111 - Patient Care (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions