Final Review Flashcards
1
Q
X-rays were discovered in 1895 in:
A
Germany
2
Q
When fast-moving electrons collide with the target of an x-ray tube, the kinetic energy of their motion is converted into x-rays and:
A
Heat
3
Q
The majority of radiography education programs are based in/on:
A
Colleges
4
Q
Of the following types of electromagnetic energy, which has the shortest wavelength?
A
Gamma rays
5
Q
Which of the following is not an accurate statement regarding the characteristics of x-rays?
A. They can penetrate matter that is impenetrable to light. B. They can be refracted by a lens.
C. They have an exposure effect on photographic emulsions.
D. They cannot be detected by the human senses.
A
B
6
Q
The characteristic most often used to describe the energy of an x-ray beam is its:
A
Wavelength
7
Q
An x-ray beam that has been attenuated by matter is called:
A
Remnant radiation
8
Q
A device used to indicate the location of the radiation field and to control its size is called a:
A
collimator
9
Q
An x-ray machine that permits viewing of the x-ray image in motion in real time is called a:
A
fluoroscope
10
Q
The four prime factors of radiographic exposure are exposure time, milliamperage, kilovoltage, and:
A
SID
11
Q
The prime factor that controls the wavelength of the x-ray beam is:
A
Kilovoltage
12
Q
The prime factor that controls the rate at which x-rays are produced is:
A
mA
13
Q
The mAs value of an exposure is varied to provide control of:
A
radiation intensity
14
Q
The imaging system that provides an instantaneous digital image on a monitor is called:
A
Digital radiography
14
Q
Which of the following factors is not affected by a change in the mA setting?
A
OID
15
Q
Which of the following factors is used to control image contrast?
A
kVp
16
Q
The inverse square law states that radiation intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the:
A
SID
17
Q
A variation in the size or shape of the image in comparison to the object it represents is called:
A
Distortion
18
Q
The only recognized professional society open to all radiologic technologists in the United States today is the:
A
ASRT
19
Q
The day-to-day scheduling of staff in the radiography department is the responsibility of the:
A
Lead radiographer/manager
20
Q
A pulmonologist who practices exclusively in a hospital intensive care unit may be referred to as:
A
an intensivist
21
Q
The designated eligibility groups for Medicaid are recognized by the __________, although the _____________ regulates who falls within these eligibility groups.
A
federal government; state government
22
Q
Which criterion does The Joint Commission (the accrediting agency for hospitals) not use to certify that a hospital meets certain minimum standards?
A
Education
22
Q
A moral agent is one who:
A
is responsible for implementing an ethical decision
23
“A response in which understanding and compassion are accompanied by an objective detachment that enables you to act appropriately.” This phrase describes the characteristic of:
Empathy
24
Which of the following is not a component of ethical analysis?
Determining who is at fault
25
The neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution in the context of a professional relationship is termed:
malpractice
26
Health care providers may disclose a patient’s protected health information without the patient’s consent to:
another physician providing care to the patient
27
Which of the following terms best describes assertive behavior?
Firm
28
Which of the following statements is true with respect to individuals with decreased levels of consciousness?
They are not responsible for their actions or answers
29
The onset of chronic conditions is most common during which of the following life stages?
Middle adult
30
Which of the following characteristics is not typical of adolescents?
They tend to move at a slower pace
31
The most likely cause of a fire in an imaging department is:
an electrical problem
32
The federal agency governing workplace safety in the United States is:
OSHA
33
Which of the following is not a typical component of a spill kit?
A. nitrile gloves
B. mop
C. kitty litter
D. plastic bags
D
34
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the radiographer in case of fire?
Assess the situation and direct the activities of others.
35
The most common types of workplace disabilities reported by health care workers are:
musculoskeletal disorders
36
MSDS documents are likely to be needed in the event of:
a chemical spill
37
The study of workplace injury prevention is called:
ergonomics
38
Fires start when three elements occur in the same place at the same time. These three elements are oxygen, excessive heat, and:
fuel
39
Eighty percent of imaging technologists experience some form of work-related injury, usually in the form of RMIs and RSIs affecting the shoulder, arm, or wrist, if their area of specialization is:
sonography
40
Stress due to repetitive motion, overreaching, or maintaining the same positions for long periods causes:
microtrauma to muscle tissue
41
When a patient arrives by wheelchair and cannot stand to get onto the x-ray table, which of the following methods is most appropriate?
Hydraulic lift
42
Patients who have not stood or walked since an accident, surgery, stroke, or heart attack should be transported by:
Stretcher
43
When assisting a patient to sit from a supine position, or to lie down from a sitting position, you should place your arms under the shoulders and:
Knees
44
Infants and toddlers are usually transported in:
Cribs
45
A feeling of faintness or light-headedness that occurs with changes in body position after long periods of rest is termed:
orthostatic hypotension
46
When an ambulatory patient has a weak leg as a result of a stroke or other condition, it is helpful to:
position yourself on the patient’s weak side
47
Patients who have undergone which of the following procedures must not flex at the hips more than 90 degrees?
Hip replacement via posterior approach
48
Which of the following items is NOT useful for facilitating a stretcher transfer?
Transfer belt
49
When transferring a patient who is unable to assist with transfer to or from a stretcher, you should position the patient’s arms:
Across the chest
50
Microorganisms that live on or inside the body without causing disease are referred to as:
Normal flora
51
Bacteria can be classified or grouped based on:
A. staining
B. oxygen requirements
C. shape
D. all of the above
D
52
Microorganisms classified as acid-fast are a type of:
Bacteria
53
Yeasts are one type of:
fungus
54
Bacterial forms that are resistant to destruction and can remain viable for many years are called:
endospores
55
Tuberculosis, strep throat, and necrotizing fasciitis are diseases caused by:
Bacteria
56
The term “reservoir of infection” refers to the:
place where the pathogen resides
57
The term nosocomial applies to infections that are:
hospital acquired
58
An object that has been contaminated with a pathogenic organism is called a:
fomite
59
Particles of evaporated droplets containing microorganisms and measuring 5 μm or smaller are called:
Droplet nuclei
60
The immunity transferred from mother to child at birth or via breast milk is classified as:
Passive immunity
61
HAI stands for an infection that was formerly referred to as:
nosocomial
62
The most complete source of information about infectious diseases in the United States is the:
CDC
63
A gastrointestinal HAI that causes diarrhea and is caused by a gram-positive spore-forming bacillus is:
Clostridium difficile
64
Mucocutaneous Candida, disseminated herpes, cytomegalovirus, and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia are all examples of:
opportunistic infections associated with AIDS
65
The risk of contracting HIV from a needlestick injury is:
Less than 1%
66
Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination?.
Hep B
67
A particulate respirator is essential for protection from exposure to which of the following diseases?
TB
68
Under the system of protective or neutropenic precautions, the “dirty” technologist touches the:
x-ray equipment
69
Which of the following forms of hepatitis has no vaccine?
Type C
70
What is the most likely mode of transmission for hepatitis A?
Vehicle or direct contact
71
Which of the following methods of sterilization is the quickest and most convenient method for items that can withstand heat and moisture?
Autoclaving
72
The fastest and safest method for sterilizing items that cannot withstand heat is:
gas plasma technology
73
Which of the following sterilization methods requires the dissipation of poisonous gas?
Gas sterilization using Freon and ethylene oxide
74
When a sterile procedure is delayed, which of the following is NOT an appropriate method of dealing with the sterile tray?
If the tray is open, set it aside and avoid touching it
75
A microorganism-free area prepared for the use of sterile supplies and equipment is called a(n):
sterile field
76
When you contaminate a field or observe its contamination by someone else, the ethical awareness that requires you to tell the person in charge is referred to as a:
sterile conscience
77
The surgical hand rub is an alternative to:
surgical hand scrub
78
When preparing for a surgical procedure that requires complete sterile attire, which of the following steps takes place after the surgical hand scrub?
Put on surgical gown
79
Which of the following is NOT worn by a radiographer when performing imaging procedures in surgery?
Sterile gown
80
It is important to check the patient chart for I&O orders when patients:
request a drink of water
81
When emptying a urinary collection bag, it is important to:
A. wear protective gloves
B. measure the quantity emptied
C. record the quantity in the chart
D. all of the above
D
82
Which of the following positions is considered safe for a patient who is nauseated and may vomit?
Lateral recumbent
83
The definition of decubitus ulcers is tissue death due to:
lack of adequate circulation
84
What is the name of the position in which the patient is lying supine with the head lower than the feet?
Trendelenburg
85
The term for loss of bladder or bowel control is:
Incontinence
86
It is most comfortable for a patient with abdominal pain to be positioned:
-in the semi-Fowler position -with a bolster under the knees
87
A physician’s order is legally required order to:
use wrist and ankle straps to secure a patient to the bed
88
Periosteal reaction from repeated bruising of the bone is visible radiographically and should lead to suspicion of:
nonaccidental trauma
89
Which of the following signs should raise concern about the possibility of elder abuse?
Bruises, abrasions, or burns
90
Part of your initial assessment of a patient’s status should include assessment of body temperature by:
evaluating skin temperature by touch
91
110/78 mm Hg is a typical measurement for which of the following vital signs?
Blood pressure
92
A serum bilirubin test is used to measure:
conjugated hemoglobin content in blood
93
When a patient’s appearance takes on a bluish color, especially in the nail beds and mucous membranes of the mouth, the patient is described as:
Cyanotic
94
The normal heart rate for an adult is:
60 - 100 bpm
95
When the heart rate is measured by placing a stethoscope on the chest directly over the heart, this is called a(n):
Apical pulse
96
The term tachycardia refers to:
rapid heart rate
97
Which of the following instruments is used to monitor both the pulse and the oxygen saturation of the blood?
Pulse oximeter
98
Which precaution must be followed when obtaining a lateral chest x-ray on a patient who has recently had a pacemaker implanted?
Do not abduct the left arm.
99
Nasogastric tubes are placed in patients for the purpose of: A. feeding
B. decompression of gas and fluids
C. imaging
D. all of the above
D
99
An example of a nasogastric tube used to feed the patient is a _________ tube.
Dobbhoff
100
The tip of a PICC or any central venous catheter should be visualized in the:
Superior vena cava
101
When a Swan–Ganz catheter is in a wedged capillary position, it lies in:
a branch of the pulmonary artery
102
Which of the following is NOT a central venous catheter?
Swan-Ganz
103
An implanted device that electrically stimulates the heart to control its rate is called a:
Pacemaker
104
A surgical opening into the trachea that provides a temporary or permanent artificial airway is called a:
Tracheostomy
105
Before entering the surgical suite, the radiographer must don the required surgical attire that includes:
nonsterile shirt and nonsterile pants, a mask, and cap or hood.
106
Which of the following members of the surgical team is most likely place the IR for a surgical image of the abdominal area?
surgeon
107
A surgical cholangiogram is performed to demonstrate:
the common bile duct.
108
When performing a laparoscopic surgical procedure, the peritoneal cavity is insufflated with:
carbon dioxide
109
The sterile corridor in the operating room is the area between the patient and the:
instrument tray
110
A rigid fiberoptic device for viewing inside the abdominal cavity is called a:
laparoscope
111
Which of the following procedures is NOT useful in the diagnosis of atherosclerosis?
CT myelography
112
Which of the following procedures must be done to treat a stenosis with angioplasty?
Arteriogram
113
Which of the following is NOT a nuclear medicine procedure?
CT scan
114
A contrast agent that contains microscopic bubbles is used to enhance visualization in which of the following modalities?
Ultrasound
115
Which of the following modalities is useful for imaging the soft tissue structures of joints?
MRI
116
An aortogram is a specific type of:
Angiogram
117
Physical compression of the tissue being imaged is essential in which of the following modalities?
mammography
118
The imaging modality that provides localization for amniocentesis is:
ultrasound
119
Which of the following modalities does NOT involve the use of ionizing radiation?
MRI
120
Doppler methods for assessing blood flow in arteries and veins are aspects of which of the following imaging modalities?
Ultrasound
121
A type of reimbursement method in which payment is made for all services related to a particular health care need or condition is termed ________
episode-of-care
122
