FINAL Qs (ALL TESTED Qs + REVIEW Qs) Flashcards

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1
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Technologists wear a TLD type personnel monitoring device.

A

FALSE

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2
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The common property of all electromagnetic (EM) radiation is frequency.

A

FALSE

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3
Q

The wavelength of an electromagnetic wave is:

inversely proportional to wave velocity

directly proportional to wave frequency

inversely proportional to wave frequency

usually designated by the letter c

A

inversely proportional to wave frequency

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4
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Time, Distance and shielding are the cardinal rules of radiation safety.

A

TRUE

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5
Q

Which of the following creates the most ionizations in air, and has a radiation weighting factor of 4?

x-ray

beta particle

alpha particle

they are equal

A

alpha particle

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6
Q

If the photon (x-ray) frequency is increased tenfold, then the:

velocity will increase times 10

velocity will decrease to 10

wavelength will increase times 10

wavelength will decrease to 1/10

A

wavelength will decrease to 1/10

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7
Q

A technologist is exposed to 10 mR of radiation at a distance of 50 cm . What distance would result in an exposure of 100mR?

5 cm

500 cm

16 cm

160 cm

A

16 cm

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8
Q

Background radiation accounts for 6 mSv of exposure, man mad sources account for ____mSv of that.

1

2

3

4

A

3

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9
Q

In the ionization process an electron is removed from an atom. In excitation the electron is moved to a/an ___ energy state.

lower

higher

incomplete

all of the above

A

higher

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10
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Air KERMA is an easily measured and comparable factor used for entrance skin exposure.

A

TRUE

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11
Q

Which of the following units of measure are used for patient absorbed dose?

R

Sv

Gy

Bq

A

Gy

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12
Q

The particles that distinguish one element from another are the

neutrons

protons

electrons

beta particles

A

protons

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13
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Thomas Edison discovered x-rays.

A

FALSE

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14
Q

A gamma ray is created in ___ and an x-ray is created in ___.

nucleus of an atom, x-ray tube

x-ray tube, nucleus of an atom

nucleus of an atom, image tube

none of the above

A

nucleus of an atom, x-ray tube

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15
Q

Visible light (moderate energy) acts like a ___ while x-rays(high energy) act like a ___.

particle, particle

wave, particle

particle, wave

wave, wave

A

wave, particle

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16
Q

If an electron is gained or lost from an atom, that atom becomes:

an ion

a new element

an isotope

unstable

A

an ion

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17
Q

TRUE/FALSE

0.05 Sv or 5 rem is the yearly occupational dose limi in the US.

A

TRUE

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18
Q

What unit of measure is used for the absorbed dose multiplied by the radiation weighting factor in the SI system

rem

Gy

Ci

Sv

A

Sv

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19
Q

The theory that electrons circulate in discrete circular paths was proposed by

Bohr

Einstein

Planck

Rutherford

A

Bohr

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20
Q

The maximum number of electrons found in any energy level (shell) at any point in time is

2

6

10

2n^2

A

2n^2

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21
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Stochastic effects of radiation require a threshold dose before they are detectable.

A

FALSE

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22
Q

WhIch of the following describes a product of the absorbed dose, the radiation weighting factor and the tissue sensitivity?

Effective dose

Equivalent dose

Absorbed dose

Tissue KERMA

A

Effective dose

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23
Q

The sum of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called the

electron number

atomic weight

quantum number

atomic mass

A

atomic mass

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24
Q

Isotopes have ______ number of protons and ________ number of neutrons compared to a stable atom of a material.

the same, the same

the same, different

different, the same

different, different

A

the same, different

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25
Q

Frequency and the energy of electromagnetic waves have a ___ relationship, as explained by Plank’s equation. .

directly proportional

inversely proportional

exponential

indirect linear

A

directly proportional

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26
Q

Matter is measured in ____.

kilograms

joules

electron volts

rems

A

kilograms

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27
Q

Energy is measured in ____.

kilograms

curies

electron volts

becqurels

A

electron volts

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28
Q

Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of ____.

energy

radiation

matter

gravity

A

matter

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29
Q

Radio waves, light, and x-rays are all examples of ____ energy.

nuclear

thermal

electrical

electromagnetic

A

electromagnetic

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30
Q

What is the removal of an electron from an atom called?

ionization

pair production

irradiation

electricity

A

ionization

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31
Q

The energy of x-rays is ____.

thermal

potential

kinetic

electromagnetic

A

electromagnetic

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32
Q

The biggest source of man-made ionizing radiation exposure to the public is ____.

atomic fallout

diagnostic x-rays

smoke detectors

nuclear power plants

A

diagnostic x-rays

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33
Q

___ is a special quantity of radiologic sciences.

mass

velocity

radioactivity

momentum

A

radioactivity

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34
Q

Absorbed dose is measured in units of ____.

becquerel

sieverts

meters

grays

A

grays

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35
Q

Today, radiology is considered to be a(n) ___ occupation.

safe

unsafe

dangerous

high-risk

A

safe

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36
Q

What does ALARA mean?

All Level Alert Radiation Accident

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

Always Leave A Restricted Area

As Low As Regulations Allow

A

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

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37
Q

The smallest particle that has all the properties of an element is a(n) ____.

neutron

proton

electron

atom

A

atom

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38
Q

A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined orbits is the ___ model of the atom.

Bohr

Thomson

Rutherford

Dalton

A

Bohr

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39
Q

The chemical element is determined by the number of ___ in the atom.

protons

electrons

neutrons

nucleons

A

protons

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40
Q

An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of ___.

one

zero

positive

negative

A

zero

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41
Q

The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their ____.

atomic numbers

atomic mass units

shells

isotopes

A

shells

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42
Q

When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of neutrons, it is called an ____.

isomer

isobar

isotone

isotope

A

isotope

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43
Q

TRUE/FALSE

KERMA is a measure only done in air.

A

FALSE

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44
Q

An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is a(n) ____.

ion

molecule

isotope

isomer

A

ion

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45
Q

The maximum number of electrons that can exit in the 2nd electron shell is calculated with ____.

2*2

2*2^2

2/2

2/2^2

A

2*2^2

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46
Q

The absorbed dose for the PA view of the chest is 1 mrad, the absorbed dose for the lateral view of the chest is 4 mrad. What is the integral dose for this chest exam?

1

3

4

5

A

5

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47
Q

The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter ____.

A

X

Z

n

A

Z

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48
Q

Deterministic effects of radiation include all of the following except______?

skin burns

hairloss

sterility

cancers

A

cancers

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49
Q

During beta emission, an atom releases ____.

electrons

positrons

protons

neutrons

A

electrons

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50
Q

The only difference between x-rays and gamma rays is their ____.

energy

size

origin

name

A

origin

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51
Q

The ___ is the least penetrating form of ionizing radiation.

beta particle

x-ray

gamma ray

alpha particle

A

alpha particle

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52
Q

The three properties of photons are ___, ____, and ____.

size, shape, spin

frequency, mass, amplitude

frequency, wavelength, energy

refraction, velocity,amplitude

A

frequency, wavelength, energy

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53
Q

The theory of ALARA for health care workers supports which of the following practices for pregnant technologist?

No rotations through fluoroscopy

Limited rotations through portable examinations

No interventional or OR rotations

no modification to the work rotation

A

no modification to the work rotation

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54
Q

What is the velocity of all electromagnetic radiation?

8 x 10^3 m/s

2 x 10^8 m/s

3 x 10^8 m/s

4 x 10^3 m/s

A

3 x 10^8 m/s

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55
Q

The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its ____.

amplitude

frequency

wavelength

velocity

A

frequency

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56
Q

A hertz (Hz) is equal to ___ cycle(s) per second.

103

102

10

1

A

1

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57
Q

If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then its frequency must ____.

double

increase four times

decrease by half

remain constant

A

decrease by half

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58
Q

The intensity of radiation ___ in ___ proportion to the square of the distance of the object from the source.

increases, direct

decreases, direct

increases, inverse

decreases, inverse

A

decreases, inverse

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59
Q

If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet, what will the intensity be at 6 feet?

0.4 millilumens

1 millilumen

2 millilumens

16 millilumens

A

1 millilumen

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60
Q

The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its ____.

amplitude

frequency

velocity

wavelength

A

frequency

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61
Q

Photons with the highest frequencies have the ____.

highest velocity

lowest energy

longest wavelengths

shortest wavelengths

A

shortest wavelengths

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62
Q

The smallest unit of electrical charge is the ____.

electron

proton

neutron

neutrino

A

electron

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63
Q

Electrification occurs through the movement of ____.

protons only

protons and electrons

electrons only

electrons and neutrons

A

electrons only

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64
Q

Like charges ____ and unlike charges ____.

repel, repel

attract, attract

attract, repel

repel, attract

A

repel, attract

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65
Q

The charges on an electrified object are distributed ____.

in the center of the object

on the side nearest the charge

evenly on the surface of the object

on the side opposite the charge

A

evenly on the surface of the object

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66
Q

On the surface of an electrified object, the charges concentrate on the ____.

top side

underside

sharpest curvatures

smoothest curvatures

A

sharpest curvatures

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67
Q

A ___ is a source of direct current.

wall socket

battery

generator

spark

A

battery

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68
Q

What is the unit of electric potential?

watt

amp

volt

ohm

A

volt

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69
Q

An electric potential applied to a conductor produces ____.

an electric current

a magnetic field

an electric insulator

both A and B

A

both A and B

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70
Q

An alternating (AC) current is represented by a ____ line.

sinusoidal

horizontal

vertical

descending

A

sinusoidal

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71
Q

What is Ohm’s law?

I = V/R

V = I/R

R = VI

I = VR

A

I = V/R

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72
Q

A charged particle in motion creates a(n) ____.

negative charge

positive charge

magnetic field

electrostatic charge

A

magnetic field

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73
Q

Electrical power is measured in ____.

coulombs

amperes

volts

watts

A

watts

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74
Q

Rubber and glass are ___.

semiconductors

conductors

insulators

superconductors

A

insulators

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75
Q

When a group of atomic dipoles are aligned, they create ____.

a magnetic domain (a magnet)

paramagnetic material

magnetic induction

magnetic repulsion

A

a magnetic domain (a magnet)

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76
Q

What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength?

ampere

tesla

dipole

ohm

A

tesla

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77
Q

Methods of electrification are all of the following except

retention

friction

contact

induction

A

retention

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78
Q

Radiation protection practices, for example, shielding all patients and applying ALARA principles are based on the theory of ________, which has a non threshold relationship.

Deterministic

Stochastic

Erythema

Epilation

A

Stochastic

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79
Q

In diagnostic imaging (x-rays) 4.2 R of exposure is said to be equivalent to _________ absorbed dose.

  1. 2 rem
  2. 042 Rad
  3. 042 Air Kerma
  4. 042 Gy
A

0.042 Gy

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80
Q

Which of the following describes the type of radiation used, the tissue exposed and the amount absorbed, in other words, which tells us the most information regarding an exposure to radiation?

Integral dose

Air Kerma

Effective dose

Equivelent dose

A

Effective dose

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81
Q

TRUE/FALSE

AC current is required in the x-ray tube, and DC current is required in the transformers

A

FALSE

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82
Q

The filament in the x-ray tube requires ______ amperes to emit electrons, thermionic emission.

0.5-1

1-2

3-5

not enough information to answer

A

3-5

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83
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The high voltage generator consists of a high voltage transformer, rectifiers and an autotransformer

A

FALSE

no autotransformer

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84
Q

the most likely found incoming line current in a modern radiography system is

single phase power

three phase power

direct current

~ 60 volts

A

three phase power

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85
Q

The incoming power to a step up transformer is 100 V, 10 A with a turns ration of 250:1.

What is the resulting voltage in this transformer?

25,000 kV

25,000 V

  1. 4 kV
  2. 4 V
A

25,000 V

100 * 250

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86
Q

The voltage in the x-ray circuit is adjusted or fine tuned in the __________ for ease and safety.

filament transformer

high voltage transformer

rectifier circuit

autotransformer

A

autotransformer

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87
Q

An induction motor is used in what area of imaging?

rotor rotation

power increase

x-ray table movement

all of the above

A

rotor rotation

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88
Q

A filament transformer with a turns ration of 1:20 provides 3.1 amperes to the filament. What is the current flowing through the primary coil of the transformer?

62

  1. 2
  2. 55

.155

A

.155

.155 * 20

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89
Q

TRUE/FALSE

In single phase power systems, the potential never drops to zero.

A

FALSE

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90
Q

When full wave rectification is applied to three phase current, a varying (slight increases and decreases over time) ____ is produced.

current

star

double

voltage

A

voltage

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91
Q

The electrical device used to adjust the mA station is the

autotransformer

stator

switch

precision resistor

A

precision resistor

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92
Q

Nearly all hard wired equipment operates on incoming line voltage of

440 V

120 AC

120 Hz

210 A

A

440 V

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93
Q

All of the following are radiographer operated controls except

kVp selection

generator selection

rotor switch

mA selection

A

generator selection

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94
Q

A step down transformer has ______ windings in the secondary vs. primary side.

less

more

the same

none of the above

A

less

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95
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The basic x-ray circuit is divided into the main circuit and the anode circuit.

A

FALSE

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96
Q

A single phase full wave rectified system produces _____ pulses per cycle.

1

2

6

12

A

2

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97
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The mAs in a system controls the quality of the beam.

A

FALSE

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98
Q

At what point in the x-ray circuit is the rectification circuit located?

between the semiconductors and the valve tubes

between the step down transformer and the rheostat

between the step up transformer and the x-ray tube

between the thermionic diode tubes and the x-ray tube

A

between the step up transformer and the x-ray tube

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99
Q

Which of the following transformers has one winding?

Filament transformer

Hi voltage transformer

Autotransformer

none of the above

A

Autotransformer

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100
Q

Which of the following waveforms has the highest efficiency?

Three phase 6 pulse

three phase 12 pulse

single phase full wave

all are equal

A

three phase 12 pulse

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101
Q

An increase in kVp would ___ the ___ of the emission spectrum.

increase, position alone

increase, amplitude alone

increase, amplitude and position (shift to right)

not effect, amplitude and position

A

increase, amplitude and position (shift to right)

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102
Q

Voltage across the x-ray tube is most constant with ____.

high frequency generators

single-phase, half-wave rectification

single-phase, full-wave rectification

three-phase, full-wave rectification

A

high frequency generators

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103
Q

The quantity of bremsstrahlung radiation increases proportionately with increased ___.

kVp

mAs

filtration

rotor speed

A

mAs

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104
Q

Variations in power distribution to the x-ray machine are corrected by the ____.

line voltage compensator

high voltage autotransformer

full-wave rectifier

automatic exposure control

A

line voltage compensator

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105
Q

Cracking on the anode can occur from ___.

filament vaporization

a single excessive exposure

long exposure times

high kVp and low mA

A

a single excessive exposure

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106
Q

The efficiency of x-ray production increases as ___ increases.

mA

kVp

time

both A and B

A

kVp

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107
Q

A step-down transformer is located in the ___ circuit.

tube

timing

filament

rectifier

A

filament

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108
Q

The least accurate type of timer is the ____ timer.

mechanical

electronic

synchronous

mAs

A

mechanical

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109
Q

The external structure of the x-ray tube includes the support structure, the protective housing, and the ___.

anode

cathode

glass envelope

focusing cup

A

glass envelope

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110
Q

The x-ray beam generated by the circuit with the ___ voltage ripple has the ___ quantity and quality.

no correlation between V ripple and quality and quantity

highest, highest

lowest, highest

lowest, lowest

A

lowest, highest

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111
Q

Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced by ___ at the target.

outer shell excitation

slowing electrons

K-shell interactions

L-shell interactions

A

slowing electrons

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112
Q

The ___ is/are outside the glass envelope.

stators

rotor

focal spot

filaments

A

stators

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113
Q

Full-wave rectified, three-phase units provide an x-ray beam at ___ pulse(s) per second.

1

60

120

360

A

360

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114
Q

The heel effect is caused by the ___.

stator windings

anode angle

exposure times

induction motor

A

anode angle

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115
Q

What is the formula for heat units for a 3-phase, 6-pulse x-ray machine?

kVp x mA x seconds

  1. 35 x kVp x mA x seconds
  2. 41 x kVp x mA x seconds
  3. 66 x kVp x mA x seconds
A

1.35 x kVp x mA x seconds

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116
Q

The effective focal spot size is ___ the actual focal spot size.

equal to

larger than

equal to or larger than

smaller than

A

smaller than

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117
Q

Projectile electrons travel from ___.

anode to cathode

cathode to anode

target to patient

inner shell to outer shell

A

cathode to anode

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118
Q

The useful characteristic x-rays from tungsten targets are ___-shell x-rays.

K

L

M

N

A

K

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119
Q

Changes in ___ result in directly proportional changes in the amplitude of the emission spectrum.

mA

time

kVp

both A and B

A

both A and B

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120
Q

The ____ circuit (transformer) provides electrons for the cathode within the x-ray tube.

rectifier

autotransformer

high voltage

filament

A

filament

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121
Q

Extra-focal or off-focus radiation is produced from ___.

overheated anodes

scattered x-rays

non focused electrons

dual focus cathodes

A

non focused electrons

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122
Q

The x-ray intensity is lower on the anode side of the tube because of the ___.

line focus principle

heel effect

focusing cup

filament length

A

heel effect

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123
Q

Most of the x-rays produced at the target are ___.

bremsstrahlung

characteristic

gamma

beta

A

bremsstrahlung

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124
Q

Most of the heat generated at the target is due to ___.

inner-shell ionization

outer-shell excitation

nucleus bombardment

K x-rays

A

outer-shell excitation

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125
Q

The difference in the waveform between the primary and secondary sides of the high voltage transformer is ____.

frequency

velocity

amplitude

all of the above

A

amplitude

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126
Q

High capacity tube rotors revolve at ___ rpm.

2,000

3,600

6,000

10,000

A

10,000

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127
Q

Thermionic emission at the filament determines the ___ across the x-ray tube during an exposure.

kilovoltage

milliamperage

resistance

magnetism

A

milliamperage

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128
Q

The rotating anode is turned by a ___.

thermal cushion

rotating belt

magnetic field

mechanical pulley

A

magnetic field

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129
Q

The filament in an x-ray tube is about ___ cm in length.

1-2

3-4

8-10

10-20

A

1-2

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130
Q

Which of the following component receives power first in the x-ray circuit ?

mA meter

high voltage transformer

rectifier

autotransformer

A

autotransformer

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131
Q

The mAs timer is usually set to give the ___ mA at the ___ time.

highest, highest

highest, shortest

lowest, shortest

lowest, highest

A

highest, shortest

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132
Q

At 55 kVp, ___ of the useful x-rays produced are bremsstrahlung.

15%

80%

100%

none

A

100%

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133
Q

The x-ray generator with the lowest power rating is the ___ imaging system.

high frequency

three-phase, twelve-pulse

three-phase, six-pulse

single-phase

A

single-phase

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134
Q

Electron interactions at the inner-shell of the target atoms produce ___ radiation.

gamma

Bremsstrahlung

characteristic

all of the above kinds of

A

characteristic

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135
Q

Tube failure can occur from ___.

focal radiation

short exposure times

low kVp techniques

long exposure times

A

long exposure times

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136
Q

An exposure taken at 100 kVp would have a continuos emission spectrum with a maximum energy of ___ keV.

30

69

100

140

A

100

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137
Q

With half-wave rectification, the current flows through the x-ray tube during the ___ part of the cycle.

zero

positive or negative

positive

negative

A

positive

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138
Q

A single-phase waveform has ___ ripple.

1%

4%

14%

100%

A

100%

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139
Q

The automatic exposure control (AEC) terminates the exposure when ____.

the set time is reached

set radiation leaves the x-ray tube

sufficient radiation reaches the image receptor

the correct mAs is reached

A

sufficient radiation reaches the image receptor

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140
Q

The filament is made of ____.

graphite

tungsten

copper

molybdenum

A

tungsten

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141
Q

The high voltage generator contains the high voltage transformer, the ___, and the ___.

autotransformer, timer

timer, rectifiers

kVp meter, filament transformer

filament transformer, rectifiers

A

filament transformer, rectifiers

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142
Q

The three main parts of the x-ray imaging system are the x-ray tube, ____, and ____.

protective barrier, tabletop

operating console, high voltage generator

rectification circuit, operating console

crane assembly, tabletop

A

operating console, high voltage generator

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143
Q

Because of the line focus principal, the effective focal spot size decreases with decreasing ___.

target angle

rotor speed

window thickness

space charge

A

target angle

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144
Q

When electrons bombard the target, ___% of their kinetic energy is converted to heat.

10

25

50

99

A

99

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145
Q

As an x-ray tube ages, the inside can become coated with tungsten, which can cause ___ in the tube.

convection

anode pitting

on-focus radiation

arcing

A

arcing

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146
Q

At the target, the projectile electrons characteristically interact with ___ but are not useable radiation.

outer-shell electrons

inner-shell electrons

atomic nuclei

only A and B

A

outer-shell electrons

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147
Q

The following emission spectrum (SAME SHAPE, HIGHER # OF X-RAY PHOTONS) represents and increase in?

kVp

filtration

generator type

mAs

A

mAs

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148
Q

The ___ is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube.

filament

focal spot

focusing cup

stator

A

focal spot

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149
Q

Thermionic emission at the filament creates a ___.

space charge

grid control

line focus

heel effect

A

space charge

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150
Q

A diode allows electrons to flow from ____.

anode to cathode

cathode to anode

cathode to cathode

anode to anode

A

cathode to anode

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151
Q

An increase in mAs would ___ the ___ of the emission spectrum.

increase, position alone

increase, amplitude alone

increase, amplitude and position

not effect, amplitude and position

A

increase, amplitude alone

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152
Q

Which of the following changes are represented in the following emission spectrum (LOWER PHOTON INTENSITY, SLIGHT SHIFT INSIDE AND TO THE RIGHT)?

filtration

kVp

mAs

anode material

A

filtration

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153
Q

Characteristic x-rays are produced by ___.

braking electrons

excitation of outer shell electrons

nuclear fragmentation

released binding energy

A

released binding energy

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154
Q

The ___ of an x-ray beam is higher when the peak of the emission spectrum is further to the ___.

quality, right

quantity, right

quality, left

quantity, left

A

quality, right

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155
Q

The operating console contains circuits that are ____.

both high voltage and low voltage

high voltage only

low voltage only

non-voltage

A

low voltage only

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156
Q

Characteristic K-shell tungsten x-rays have an effective energy of ___ keV.

0.6

3

12

69

A

69

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157
Q

The cathode side of the tube should be directed toward the ___ part of the patient.

upper

lower

thicker

thinner

A

thicker

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158
Q

The negative side of the x-ray tube holds the ____.

filament

anode

target

rotor

A

filament

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159
Q

The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to ___.

rotor speed

mAs

kVp

voltage ripple

A

mAs

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160
Q

The autotransformer has ____ winding(s).

one

two

three

four

A

one

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161
Q

TRUE/FALSE

A photoelectric interaction is more likely to occur when the x-ray photon energy and the electron binding energy are farther from one another.

A

FALSE

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162
Q

During photoelectric absorption, the ejected electron is called a/an

incident electron

photoelectron

characteristic electron

nuclear electron

A

photoelectron

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163
Q

The photon that exits the atom after a Compton scattering is called the Compton

scattered photon

scattered electron

recoil electron

photoelectron

A

scattered photon

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164
Q

TRUE/FALSE

During pair production, the positively charged electron is termed a negatron.

A

FALSE

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165
Q

When an x-ray photon with a slightly greater energy than the binding energy of the inner-shell electron interacts with that inner-shell electron, the following interaction results:

Compton scattering

coherent scattering

photoelectric absorption

characteristic radiation

A

photoelectric absorption

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166
Q

Which of the following interactions has a significant impact on the x-ray image?

Compton scattering

coherent scatter

pair production

photodisintegration

A

Compton scattering

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167
Q

During coherent scattering, the scattered photon possesses ___ as the incident photon.

the same energy, the same frequency, and the same wavelength

the same energy, the same frequency, and a different wavelength

the same energy, a different frequency, and the same wavelength

a different energy, the same frequency, and the same wavelength

A

the same energy, the same frequency, and the same wavelength

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168
Q

TRUE/FALSE

When a scattered photon is deflected back toward the source, it is traveling in the direction opposite to the incident photon and is called backscatter radiation.

A

TRUE

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169
Q

What is the total differential absorption in bone compared to fat?

bone Z# 13.8 and mass density 1900 kg/m3

fat Z# 6.8 and mass density 910 kg/m3

  1. 51
  2. 05
  3. 02
  4. 5
A

17.5

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170
Q

During which interaction with matter is the x-ray photon converted to matter in the form of two electrons?

pair production

Compton scattering

photoelectric absorption

coherent scattering

A

pair production

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171
Q

In which element are the inner-shell electrons more tightly bound to the nucleus?

mercury (Z = 80)

tungsten (Z = 74)

lead (Z = 82)

chromium (Z = 24)

A

lead (Z = 82)

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172
Q

Which of the following interaction has a significant impact on the x-ray image?

photoelectric absorption

coherent scatter

pair production

photodisintegration

A

photoelectric absorption

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173
Q

Which atomic shell possesses the highest binding energy?

K

L

M

all atomic shells possess the same binding energy

A

K

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174
Q

Which of the following interactions with matter results in a radiograph with a short scale of contrast (high contrast black and white image)?

Compton scattering

coherent scatter

photoelectric interactions

photodisintegration

A

photoelectric interactions

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175
Q

When x-ray photons interact with matter and change direction, the process is called

absorption

scatter

radiation

binding energy

A

scatter

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176
Q

Compton scattering occurs when an incident x-ray photon interacts with a ___ electron.

loosely bound inner-shell

tightly bound inner-shell

loosely bound outer-shell

tightly bound outer-shell

A

loosely bound outer-shell

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177
Q

Which of the following interactions with matter results in a radiograph with a long scale of contrast (low contrast gray image)?

Compton scattering

coherent scatter

photoelectric interactions

photodisintegration

A

Compton scattering

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178
Q

When an x-ray passes through matter, it undergoes a process called

radiation

filtration

attenuation

fluoroscopy

A

attenuation

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179
Q

TRUE/FALSE

During the photoelectric interaction, the incident x-ray photon must be greater than the binding energy of the inner-shell electron.

A

TRUE

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180
Q

Secondary radiation is created after a ________ interaction.

Pairs production

Photoelectric absorption

Photodisintegration

Compton’s scatter

A

Photoelectric absorption

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181
Q

TRUE/FALSE

As kVp increases, the total number of photons transmitted without interaction increases.

A

TRUE

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182
Q

During Compton scattering, the incident photon energy is divided between the

ejected electron and the scattered photon

incident photon and the scattered photon

incident photon and the recoil electron

recoil electron and the photoelectron

A

ejected electron and the scattered photon

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183
Q

The electron dislodged during Compton scattering is called the

photoelectron

recoil electron

incident electron

lost electron

A

recoil electron

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184
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Some x-ray photons may pass through matter and not interact with that matter at all.

A

TRUE

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185
Q

Secondary radiation energies are highest for which element?

hydrogen

carbon

barium

oxygen

A

barium

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186
Q

During the photoelectric interaction, as an electron transfers from an outer shell to a vacant inner shell, energy is released in the form of

a characteristic photon

a primary radiation

an incident electron

an incident photon

A

a characteristic photon

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187
Q

During photoelectric absorption, a/an ___ shell electron is typically ejected.

inner-

middle-

outer-

all of the above

A

inner-

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188
Q

An interaction that occurs between very low energy x-ray photons and matter is called ___ scatter.

coherent

classical

unmodified

all of the above

A

all of the above

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189
Q

Unwanted densities caused predominantly by scattered photons are called

kilovoltage

radiation fog

amperage

pair production

A

radiation fog

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190
Q

During the process of attenuation, the x-ray photon may interact with

the nucleus

the entire atom

an orbital electron

all of the above

A

all of the above

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191
Q

The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are ____.

Compton scattering and pair production

photoelectric absorption and coherent scattering

Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption

coherent scattering and Thompson scattering

A

Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption

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192
Q

An incident x-ray interacts with an atom without ionization during ____.

photoelectric absorption

Compton scattering

coherent scattering

pair production

A

coherent scattering

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193
Q

An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized during ___.

photoelectric interactions

Compton interactions

coherent scattering

pair production

A

Compton interactions

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194
Q

Which x-ray interaction involves the ejection of the K-shell electron?

photoelectric absorption

pair production

Compton interaction

coherent scattering

A

photoelectric absorption

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195
Q

The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains ___ of the energy of the incident photon.

none

little

most

all

A

most

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196
Q

As kVp ___, the probability of photoelectric absorption ___.

increases, remains the same

increases, decreases

decreases, decreases

decreases, remains the same

A

increases, decreases

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197
Q

In ___, there is complete absorption of the incident x-ray photon

photoelectric interaction

Compton interaction

coherent scatter

none of the above

A

photoelectric interaction

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198
Q

____ occurs only at the very high energies used in radiation therapy and in nuclear medicine P.E.T. imaging.

photoelectric absorption

coherent scatter

pair production

Compton scatter

A

pair production

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199
Q

Only at energies above 10 MeV can ___ take place.

photodisintegration

pair production

Compton scatter

photoelectric absorption

A

photodisintegration

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200
Q

When the mass density of the absorber is ___, it results in ___ Compton scatter.

decreased, increased

increased, increased

increased, decreased

decreased, no change

A

increased, increased

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201
Q

K-shell binding energy increases with increasing ____.

mass density

kVp

atomic number

mAs

A

atomic number

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202
Q

Which has the greatest mass density?

soft tissue

bone

fat

air

A

bone

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203
Q

Differential absorption in diagnostic imaging is primarily caused by ___.

photoelectric absorption

Compton scatter

pair production

all of the above

A

photoelectric absorption

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204
Q

Differential absorption is dependent on (the) ___.

kVp of the exposure

atomic number of the absorber

mass density of the absorber

all of the above

A

all of the above

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205
Q

Barium is a good contrast agent because of its ____.

low atomic number

high atomic number

light color

low density

A

high atomic number

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206
Q

In the diagnostic range, rare earth scintillators are better absorbers than Calcium Tungstate. This is due to the phenomena know as ________.

Quantum mottle

Annihilation reaction

k-edge effect or absorption

Photoelectric effect

A

k-edge effect or absorption

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207
Q

X-rays transmitted without interaction contribute to ___.

photoelectric absorption

the radiographic image

the image fog

beam attenuation

A

the radiographic image

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208
Q

Compton interactions, photoelectric absorption, and transmitted x-rays all contribute to ___.

image fog (graying of image)

differential absorption (gray vs. Black and white)

patient dose

attenuation

A

differential absorption (gray vs. Black and white)

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209
Q

At energies below 40 keV, the predominant x-ray interaction in bone is ___.

coherent scatter

Compton scatter

photoelectric absorption

photodisintegration

A

photoelectric absorption

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210
Q

If 5% of an incident beam is transmitted through a body part, then 95% of that beam was ___.

absorbed

back-scattered

scattered

attenuated

A

attenuated

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211
Q

The main reason to use a scintillator or phosphor as a capture element is ________.

to increase detail vs. direct exposure film systems

to decrease exposure time vs. direct exposure systems

to decrease patient exposure (dose) vs. direct exposure systems

none of the above

A

to decrease patient exposure (dose) vs. direct exposure systems

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212
Q

The light-emitting efficiency (speed) of the intensifying screen is improved by the ___.

protective coating

reflective layer

added dyes

phosphor afterglow

A

reflective layer

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213
Q

Screen characteristics are determined by the ___.

size of the phosphor crystals

thickness of the phosphor layer

phosphor composition

all of the above

A

all of the above

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214
Q

A phosphorescent material emits light ___.

only from chemical stimulation

for less than a nanosecond

for a period of time after stimulation

only while it is stimulated

A

for a period of time after stimulation

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215
Q

Luminescent material emits light after its outer shell electrons are ___.

excited

ejected

removed

none of the above

A

excited

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216
Q

A screen that emits light after an exposure terminates is exhibiting ___.

conversion efficiency

image noise

screen lag

screen blur

A

screen lag

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217
Q

The intensification factor is a measurement of screen ___.

resolution

speed

noise

quality

A

speed

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218
Q

The ability of an intensifying screen to absorb x-rays is called ___.

intensification factor

quantum mottle

conversion efficiency

detective quantum efficiency

A

detective quantum efficiency

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219
Q

Image noise in increased with increased ___.

detective quantum efficiency (DQE)

conversion efficiency (CE)

both A and B

none of the above

A

conversion efficiency (CE)

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220
Q

Both the isotropic emission of light from screen phosphor crystals and the added reflective layer contribute to ___.

conversion efficiency

image blur

quantum mottle

detective quantum efficiency

A

image blur

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221
Q

As screen speed ______ image detail _______.

increases, increases

increases, decreases

decrease, decrease

decrease, no change

A

increases, decreases

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222
Q

A wrist x-ray required ________ detail and would be best imaged with a ______ speed phosphor.

lower, 100

lower, 400

higher, 400

higher, 100

A

higher, 100

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223
Q

Adding a light absorbing dye to the tube side of a phosphor ___________ the screen speed compared to phosphors with a reflective layer

does not change

decreases

increases

A

decreases

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224
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The tube side of a cassette should have a high Z# material, to prevent excessive attenuation.

A

FALSE

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225
Q

A scintillator can resolve 6 LP/mm, what is the smallest object we can resolve in that image?

0.1mm

.09mm

0.17mm

not enough information to answer

A

.09mm

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226
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The best method of reducing noise when using a very fast speed system, would be to increase the mAs.

A

TRUE

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227
Q

Energy is measured in _____.

a. kilograms
b. joules
c. electron volts
d. B or C

A

D

Energy is measured in joules or electron volts

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228
Q

Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of _____.

a. energy
b. radiation
c. matter
d. gravity

A

C

Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of matter.

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229
Q

The formula E=mc2 is the basis for the theory that led to the development of _____.

a. x-rays
b. electromagnetic radiation
c. nuclear power
d. cathode ray tubes

A

C

The formula E=mc2 is the basis for the theory that led to the development of nuclear power.

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230
Q

Radio waves, light, and x-rays are all examples of _____ energy.

a. nuclear
b. thermal
c. electrical
d. electromagnetic

A

D

Electromagnetic energy includes radio waves, light, and x-rays as well as other parts of the spectrum.

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231
Q

What is the removal of an electron from an atom called?

a. ionization
b. pair production
c. irradiation
d. electricity

A

A

The removal of an electron from an atom is called ionization.

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232
Q

The energy of x-rays is _____.

a. thermal
b. potential
c. kinetic
d. electromagnetic

A

D

X-rays are a form of electromagnetic energy.

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233
Q

The biggest source of man-made ionizing radiation exposure to the public is _____.

a. atomic fallout
b. diagnostic x-rays
c. smoke detectors
d. nuclear power plants

A

B

Medical x-ray exposure is the biggest source of man-made radiation.

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234
Q

The basic quantities measured in mechanics are _____, _____, and _____.

a. volume, length, meters
b. mass, length, time
c. radioactivity, dose, exposure
d. meters, kilos, seconds

A

B

The basic quantities measured in mechanics are mass, length, and time.

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235
Q

_____ is a special quantity of radiologic science.

a. Mass
b. Velocity
c. Radioactivity
d. Momentum

A

C

Radioactivity is a special quantity of radiologic science.

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236
Q

Exposure is measured in units of _____.

a. becquerel
b. sieverts
c. meters
d. grays

A

D

Exposure is measured in units of grays.

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237
Q

Today, radiology is considered to be a(n) _____ occupation.

a. safe
b. unsafe
c. dangerous
d. high-risk

A

A

Today, radiology is considered to be a safe occupation because of effective radiation protection practices.

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238
Q

What does ALARA mean?

a. All Level Alert Radiation Accident
b. As Low As Reasonably Achievable
c. Always Leave A Restricted Area
d. As Low As Regulations Allow

A

B

ALARA means As Low As Reasonably Achievable.

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239
Q

The smallest particle that has all the properties of an element is a(n) _____.

a. neutron
b. proton
c. electron
d. atom

A

D

The smallest particle that has all the properties of an element is an atom.

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240
Q

A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined orbits is the _____ model of the atom.

a. Bohr
b. Thomson
c. Rutherford
d. Dalton

A

A
A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined orbits is the Bohr model of the atom.

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241
Q

What are the fundamental particles of an atom?

a. quark, positron, negatron
b. nucleon, electron, proton
c. proton, neutron, quark
d. proton, electron, neutron

A

D

The fundamental particles of an atom are the proton, electron, and neutron.

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242
Q

An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of _____.

a. one
b. zero
c. positive
d. negative

A

B

An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of zero.

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243
Q

The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their _____.

a. atomic numbers
b. atomic mass units
c. shells
d. isotopes

A

C

The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their shells.

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244
Q

When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of neutrons, it is called an _____.

a. isomer
b. isobar
c. isotone
d. isotope

A

D

When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of neutrons, it is called an isotope.

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245
Q

An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is a(n) _____.

a. ion
b. molecule
c. isotope
d. isomer

A

A

An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is an ion.

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246
Q

The maximum number of electrons that can exist in an electron shell is calculated with the formula _____.

a. 2n
b. 2n^2
c. 2/n
d. 2/n^2

A

B

The number of electrons in an electron shell is calculated with the formula 2n^2.

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247
Q

The innermost electron shell is symbolized by the letter _____.

a. J
b. K
c. L
d. M

A

B

The innermost electron shell is symbolized by the letter K.

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248
Q

The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter _____.

a. A
b. X
c. Z
d. n

A

C

The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter Z.

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249
Q

Two identical atoms which exist at different energy states are called _____.

a. isotopes
b. isomers
c. isotones
d. isobars

A

B

Two identical atoms which exist at different energy states are called isomers.

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250
Q

During beta emission, an atom releases _____.

a. electrons
b. positrons
c. protons
d. neutrons

A

A

During beta emission, an atom releases electrons.

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251
Q

The only difference between x-rays and gamma rays is their _____.

a. energy
b. size
c. origin
d. name

A

C

The only difference between x-rays and gamma rays is their origin.

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252
Q

The four properties of photons are _____, _____, _____ and _____.

a. size, shape, spin, mass
b. frequency, mass, amplitude, wavelength
c. frequency, wavelength, velocity, amplitude
d. refraction, velocity, spin, amplitude

A

C

The properties of photons are frequency, wavelength, velocity, and amplitude.

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253
Q

The smallest quantity of any type of electromagnetic radiation is a(n) _____.

a. photon
b. electron
c. neutrino
d. quark

A

A

The smallest quantity of any type of electromagnetic radiation is a photon.

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254
Q

What is the velocity of all electromagnetic radiation?

a. 8 × 10^3 m/s
b. 2 × 10^8 m/s
c. 3 × 10^8 m/s
d. 4 × 10^3 m/s

A

C

The velocity of all electromagnetic radiation is 3 × 10^8 m/s.

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255
Q

The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its _____.

a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. wavelength
d. velocity

A

B

The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its frequency.

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256
Q

If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then its frequency must _____.

a. double
b. increase four times
c. decrease by half
d. remain constant

A

C
If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then its frequency must decrease by half.

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257
Q

The intensity of radiation _____ in _____ proportion to the square of the distance of the object from the source.

a. increases, direct
b. decreases, direct
c. increases, inverse
d. decreases, inverse

A

D

The intensity of radiation decreases in inverse proportion to the square of the distance of the object from the source.

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258
Q

If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet, what will the intensity be at 6 feet?

a. 0.4 millilumens
b. 1 millilumen
c. 2 millilumens
d. 16 millilumens

A

B
If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet using the inverse square law, it will be 1 millilumen at 6 feet.

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259
Q

The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its _____.

a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. velocity
d. wavelength

A

B

The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency.

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260
Q

X-rays are usually identified by their _____.

a. energy
b. velocity
c. wavelength
d. hertz

A

A

X-rays are usually identified by their energy.

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261
Q

Photons with the highest frequencies have the _____.

a. highest velocity
b. lowest energy
c. longest wavelengths
d. shortest wavelengths

A

D

Photons with the highest frequencies have the shortest wavelengths.

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262
Q

The smallest unit of electrical charge is the _____.

a. electron
b. proton
c. neutron
d. neutrino

A

A

The smallest unit of electrical charge is the electron.

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263
Q

Electrification occurs through the movement of _____.

a. protons only
b. protons and electrons
c. electrons only
d. electrons and neutrons

A

C

Electrification occurs only through the movement of electrons.

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264
Q

Like charges _____ and unlike charges _____.

a. repel, repel
b. attract, attract
c. attract, repel
d. repel, attract

A

D

Like charges repel and unlike charges attract.

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265
Q
Electrostatic force is \_\_\_\_\_ proportional to the distance between charges, and \_\_\_\_\_ proportional to
the product of the charges.
a. directly, inversely
b. inversely, directly
c. inversely, inversely
d. directly, directly
A

B
Electrostatic force is inversely proportional to the distance between charges, and directly
proportional to the product of the charges.

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266
Q

The charges on an electrified object are distributed _____.

a. in the center of the object
b. on the side nearest the charge
c. on the topside of the object
d. evenly throughout the object

A

D

The charges on an electrified object are distributed evenly throughout.

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267
Q

On the surface of an electrified object, the charges concentrate on the _____.

a. top side
b. underside
c. sharpest curvatures
d. smoothest curvatures

A

C

On the surface of an electrified object, the charges concentrate on the sharpest curvature.

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268
Q

A _____ is a source of direct current.

a. wall socket
b. battery
c. generator
d. spark

A

B

A battery is a source of direct current.

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269
Q

What is the unit of electric potential?

a. watt
b. amp
c. volt
d. ohm

A

C

The unit of electric potential is the volt.

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270
Q

An electric potential applied to a conductor produces _____.

a. an electric current
b. a magnetic field
c. an electric insulator
d. both A and B

A

D
When an electric potential is applied to a conductor, both an electric current and a magnetic field are
produced.

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271
Q

An alternating (AC) current is represented by a _____ line.

a. sinusoidal
b. horizontal
c. vertical
d. descending

A
A
An alternating (AC) current is represented by a sinusoidal line.
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272
Q

A _____ uses direct current.

a. hair dryer
b. toaster
c. microwave
d. flashlight

A

D

A flashlight is battery operated, and batteries use direct current.

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273
Q

Alternating current is produced by a _____.

a. battery
b. generator
c. capacitor
d. semiconductor

A

B

Alternating current is produced by a generator.

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274
Q

What is Ohm’s law?

a. I = V/R
b. V = I/R
c. R = VI
d. I = VR

A

A

Ohm’s law is I = V/R.

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275
Q

A charged particle in motion creates a(n) _____.

a. negative charge
b. positive charge
c. magnetic field
d. electrostatic charge

A

C

A charged particle in motion creates a magnetic field.

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276
Q

Electrical power is measured in _____.

a. coulombs
b. amperes
c. volts
d. watts

A

D

Electrical power is measured in watts.

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277
Q

Rubber and glass are _____.

a. semiconductors
b. conductors
c. insulators
d. superconductors

A

C

Rubber and glass are insulators because they are nonconductors.

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278
Q

The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called _____.

a. magnetic force
b. electron spin
c. unified field theory
d. magnetic induction

A

B

The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called electron spin.

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279
Q

When a group of dipoles are aligned, they create _____.

a. a magnetic domain
b. paramagnetic material
c. magnetic resonance
d. a north pole

A

A

When a group of dipoles are aligned, they create a magnetic domain.

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280
Q

In the United States, alternating current goes through a complete cycle every _____ second.

a. 1/120
b. 1/100
c. 1/60
d. 1/30

A

C

In the United States, alternating current goes through a complete cycle every 1/60 second.

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281
Q

What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength?

a. ampere
b. tesla
c. dipole
d. ohm

A

B

The SI unit of magnetic field strength is the tesla or gauss.

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282
Q

The force between magnetic poles is proportional to the _____ of the magnetic pole strengths,
divided by the _____ of the distance between them.
a. square, sum
b. sum, square
c. square, product
d. product, square

A

D
The force between magnetic poles is proportional to the product of the magnetic pole strengths,
divided by the square of the distance between them.

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283
Q

What type of material can be made magnetic when placed in an external magnetic field?

a. diamagnetic
b. ferromagnetic
c. paramagnetic
d. nonmagnetic

A

B

Ferromagnetic material can be made magnetic when placed in an external magnetic field.

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284
Q

Like magnetic poles _____ and unlike magnetic poles _____.

a. attract, attract
b. repel, repel
c. repel, attract
d. attract, repel

A

C

Like magnetic poles repel and unlike magnetic poles attract.

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285
Q

Water is a _____ material.

a. paramagnetic
b. magnetic
c. diamagnetic
d. ferromagnetic

A

C

Water is a diamagnetic material.

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286
Q

The magnetic intensity of an electromagnet is greatly increased by the addition of a(n) _____ core.

a. wood
b. iron
c. aluminum
d. copper

A

B

The magnetic intensity of an electromagnet is greatly increased by the addition of an iron core.

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287
Q

The transformer changes:

A.	on AC but not on DC
B.	on both DC and AC
C.	on DC but not on AC
D.	only above its critical current
E.	only on a constant voltage
A

A. on AC but not on DC

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288
Q

The output current in a step-up transformer is:

A.	higher than the input current
B.	independent of the input current
C.	independent of the turns ratio
D.	lower than the input current
E.	the same as the input current
A

D. lower than the input current

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289
Q

If DC is applied to the primary coil of a step-up transformer, what is the result in the secondary coil?

A.	AC
B.	Increased current
C.	Increased magnetic field
D.	Increased voltage
E.	Nothing
A

E. Nothing

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290
Q

Power to the primary side of the high-voltage transformer comes from the:

A.	Filament transformer
B.	Line-voltage compensator
C.	Primary side of the autotransformer 
D.	Rectifier
E.	Secondary side of the autotransformer
A

E. Secondary side of the autotransformer

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291
Q

The autotransformer has only one:

A.	Coil
B.	Meter
C.	Rectifier
D.	Switch
E.	Turns ratio
A

A. Coil

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292
Q

Line compensation:

A.	Adjusts the line frequency to 60 Hz
B.	Compensates for rectification
C.	Is necessary for proper exposure timing
D.	Is necessary to convert AC to DC
E.	Is required to stabilize voltage
A

E. Is required to stabilize voltage

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293
Q

The filament transformer:

A.	Has four windings
B.	Increases current
C.	Increases voltage
D.	Is an autotransformer
E.	Must have precision resistors
A

B. Increases current

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294
Q

The design of fixed mA stations requires the use of which of the following?

A.	A center-tapped meter
B.	DC power
C.	Major and minor taps
D.	Precision resistors
E.	Primary and secondary windings
A

D. Precision resistors

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295
Q

A change in the voltage waveform from the primary side to the secondary side of the high-voltage transformer produces a change in:

A.	Amplitude
B.	Frequency
C.	Phase
D.	Velocity
E.	Wavelength
A

A. Amplitude

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296
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of three-phase power over single-phase power?

A.	Improved spatial resolution
B.	Increased kVp
C.	Increased mAs
D.	Increased x-ray intensity per mAs
E.	Lower capital cost
A

D. Increased x-ray intensity per mAs

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297
Q

Oil is used in the high-voltage section of an x-ray imaging system for which of the following functions?

A.	Electrical insulation
B.	Reduction of rotor friction
C.	Reduction of voltage ripple
D.	Thermal conduction
E.	Voltage rectification
A

A. Electrical insulation

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298
Q

If 60 Hz AC power is full-wave rectified, output voltage consists of:

A.	60 pulses per second
B.	90 pulses per second
C.	120 pulses per second
D.	70% ripple
E.	Zero ripple
A

C. 120 pulses per second

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299
Q

TRUE/FALSE

As the kinetic energy of the incident electron increases, so does the efficiency of the photon production.

A

TRUE

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300
Q

TRUE/FALSE

In the diagnostic range, the kinetic energy of the incident electrons is high enough to eject an outer-shell electron causing ionization.

A

TRUE

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301
Q

TRUE/FALSE

In a bremsstrahlung interaction, the closer the incident electron travels to the nucleus, the lower the energy of the resultant x-ray photon.

A

FALSE

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302
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The electron ejected during a characteristic interaction is also known as the x-ray photon.

A

FALSE

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303
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The creation of a characteristic photon is always the result of a K-shell electron ejection.

A

FALSE

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304
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The creation of a characteristic photon in the diagnostic range is always the result of a K-shell electron ejection.

A

FALSE

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305
Q

TRUE/FALSE

As the tube ages, the anode begins to pit and the glass envelope may gain a mild coating of vaporized metal. This will cause a decrease in inherent filtration.

A

FALSE

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306
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Inherent filtration is the filtration found within the tube design.

A

TRUE

307
Q

TRUE/FALSE

In diagnostic radiology, filtration is typically added between the source and the patient.

A

TRUE

308
Q

Almost all of the kinetic energy of the incident electrons is converted to:

a. a bremsstrahlung photon
b. a characteristic x-ray photon
c. light
d. heat

A

d. heat

309
Q

What percentage of target interaction results in the production of x-ray photons?

a. 1 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 99 percent
d. 100 percent

A

a. 1 percent

310
Q

The transfer of the incident electrons’ kinetic energy to the outer-shell electrons causing vibration of the outer-shell electron results in the emission of:

a. infrared radiation.
b. ultraviolet radiation.
c. light.
d. sound.

A

a. infrared radiation.

311
Q

The energy of a bremsstrahlung photon is
a. equal to the kinetic energy of the entering electron.

b. equal to the kinetic energy of the exiting electron.
c. the sum of the entering and exiting kinetic energy of the electron.
d. the difference between the entering and exiting kinetic energy of the electron.

A

d. the difference between the entering and exiting kinetic energy of the electron.

312
Q

Bremsstrahlung interactions may occur only when the incident electron interacts with:

a. an inner-shell electron.
b. an outer-shell electron.
c. the force field of the nucleus.
d. none of the above

A

c. the force field of the nucleus.

313
Q

Characteristic interactions may occur only when the incident electron interacts with:

a. an inner-shell electron.
b. an outer-shell electron.
c. the force field of the nucleus.
d. none of the above

A

a. an inner-shell electron.

314
Q

During a characteristic interaction, the energy of the incident electron must be ____ the electron it knocks from its orbit.

a. less than that of
b. greater than that of
c. proportional to that of
d. characteristic of

A

b. greater than that of

315
Q

During a characteristic interaction, the dropping of a higher-energy state electron into a lower-energy state “hole” results in the emission of:

a. a photon of energy.
b. a high-energy electron.
c. a low-energy electron.
d. more than one of the above

A

a. a photon of energy.

316
Q

The energy of a characteristic photon is:

a. equal to the binding energy of the entering electron.
b. equal to the binding energy of the exiting electron.
c. the sum of the binding energy of the outer and inner shells between which the electron dropped.
d. the difference between the binding energy of the outer and inner shells between which the electron dropped.

A

d. the difference between the binding energy of the outer and inner shells between which the electron dropped.

317
Q

At the end of the characteristic cascade, the ____ shell is missing an electron.

a. innermost
b. K
c. outermost
d. characteristic

A

c. outermost

318
Q

The K-shell can hold a maximum of ____ electrons.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 6
d. 8

A

b. 2

319
Q

Filtration is the process of eliminating undesirable ____ by the insertion of absorbing materials into the primary beam.

a. high-energy x-ray photons
b. high-energy incident electrons
c. low-energy x-ray photons
d. low-energy incident electrons

A

c. low-energy x-ray photons

320
Q

Filtration permits the radiographer to ____ the photon emission spectrum into a more useful beam.

a. narrow
b. widen
c. soften
d. There is no effect.

A

a. narrow

321
Q

Filtration has what effect on patient dose?

a. It has no effect on patient dose.
b. It increases patient dose.
c. It decreases patient dose.
d. It increases occupational worker dose.

A

c. It decreases patient dose.

322
Q

Which of the following materials is/are used as a filter?

a. glass
b. oil
c. aluminum
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

323
Q

All filtration can be expressed in terms of the thickness of:

a. HVL.
b. Pb/Eq.
c. Al/Eq.
d. Sn/Eq..

A

c. Al/Eq.

324
Q

The amount of material that will reduce the intensity of the primary beam to one-half its original value is the:

a. half-value layer.
b. radioactive half-life.
c. aluminum equivalency.
d. half-life equivalency.

A

a. half-value layer.

325
Q

Which of the following is affected by half-layer value?

a. anode construction
b. image quality
c. target longevity
d. patient exposure

A

d. patient exposure

326
Q

How many half-value layers must be added to the primary beam to reduce its intensity to less than 20 percent of its original value?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

c. 3

327
Q

Which one of these statements is true?

a. The thickest portion of the wedge filter is placed over the densest part of the patient.
b. The thickest portion of the wedge filter is placed over the less dense part of the patient.
c. The thinnest portion of the wedge filter is placed over the less dense part of the patient.
d. A wedge filter should not be used to compensate for unequal subject density.

A

b. The thickest portion of the wedge filter is placed over the less dense part of the patient.

328
Q

True/False?

AC current is required in the x-ray tube, and DC current is required in the transformers

A

False

329
Q

The filament in the x-ray tube requires ______ amperes to emit electrons, thermionic emission.

0.5-1

1-2

3-5

not enough information to answer

A

3-5

330
Q

True/False?

The high voltage generator consistes of a high voltage transformer, rectifiers and an autotransformer

A

False

331
Q

The most likely found incoming line current in a modern radiography system is:

single phase power

three phase power

direct current

~ 60 volts

A

three phase power

332
Q

The incoming power to a step up transformer is 100 V, 10 A with a turns ration of 250:1.

What is the resulting voltage in this transformer?

25,000 kV
25,000 V
0.4 kV
0.4 V

A

25,000 V

333
Q

The voltage in the x-ray circuit is adjusted or fine tuned in the __________ for ease and safety.

filament transformer

high voltage transformer

rectifier circuit

autotransformer

A

autotransformer

334
Q

An induction motor is used in what area of imaging?

rotor rotation

power increase

x-ray table movement

all of the above

A

rotor rotation

335
Q

A filament transformer with a turns ration of 1:20 provides 3.1 amperes to the filament. What is the current flowing through the primary coil of the transformer?

62

  1. 2
  2. 55

.155

A

155

336
Q

True/False

In single phase power systems, the potential never drops to zero.

A

False

337
Q

When full wave rectification is applied to three phase current, a varying(slight increases and decreases over time) ____ is produced.

current

star

double

voltage

A

voltage

338
Q

The electrical device used to adjust the mA station is the

autotransformer

stator

switch

precision resistor

A

precision resistor

339
Q

Nearly all hard wired equipment operates on incoming line voltage of

440 V

120 AC

120 Hz

210 A

A

440 V

340
Q

All of the following are radiographer operated controls except

kVp selection

generator selection

rotor switch

mA selection

A

generator selection

341
Q

A step down transformer has ______ windings in the secondary vs. primary side.

less

more

the same

none of the above

A

less

342
Q

True/False?

The basic x-ray circuit is divided into the main circuit and the anode circuit.

A

False

343
Q

A single phase full wave rectified system produces _____ pulses per cycle.

1

2

6

12

A

2

344
Q

True/False?

The mAs in a system controls the quality of the beam.

A

False

345
Q

At what point in the x-ray circuit is the rectification circuit located?

between the semiconductors and the valve tubes

between the step down transformer and the rheostat

between the step up transformer and the x-ray tube

between the thermionic diode tubes and the x-ray tube

A

between the step up transformer and the x-ray tube

346
Q

Which of the following transformers has one winding?

Filament transformer

Hi voltage transformer

Autotransformer

none of the above

A

Autotransformer

347
Q

Which of the following waveforms has the highest efficiency?

Three phase 6 pulse

Three phase 12 pulse

Single phase full wave

All are equal

A

Three phase 12 pulse

348
Q

The voltage input to an x-ray transformer is most likely _____.

A. 60
B. 220
C. 660
D. >660

A

B. 220

349
Q

A typical turns ratio in a step-up transformer is most likely _____.

A. 7:1
B. 70:1
C. 700:1
D. 7000:1

A

C. 700:1

350
Q

Variation of x-ray tube voltage with time is best described as the:

A. ripple
B. pulse frequency
C. uniformity
D. nonlinearity

A

A. ripple

351
Q

The percentage of ripple of a high-frequency generator is most likely:

A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. >10

A

A. 1

352
Q

The number of pulses per cycle of a half-wave rectified single-phase generator is _____.

A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 6

A

B. 1

353
Q

Which generator has the lowest ripple?

A. single pulse
B. six pulse
C. twelve pulse
D. high-frequency

A

D. high-frequncy

354
Q

Which generator is most likely to reduce the kVp during an exposure?

A. portable
B. dedicated chest
C. R/F unit
D. Interventional radiology

A

portable

355
Q

The maximum distance (mm) energetic electrons travel to the x-ray tube tungsten target is most likely _____.

A. 0.05
B. 0.5
C. 5
D. 50

A

B. 0.5

356
Q

The maximum Bremasstrahlung energy (keV) produced at 80 kVp is most likely _____.

A. 100
B. 80
C. 70
D. 35

A

B. 80

357
Q

The percentage of Bremasstrahlung radiation at 120 kVp is most likely _____%.

A. 1
B. 10
C. 50
D. 90

A

D. 90

358
Q

The average Bremsstrahlung energy (keV) produced at 100 kVp is most likely _____.

A. 100
B. 70
C. 55
D. 40

A

D. 40

359
Q

Tungsten characteristic K-shell x-rays have an energy (keV) of _____.

A. 85
B. 65
C. 35
D. 18

A

B. 65

360
Q

The percentage of K-shell characteristic x-rays at 55 kVp in a tungsten target is _____.

A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. >10

A

A. 0

361
Q

An x-ray spectrum shows a graph of the number of photons on the vertical axis against _____ on the horizontal axis.

A. kVp
B. keV
C. mAs
D. mA

A

B. keV

362
Q

The highest intensity in a spectrum from a tungsten target is most likely at the _____.

A. low energies
B. middle energies
C. high energies
D. low and high energies

A

B. middle energies

363
Q

1 roentgen is approx. equal to _____ mGy.

A. 0.1
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100

A

C. 10

364
Q

An x-ray tube current is a flow of:

A. electrons
B. protons
C. neutrons
D. ionized atoms

A

A. electrons

365
Q

Doubling the x-ray tube current, and quadrupling exposure time, increases x-ray tube output by _____.

A. 2x
B. 4x
C. 8x
D. 16x

A

C. 8x

366
Q

The most likely x-ray tube output (mGy/mAs) 100cm from the x-ray tube focus is most likely _____.

A. 0.05
B. 0.5
C. 5
D. 50

A

A. 0.05

367
Q

Doubling the mAs increases x-ray production efficiency by ______%.

A. 0
B. 10
C. 50
D. 100

A

A. 0

368
Q

Doubling the x-ray tube voltage would likely increase the x-ray tube output by _____%.

A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 400

A

D. 400

369
Q

Doubling the x-ray tube voltage would likely increase the x-ray tube output by _____%.

A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 400

A

D. 400

370
Q

Doubling the x-ray tube mAs is equivalent to increasing the x-ray tube voltage by _____%.

A. 5
B. 15
C. 50
D. 100

A

B. 15

371
Q

Which x-ray component is most likely to store the heat generated during an x-ray?

A. anode
B. cathode
C. target
D. filament

A

A. anode

372
Q

Anode heat capacity is most likely expressed in terms of:

A. heat units
B. watts
C. temperature
D. specific heat

A

A. heat units

373
Q

How many heat units is 1J?

A. 0.35
B. 0.7
C. 1.35
D. 1.7

A

C. 1.35

374
Q

Which of the following is not a method for heat dissipation?

A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D. spallation

A

D. spallation

375
Q

The length of an x-ray tube filament is most likely _____ mm.

A. 0.15
B. 1.5
C. 15
D. 150

A

B. 1.5

376
Q

X-ray tube filaments are most likely made of:

A. moly
B. silver
C. tungsten
D. lead

A

C. tungsten

377
Q

The most likely x-ray tube filament current is _____ A.

A. 0.04
B. 0.4
C. 4
D. 40

A

C. 4

378
Q

The melting point of tungsten targets in x-ray tubes is most likely _____ °C.

A. 34
B. 340
C. 3,400
D. 34,000

A

C. 3,400

379
Q

The material added to tungsten targets in x-ray tubes is most likely:

A. rhenium
B. silver
C. thorium
D. iron

A

A. rhenium

380
Q

The target of a mammography x-ray tube is most likely:

A. moly
B. silver
C. aluminum
D. copper

A

A. moly

381
Q

X-ray tube targets are most likely embedded in the:

A. anode
B. cathode
C. housing
D. focusing grid

A

A. anode

382
Q

The most likely rotation speed of an anode in a chest radiograph x-ray tube is _____ RPM.

A. 50
B. 500
C. 5,000
D. 50,000

A

C. 5,000

383
Q

The type of gas in an x-ray tube is most likely:

A. air
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. none (vacuum)

A

D. none (vacuum)

384
Q

Vaporized tungsten coated on the x-ray tube glass envelope is most likely to result in:

A. arcing
B. leakage radiation
C. gas leaks
D. secondary radiation

A

A. arcing

385
Q

X-ray production in an x-ray tube is most likely to be emitted towards:

A. anode
B. cathode
C. filament
D. isotropically

A

D. isotropically

386
Q

The area of an x-ray window is most likely _____ cm^2.

A. 5
B. 50
C. 500
D. 5000

A

A. 5

387
Q

Radiation that escapes through the protective housing is most likely called:

A. primary
B. secondary
C. leakage
D. scatter

A

C. leakage

388
Q

The most likely material between the protective housing and the x-ray tube is:

A. oil
B. water
C. air
D. acrylic

A

A. oil

389
Q

The shape of an aperture diaphragm is least likely a(n):

A. circle
B. square
C. rectangle
D. ellipse

A

D. ellipse

390
Q

Field size is most severely restricted by use of a(n):

A. cylinder
B. cone
C. diaphragm
D. alignment mirror

A

A. cylinder

391
Q

The lead thickness of collimator leaves is most likely _____ mm.

A. 0.003
B. 0.03
C. 0.3
D. 3

A

D. 3

392
Q

The minimum filtration required in a diagnostic x-ray tube is most likely _____ mm Al.

A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.5
D. 4.0

A

C. 2.5

393
Q

Added filtration is most likely made of:

A. moly
B. rhenium
C. aluminum
D. silver

A

C. aluminum

394
Q

The inherent aluminum equivalence of light mirror is most likely _____ mm.

A. 0.01
B. 0.3
C. 1
D. 3

A

C. 1

395
Q

The small focal spot size in a conventional (W target) x-ray tube is most likely _____ mm.

A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.6
D. 1.2

A

C. 0.6

396
Q

The limiting tube current on a small focal spot size is most likely _____ mA.

A. 3
B. 30
C. 300
D. 3000

A

C. 300

397
Q

The maximum tube current for a typical diagnostic x-ray tube is most likely _____ mA.

A. 100
B. 1,000
C. 10,000
D. 100,000

A

B. 1,000

398
Q

The maximum tube voltage for a typical diagnostic x-ray tube is most likely _____ kV.

A. 15
B. 150
C. 1,500
D. 15,000

A

B. 150

399
Q

The most likely exposure time(s) for a synchronous timer would be _____ second.

A. 1/50
B. 1/60
C. 1/70
D. 1/80

A

B. 1/60

400
Q

The lowest exposure time of an electronic timer is most likely _____ second.

A. 0.001
B. 0.003
C. 0.010
D. 0.030

A

A. 0.001

401
Q

The most important factor affecting the heel effect is most likely the anode:

A. angle
B. rotation
C. size
D. density

A

A. angle

402
Q

Which field size (cm x cm) is likely to show the highest heel effect?

A. 35 x 43
B. 30 x 35
C. 24 x 30
D. 18 x 25

A

A. 35 x 43

403
Q

Off-focus radiation is best controlled by the use of:

A. high kVp
B. high mA
C. collimators
D. a grid

A

C. collimators

404
Q

X-ray tubes that are used with reduced techniques are most likely to have:

A. longer lives
B. off-focus radiation
C. microprocessor failures
D. repeat rates

A

A. longer lives

405
Q

Which target will result in the most x-rays, assuming a constant x-ray tube kVp?

A. Mo
B. Rh
C. W
D. no difference (all the same)

A

C. W

406
Q
  1. The reduction in the number and energy of photons as radiation passes through matter is termed:
    a. Irradiation
    b. Deflection
    c. Photoelectrolysis
    d. Attenuation
A

d. Attenuation

407
Q
  1. The production of scatter radiation wen x-radiation strikes an object principally results from:
    a. Compton interaction
    b. Brem’s event
    c. Characteristic event
    d. Photoelectric interaction
A

a. Compton interaction

408
Q
  1. The type of interaction in the diagnostic range responsible for the radiographic contrast between soft tissue and bone is:
    a. Compton interaction
    b. Coherent scattering
    c. Pairs production
    d. Photoelectric absorption
A

d. Photoelectric absorption

409
Q
  1. At photon energies above 1.02 MeV, the creation of a negatron and a positron may occur in an event termed:
    a. Photodisintegration
    b. Pairs production
    c. Annihilation reaction
    d. Van de Graff production
A

b. Pairs production

410
Q
  1. The photoelectric interaction most commonly occurs when the incident photon strikes a/an:
    a. Inner shell electron
    b. Outer shell electron
    c. Protons
    d. Neutron
A

a. Inner shell electron

411
Q
  1. The interaction of a x-ray photon and an orbital electron, which results in partial transfer of energy is
    a. Photoelectric effect
    b. Pairs production
    c. Compton scatter
    d. Thomas scatter
A

c. Compton scatter

412
Q
  1. At 70 KeV photon strikes and inner shell electron, all of the photon energy is transferred to the electron. This describes:
    a. Coherent scattering
    b. Compton scattering
    c. Photoelectric effect
    d. Photodisintegration
A

c. Photoelectric effect

413
Q
  1. The incoming photon before any interaction with matter takes place is called the :
    a. Incident photon
    b. Scatter photon
    c. Inherent photon
    d. Recoil photon
A

a. Incident photon

414
Q
  1. Which of the following interactions contributes to image noise?
    a. Brems
    b. Characteristic
    c. Compton
    d. Photodisintegration
    e. Photoelectric effect
A

c. Compton

415
Q
  1. Compton scatter is:
    a. Independent of Z#
    b. Inversely proportional to Z#
    c. Proportional to E
    d. Proportional to Z#2
A

a. Independent of Z#

416
Q
  1. The probability that a photon will undergo attenuation :
    a. Decreases with increasing energy
    b. Increases with decreasing electron energy
    c. Increases with increasing electron energy
    d. Increase with increasing x-ray energy
A

a. Decreases with increasing energy

417
Q
  1. The photoelectric effect is principally associated with which of the following?
    a. Absorption of an x-ray
    b. Brems production
    c. Characteristic production
    d. Scattering of an x-ray
A

a. Absorption of an x-ray

418
Q
  1. During photoelectric interactions:
    a. An electron is emitted from an atom
    b. An x-ray is emitted from the atom
    c. Electron excitation results
    d. The atom is made radioactive
A

a. An electron is emitted from an atom

419
Q
  1. A 35 KeV x-ray will most likely undergo a k-shell PE interaction with which of the following?
    a. Barium, BE of 37 keV
    b. Calcium, BE of 4 keV
    c. Iodine, BE of 33 keV
    d. Tungsten, BE of 69 keV
A

c. Iodine, BE of 33 keV

420
Q
  1. The probability of the PE effect varies as what function of x-ray energy?
    a. E^-3
    b. E^-2
    c. E
    d. E^2
    e. E^3
A

a. E^-3

421
Q
  1. A 39 keV photon interacts through PE absorption with a k-shell electron having a BE of 37 keV. Therefore:
    a. The photoelectron will have 2 keV of energy
    b. The photoelectron will have 37 keV of energy
    c. The photoelectron will have 39 keV of energy
    d. The scatter x-ray will have 2 keV of energy
A

a. The photoelectron will have 2 keV of energy

422
Q
  1. Differential absorption between bone and soft tissue occurs principally for which of the following reasons?
    a. The difference in Z#
    b. The difference in mass density
    c. The polychromatic x-ray beam
    d. The monochromatic x-ray beam
A

a. The difference in Z#

423
Q

The formula for computing the generator power is:

A. voltage + current
B. voltage • current
C. voltage / current
D. (voltage / current)^-1

A

B. voltage • current

424
Q

Which of the following determines the type of element present?

Number of electrons

Number of protons

Number of neutrons

None of the above

A

Number of protons

425
Q

Which of the following particles is mostly energy with very little mass?

Electron

Proton

Neutron

None of the above

A

Electron

426
Q

Which of the following electron shells has the lowest binding energy?

K

L

M

N

A

N

427
Q

Particulate radiation includes all of the following except?

Alpha particles

Beta particles

Electrons

All of the above are particulate radiation

A

All of the above are particulate radiation

428
Q

The difference between gamma rays and x-rays are their______.

Speed

Energy

Mass

Origin

A

Origin

429
Q

The total amount of background radiation received in the US is ______mSv.

  1. 5
  2. 0
  3. 5
  4. 0
A

6.0

430
Q

Which of the following measures ionizations in air?

R

Air KERMA

Rad

Rem

A

R

431
Q

A Gray measures which of the following?

Energy released in air

Absorbed dose

Effective dose

Equivalent dose

A

Absorbed dose

432
Q

The best (most comprehensive information) descriptor of dose to a patient is the ______.

Absorbed dose

Effective dose

Equivalent dose

Integral dose

A

Effective dose

433
Q

In the diagnostic imaging energy range, we are most concerned with ______ effects of radiation.

Stochastic

Deterministic

Threshold related injuries

None of the above

A

Stochastic

434
Q

Cardinal rules of radiation protection include all of the following except?

Limiting views

Shielding

Distance

Time

A

Limiting views

435
Q

Technologist in the US may receive up to _____ effective dose in a calendar year.

5 Sv

5 rem

5 Gy

5 rad

A

5 rem

436
Q

All electromagnetic radiation travels at a constant _______.

Frequency

Wavelength

Velocity

Hertz

A

Velocity

437
Q

As the frequency of x-ray increases, the wavelengths will _______ proportionally.

Increase

Decrease

Remain the same

A

Decrease

438
Q

TRUE/FALSE

As the frequency of an electromagnetic wave increases, it will act more like a particle than a wave.

A

TRUE

439
Q

At a distance of 100cm the intensity of radiation is 25 R, if the distance is decreased to 75 cm what will the intensity of radiation be, all other factors held constant?

  1. 017 R
  2. 75 R
  3. 3 R
  4. 4 R
A

44.4 R

440
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Like charges repel and unlike charges attract.

A

TRUE

441
Q

The law of electrostatics states that only _____ charges move along a solid conductor.

Positive

Neutral

Negative

None of the above

A

Negative

442
Q

Methods of electrification include all of the following except?

Contact

Friction

Convection

Induction

A

Convection

443
Q

In electric circuits, the quantity of electrons flowing is measured in ______ and the force at which they flow is measured in ______.

mA, kVp

mA, watt

watt, keV

mA, keV

A

mA, keV

444
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Materials that are easily magnetized generally have poor retentivity.

A

TRUE

445
Q

Which of the following materials would be prohibited from entering an MRI suite?

Ferromagnetic

Diamagnetic

Paramagnetic

None of the above

A

Ferromagnetic

446
Q

TRUE/FLASE

Charged particles in motion create and opposing magnetic field, this theory is the basis for transformer function.

A

TRUE

447
Q

The theory of mutual induction used in transformers relies on what type of power to create current flow in the secondary coil?

DC

AC

120 hz

120 watt

A

AC

448
Q

A transformer with more coils in the secondary would be identified as a _________ transformer.

Filament

Step up

Step down

None of the above

A

Step up

449
Q

The incoming line contains 120 V and 5 A of power, a transformer with a 100:1 turns ration will produce a secondary voltage of ________.

  1. 05 A
  2. 2 V

120 V

12000V

A

12000V

450
Q

Which component in the x-ray circuit acts as a gatekeeper and only allows exposure to occur when incoming power is at the correct level?

mA meter

kV meter

rectifiers

line compensation

A

line compensation

451
Q

Which of the following components of the x-ray circuit can function as a step up and step sown transformer?

Hi voltage transformer

Filament transformer

Manual transformer

Auto transformer

A

Auto transformer

452
Q

The high voltage generator is composed of all of the following except_______.

High voltage transformer

Filament transformer

X-ray tube

Rectifiers

A

X-ray tube

453
Q

The filament transformer must supply ____ Amperes for thermionic emission to occur.

1

2

4

None of the above

A

4

454
Q

A single phase half wave rectified generator would produce ________.

1 % voltage ripple

2 pulses per cycle

A HU constant of 1.35

60 pulses per second

A

60 pulses per second

455
Q

Which of the following is the most efficient generator?

Single phase half wave

Single phase full wave

3 phase 12 pulse

3 phase 6 pulse

A

3 phase 12 pulse

456
Q

The best (shortest time possible) timer is the ______.

Electronic

Mechanical

Synchronous

mAs timer

A

Electronic

457
Q

AEC will ensure the ___________ to get the best image quality.

Appropriate mA

Correct level of exposure

Appropriate kVp

All of the above

A

Correct level of exposure

458
Q

Which of the following tube materials do we prefer due to the ability to ground it, thus reducing failures and increasing tube life.

Glass

Ceramic

Metal

None of the above

A

Metal

459
Q

The focusing cup has a highly _______ charge during thermionic emission.

Positive

Negative

Neutral

A

Negative

460
Q

The use of a small filament with a small focal spot will provide great detail, it is limited to ~ _____mA station.

50

100

300

400

A

300

461
Q

The focal track in the anode is made of which of the following materials in diagnostic radiology?

Molybdenum

Rhenium

Rhodium

Tungsten

A

Tungsten

462
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The main reason for a rotating anode vs. a stationary anode is increased heat capacity and dissipation.

A

TRUE

463
Q

A tube with a 7degree target angle will have a ________ effective focal spot when compared with a tube having a 15 degree target angle, both having the same size actual focal spot.

Larger

Same size

Smaller

A

Smaller

464
Q

When using anode heel effect to our advantage in imaging, one would place the cathode end of the tube over the _______ part of the patient.

Thinner

Less dense

Thicker

Has no effect

A

Thicker

465
Q

Which of the following tube failures will occur, under normal use?

Pitting

Rotor imbalance

Cracking

Vaporization

A

Vaporization

466
Q

A 3 phase 6 pulse unit using 100 kVp @ 20 mAs will create ______HU.

2000

2700

2820

12000

A

2700

467
Q

In the diagnostic energy range _____ % of the kinetic energy used in production creates heat.

1

50

85

99

A

99

468
Q

As the kVp is increased, the efficiency of production ______.

Increases

Decreases

Stays the same

A

Increases

469
Q

Useful characteristic x-rays result from the ______ shell.

Inner shell

Outer shell

Either

Does not involve a shell

A

Inner shell

470
Q

An incident electron has 71 keV of energy; it displaces an orbital electron with a binding energy of 50 keV. The vacancy is filled with an electron from a shell having a binding energy of 10 kev, what amount of energy (keV) does the displaced electron leave the atom with?

11

21

40

61

A

21

471
Q

When 80 kVp is selected at the control panel, the majority of the resulting beam will be made of ______ radiation.

Characteristic

Bremsstrahlung

Neither

A

Bremsstrahlung

472
Q

An incident electron enters the atom at the outer most shell. A small amount of attraction is realized between the incident electron and the nucleus. The resulting x-ray would have a relative energy that is_______.

High

Low

Not enough information to answer

A

Low

473
Q

When the kVp is set at 100, the average energy for that beam is about ______.

20

40

75

90

A

40

474
Q

In image A, what technical factor changed, thus changing the shape of the emission spectrum.

kVp

filtration

mAs

target material

A

mAs

475
Q

Attenuation consists of all of the following except

PE absorption

Coherent scatter

Compton scatter

Transmission

A

Transmission

476
Q

A material has a k shell binding energy of 42 keV. Which of the following photons would most likely be absorbed?

20 keV

40 keV

44 keV

60 keV

A

44 keV

477
Q

Secondary radiation is the result of a characteristic production in the patient, resulting from a _____ interaction.

PE absorption

Coherent scatter

Compton scatter

Pairs production

A

PE absorption

478
Q

Increasing the Z# of a material by a factor of 3, will increase PE absorption by _____.

3

9

27

None of the above

A

27

479
Q

Coherent scattering involves __________.

Inner shell electrons

Outer shell electrons

The whole atom

The nucleus

A

The whole atom

Outer shell electrons partial credit

480
Q

Pairs production requires which of the following energy levels?

  1. 51 MeV
  2. 02 MeV

10 Mev

None of the above

A

1.02 MeV

481
Q

Which of the following interactions involves an outer shell electron?

PE absorption

Pairs production

Coherent scatter

Compton scatter

A

Compton scatter

Coherent scatter partial credit

482
Q

TRUE/FALSE

As the kVp increases the overall attenuation in the beam increases.

A

FALSE

483
Q

As kVp increases the percentage of the beam attenuated through _________ increases.

PE absorption

Coherent scatter

Compton scatter

None of the above

A

Compton scatter

484
Q

Compton’s scatter causes a _______ in image contrast.

Increase

Decrease

No change

A

Decrease

485
Q

When imaging a high Z# material with a low kVp, which interaction will predominate?

PE absorption

Compton’s scatter

Coherent scatter

Photodisintegration

A

PE absorption

486
Q

Scintillators absorb______ and release _______.

Light, x ray

Light, light

X ray, xray

X ray, light

A

X ray, light

487
Q

The use of scintillators decreases all of the following except_______.

Patient dose

kVp required

mAs required

detail

A

kVp required

488
Q

All of the following are used currently as capture elements, except?

Gadolinium

Barium

Cesium Iodide

Calcium Tungstate

A

Calcium Tungstate

489
Q

Capture elements that emit light while being stimulated and after are termed_____(be specific).

Fluorescent

Phosphorescent

Luminescent

None of the above

A

Phosphorescent

490
Q

The greater the screen speed, the ____ the detail .

better

worse

no change in

A

worse

491
Q

When using a screen with a high Conversion Efficiency (CE), which of the following will most likely result?

Over exposure

Over penetration

Improved contrast

Noise

A

Over exposure

492
Q

Which of the following describes the percentage of x-rays absorbed by a screen?

CE

DQE

IF

Speed

A

DQE

493
Q

The back cover of a scintillators is most likely what type of material?

Low Z#

Radiolucent

High Z#

None of the above

A

High Z#

494
Q

A wide exposure latitude would result in an image described as _______.

Having high contrast

Having a short scale of contrast

Having low contrast

None of the above

A

Having low contrast

495
Q

An isotope of boron has 5 protons and 6 neutrons. The atomic number of boron is

11

10

6

5

A

5

496
Q

If an electron is gained or lost from an atom, that atom becomes

an ion

a new element

an isotope

unstable

A

an ion

497
Q

Electric insulators

convert electrical energy into heat

consist of materials like silicon

inhibit movement of electrical charge

permit movement of electrical charge

A

inhibit movement of electrical charge

498
Q

The electrons in an electrical current

all have the same velocity

flow from one end of the circuit to another

have a net motion in the direction opposite to the conventional current flow

none of the above

A

have a net motion in the direction opposite to the conventional current flow

499
Q

An induced current in a wire loop

results from a constant magnetic flux

can result only from an alternatively expanding and contracting magnetic field

is in such a direction that its effects oppose the change producing the current

always decreases when the magnetic flux decreases

A

can result only from an alternatively expanding and contracting magnetic field

500
Q

American generators operate at

220 V

120 AC

60 Hz

30 A

A

60 Hz

501
Q

Backup time

cannot exceed the tube limit

is not needed for three-phase generators

should be set at 150 percent of expected manual mAs

both a and c

A

both a and c

502
Q

The incoming line current in modern high cpacity x-ray units is supplied

in the form of a three-phase power cycle

in the form of a single-phase power cycle

as a direct current

at approximately 60 volts

A

in the form of a three-phase power cycle

503
Q

Driving the thermionic cloud from the cathode to the anode requires

a large potential difference

a small voltage

a large amperage

a small amperage

A

a large potential difference

504
Q

The focusing cup has a/an ___ charge.

neutral

atomic

positive

negative

A

negative

505
Q

The only portion of the anode assembly placed outside the vacuum of the envelope is the

stator

rotor

rotating disc

molybdenum neck

A

stator

506
Q

The types of target interaction that occur in the production of diagnostic-range x-ray photons are dependent upon

electron kinetic energy

nuclear binding energy

electron potential energy

both a and b

A

both a and b

507
Q

The quantity of x-rays or gamma rays required to produce a given amount of ionization in a unit mass of air defines the

kerma

gray

roentgen

curie

A

roentgen

508
Q

The annual effective dose limit for an occupational exposure to ionizing radiation is ___ rem.

1

0.1

5

0.5

A

5

509
Q

Which atomic shell possesses the highest binding energy?

K

L

M

all atomic shells possess the same binding energy

A

K

510
Q

During the photoelectric interaction, as an electron transfers from an outer shell to a vacant inner shell, energy is released in the form of

a characteristic photon

a primary radiation

an incident electron

an incident photon

A

a characteristic photon

511
Q

The radiation intensity from a diagnostic x-ray unit will vary in a/an

square of the kVp

inverse relationship with the

square of the distance

all of the above

A

all of the above

512
Q

The speed of an imaging system depends on the

thickness of the phosphor or silver halide layer

crystal/phosphor size

efficiency of the crystal/phosphor

all of the above

A

all of the above

513
Q

The line focus prinicple allows for a large _______ for maximum heat load and a small ________ for increaed detail in an image.

effective, actual

estimated, actual

actual, estimated

actual, effective

A

actual, effective

514
Q

Photoelectric interactions are __________ related to the Energy of the beam

inversely

directly

inversely cubed

directly cubed

A

inversely cubed

515
Q

Which of the following is placed between

grid

cone

collimator

cylinder

A

grid

516
Q

The ratio of the height of the lead strips to the distance between the lead strips is the grid

pattern

ratio

frequency

speed

A

ratio

517
Q

The density maintenance formula is a

reciprocity law

inverse square law

direct square law

15 percent rule

A

direct square law

518
Q

As patient size increases a ______ in mAs is required for every 4cm increase in patient thickness.

halving

doubling

quadrupling

none of the above

A

doubling

519
Q

Angulation across the long axis of a linear grid causes

grid shadow

cross-hatched impressions

grid cut-off

grid convergence

A

grid cut-off

520
Q

Common mA stations found on dedicated tomographic machines may include each of the following except

10

30

40

100

A

100

521
Q

A grid absorbs

light

incident electrons

scatter electrons

scatter radiation

A

scatter radiation

522
Q

An asthenic patient may require _______mAs and _______kVp compared to the sthenic patient.

decrease in, increase in

increase in, no change

decrease in, decrease in

no change in, decrease in

A

decrease in, decrease in

523
Q

Each of the following is considered a beam-restricting device except the

aperture diaphragm

cone

grid

collimator

A

grid

524
Q

As a general rule, a grid is employed when the kVp exceeds

10

70

100

200

A

70

525
Q

The tomographic ___ is the total distance traveled by the tube

arc

fulcrum

blur

thickness

A

arc

526
Q

The exposure time must match the

fulcrum height

section thickness

length of time required for the x-ray tube to complete the tomographic amplitude

none of the above

A

length of time required for the x-ray tube to complete the tomographic amplitude

527
Q

A factor that affects the amount of scatter produced is

kilovoltage

milliamperage

time

anode composition

A

kilovoltage

528
Q

Photons that pass through the body unaffected produce

scatter radiation

radiographic contrast

secondary radiation

radiographic distortion

A

radiographic contrast

529
Q

Which grid would have the greatest distance between lead strips?

15: 1
12: 1
8: 1
6: 1

A

6:1

530
Q

As the volume of irradiated tissue ___, the amount of scatter ___.

increases, increases

increases, decreases

decreases, increases

no effect

A

increases, increases

531
Q

When imaging a barium filled stomach, which of the following kVp selections is most appropriate when a standard abdomen requires 75kVp for good image quality.

110

90

75

55

A

110

532
Q

The prime factors include each of the following except

filtration

mAs

kVp

distance

A

filtration

533
Q

A variable kVp chart increases by 2 kVp for every ____cm of tissue.

4

3

2

1

A

1

534
Q

The greatest source of scatter during a radiographic examination is the

patient

tube

image receptor

grid

A

patient

535
Q

Milliamperage-second directly affects each of the following except

quantity

intensity

quality

x-ray output

A

quality

536
Q

The object to be examined is placed at the

tomographic arc

fulcrum

exposure arc

image receptor level

A

fulcrum

537
Q

The purpose of moving the grid is to blur the

unwanted density

unwanted contrast

motion

radiopaque strips

A

radiopaque strips

538
Q

If kVp is doubled, the amount of x-ray photons approximately

doubles

triples

increases fourfold

decreases

A

increases fourfold

539
Q

As a general rule, a grid is employed when the body part thickness exceeds ___ cm.

1

10

100

1,000

A

10

540
Q

A high quality radiograph should always demonstrate ___.

high optical density ( O.D of 3.5 +)

high contrast

minimum magnification

all of the above

A

minimum magnification

541
Q

Spatial resolution improves with decreased ___ blur.

scintilator

motion

geometric

all of the above

A

all of the above

542
Q

___ is defined as the ability to image two separate objects and visually detect one from the other.

contrast resolution

spatial resolution

distortion

noise

A

spatial resolution

543
Q

Radiographic ___ is random fluctuation in the optical density of a radiograph.

detail

contrast

noise

resolution

A

noise

544
Q

An image can show objects as small at 0.5mm, the resolution would be expressed as _______.

MFT of 0.5

5 lp/mm

1lp/mm

MTF 0.1

A

1lp/mm

545
Q

What is the formula for the magnification factor?

MF = SID/SOD

MF = SOD/SID

MF = (SID/SOD)^2

MF = SID^2/SOD

A

MF = SID/SOD

546
Q

The three primary geometric factors affecting image quality are ___.

distortion, subject contrast, and mAs

patient thickness, distortion, and magnification

magnification, distortion, and focal spot blur

kVp, focal spot blur, and contast

A

magnification, distortion, and focal spot blur

547
Q

Large objects with large interspaces are described as__________.

having high spatial frequency

having low spatial frequency

a low MTF

a high ESF

A

having low spatial frequency

548
Q

Focal spot blur can be reduced by using ___.

a small focal spot

a shorter SID

a larger OID

all of the above

A

a small focal spot

549
Q

The best way to minimize magnification is to use a ___.

long SID

small OID

large OID

both A and B

A

both A and B

550
Q

Distortion can be reduced by ___.

placing the object plane obliquely to the image plane

placing the object plane parallel to the image plane

directing the central ray 15o from the object plane

increasing the SID and the OID

A

placing the object plane obliquely to the image plane

551
Q

Patient thickness affects image quality by affecting ___.

magnification

radiographic constrast

focal spot blur

all of the above

A

all of the above

552
Q

An image was taken with the following technical factors

SID 100 cm, SOD 80 cm and an EFSS 0f 0.7

What is the focal spot blur in the image?

  1. 175 mm
  2. 875 mm
  3. 8mm
  4. 5mm
A

0.175 mm

553
Q

When reducing the field of view from 14 x 17 in to 10 x 12 in a decrease in scatter is realized. Which of the following factors should be increased to maintain IR exposure or image density?

SID

kVp

mAs

any of the above would be appropriate

A

mAs

554
Q

The small focal spot will provide a ___.

I. higher quality x-rays beam

II. greater quantity of x-rays

III. finer detail of image

Selected Answer:	
Correct 
III only
Answers:	
I only
I & III
 Correct 
III only
I, II & III
The small focal spot will provide a \_\_\_.

I. higher quality x-rays beam

II. greater quantity of x-rays

III. finer detail of image

I only

I & III

III only

I, II & III

A

III only

555
Q

An average patient is imaged at 70 kVp 40 mAs for a lumbar spine exam. patient measureing 15 cm larger than average would require which of the following?

320 mAs

160 mAs

80 mAs

80 kVp

A

320 mAs

556
Q

Patient or part thickness has a direct effect on scatter in the resulting image. Which of the following parts would produce the most scatter?

wrist

foot

elbow

Femur

A

Femur

557
Q

Which type of collimation (beam restrictor) reduces the blur seen in an image?

cone

cylinder

aperture diaphragm

variable collimators

A

cylinder

558
Q

Subject contrast is affected by ___.

mA

focal spot size

patient thickness

time

A

patient thickness

559
Q

The technologist primarily controls radiographic contrast by varying the ___.

image receptor

kilovoltage

voltage ripple

milliamperage

A

kilovoltage

560
Q

Which kVp selection would result in the most scattered x-rays in the image-forming beam?

90 kVp

75 kVp

60 kVp

50 kVp

A

90 kVp

561
Q

The three primary factors influencing the intensity of scatter in the exit beam are ___.

mAs, kVp, and collimation

mAs, filtration, and grids

kVp, field size, and patient thickness

filtration, patient thickeness, and mAs

A

kVp, field size, and patient thickness

562
Q

The x-rays that are transmitted through the patient without interaction contribute to ___.

useful information

film fog

image noise

all of the above

A

useful information

563
Q

The most commonly used beam restricting device is the ___.

extension cone

variable collimator

aperture diaphragm

compression device

A

variable collimator

564
Q

The use of a compression device will increase ___.

film fog

patient dose

contrast

scatter

A

contrast

565
Q

The use of ___ improves contrast and reduces patient dose, while maintaining image density..

collimation

high kVp

low kVp

less filtration

A

collimation

566
Q

The positive beam limiting device (PBL) assures that the x-ray beam is collimated to ___.

the exact part size

2 cm inside image receptor size

the image receptor size

2 cm outside image receptor size

A

the image receptor size

567
Q

Beam restriction with a(n) ___ is only accurate at a fixed SID.

aperture diaphragm

grid

collimator

PBL device

A

aperture diaphragm

568
Q

Patient thickness should be measured with the ___ in a variable kVp chart.

caliper

eyes

hands

SID tape

A

caliper

569
Q

In a fixed kVp system, a _______kVp and ____mAs are used compared to a variable kVp system.

lower , the same

lower, higher

higher, no change

higher, lower

A

higher, lower

570
Q

In a variable kVp technique chart, the optimal mAs is set for each body part and there is a ___ kVp increase for each cm of thickness.

6

4

2

1

A

2

571
Q

How can you improve image contrast with a heavy patient without increasing patient dose?

lower kVp and raise mAs

use tight collimation

raise kVp and lower mAs

do both A and B

A

use tight collimation

572
Q

Decreasing the kVp while holding mAs constant will increase ___.

patient dose

image noise

Compton scatter

optical density

A

image noise

573
Q

What are the four primary exposure factors?

kVp, mAs, filtration, and voltage ripple

mA, time, distance, and filtration

kVp, mA, time, and SID

mA, time, kVp controls, and focal spot size

A

kVp, mA, time, and SID

574
Q

Optical density is primarily controlled by changing the ___.

kVp

mAs

film

SID

A

mAs

575
Q

Changes in kVp affect ___.

optical density

image contrast

image noise

all of the above

A

all of the above

576
Q

An increase in mAs causes ___ in beam quality and ___ in beam quantity.

an increase, a decrease

an increase, no change

an increase, an increase

no change, an increase

A

no change, an increase

577
Q

There is a direct relationship between the quantity of x-rays and the ___.

milliamperage

kilovolt peak

filter thickness

voltage ripple

A

milliamperage

578
Q

If mAs is increased from 20 mAs to 40 mAs, the patient exposure will ____.

not be affected

increase slightly

be halved

be doubled

A

be doubled

579
Q

Beam penetrability is increased if ___ is/are increased.

mAs

SID

kVp

all of the above

A

kVp

580
Q

A ___% increases in kVp has the same effect on optical density as doubling the mAs.

5

15

30

50

A

15

581
Q

Which medical condition may require a lower technique?

atelectasis

emphysema

pneumonia

pleural effusion

A

emphysema

582
Q

A radiograph is taken using 75 kVp @ 20 mAs. Which change in technique would increase contrast but maintain the same density?

85 kVp @ 10 mAs

85 kVp @ 40 mAs

65 kVp @ 20 mAs

65 kVp @ 40 mAs

A

65 kVp @ 40 mAs

583
Q

A radiograph taken using 65 kVp @ 10 mAs is too light. Which technique would double the optical density while producing a wider scale of contrast?

75 kVp @ 10 mAs

75 kVp @ 20 mAs

55 kVp @ 20 mAs

55 kVp @ 40 mAs

A

75 kVp @ 10 mAs

584
Q

When only the optical density needs to be changed, only the ___ should be adjusted.

mAs

kVp

SID

filtration

A

mAs

585
Q

If the distance from the source to the image (SID) is reduced by half, how is the x-ray intensity at the image affected?

it is increased 4 times

it is doubled

it is reduced by 1/2

it is reduced by 1/4

A

it is increased 4 times

586
Q

A 10% increase in kVp has ___ effect on x-ray intensity than/as a 10% increase in mAs.

the same

much greater

less

much less

A

much greater

587
Q

X-ray intensity is proportional to ___.

distance

kVp

kVp^2

filtration

A

kVp^2

588
Q

Beam quality is affected by ___.

mAs and distance

kVp and mAs

kVp and filtration

filtration and mAs

A

kVp and filtration

589
Q

Image density is affected by ___.

SID

mAs

tube angle

both A and B

A

both A and B

590
Q

An image was taken with the following technical factors

75 kVp, 100mAs, 40”SID 16:1 Grid (GCF 5)

The image will be repeated with an 8:1 grid, (GCF 3.5), to maintain image density, what is the correct mAS?

117

70

145

not enough information to answer

A

70

591
Q

The distance at which a focused grid can be used is directly related to the :

grid ratio

grid frequency

convergence line

interspacing material

A

convergence line

592
Q

The interspace material used in grids is said to be_______?

radiopaque

radiolucent

highly attenuating

none of the above

A

radiolucent

593
Q

If the grid ratio is increased, and no technical factors are changed, the radiograph would show an increase in:

contrast

optical density

distortion

magnification

A

contrast

594
Q

Which of the following grids would be best used for portable imaging?

focused 16:1

focused 10:1

parallel, 10:1

parallel, 16:1

A

parallel, 10:1

595
Q

During tomography, all tissues _______ the focal plane will show a marked degree of blurring.

above

below

neither above or below

both above and below

A

both above and below

596
Q

Tomography requires__________.

short exposure times

long exposure times

very high mA stations

very high kVp

A

long exposure times

597
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The greater the tomographic arc, the thicker the slice.

A

FALSE

598
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Trispiral is the greatest tube movement and results in the thinnest slice thickness.

A

FALSE

hypocycloidal

599
Q

Using a typical fluoroscopy system (tube below table) a shield should be placed ___ the patient.

underneath

over

shielding is not needed in fluoroscopy

A

underneath

600
Q

The number of fields per frame is ___ and the number of fields per second is _____

2, 30

1, 30

1, 60

2, 60

A

2, 60

601
Q

Total brightness gain is

a measure of the increase in image intensity

determined by minification gain

determined by flux gain

all of the above

A

all of the above

602
Q

Electrostatic lenses are used to accelerate and focus

light photons

x-ray photons

electrons

none of the above

A

electrons

603
Q

The photocathode absorbs ___ and emits ___.

x-ray photons, light photons

light photons, electrons

light photons, x-ray photons

electrons, light photons

A

light photons, electrons

604
Q

During fluoroscopic image intensification, the primary x-ray beam exits the patient and strikes the ___ of the image intensifier.

input screen

electrostatic lenses

photocathode

output screen

A

input screen

605
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Conventional fluoroscopic systems work on a progressive scan pattern in the CRT monitor.

A

FALSE

606
Q

What two tubes must be synchronized for fluoroscopic image production?

II and CRT

II and TV camera tube

TV camera tube and CRT

II and photospot

A

TV camera tube and CRT

607
Q

Fluoroscopic mA range is commonly ___ mA.

  1. 5 to 5.0
  2. 0 to 10.0
  3. 0 to 100

100 to 500

A

0.5 to 5.0

608
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Magnification with an Image Intensifier results in a decrease in flux gain, and a dimmer image, all other factors held constant.

A

FALSE

609
Q

The shape of the input screen helps to control

distortion

OID

SOD

IOD

A

distortion

610
Q

Which of the following artifacts are seen in fluorocopy due to light scattering within the II.

pincushion distortion

barrel distrotion

vignetting

veiling glare

A

veiling glare

611
Q

The greater the voltage supplied to the electrostatic lenses, the ___ the acceleration and the ___ the focal point to the input screen (magnification mode) .

greater, farther

greater, closer

lesser, smaller

greater, larger

A

greater, closer

612
Q

TRUE/FALSE

CRT monitors have a higher image resolution compared tot he Image intensifier output phosphor.

A

FALSE

613
Q

The output screen absorbs ___ and emits ___.

electrons, light photons

electrons, x-ray photons

light photons, electrons

light photons, x-ray photons

A

electrons, light photons

614
Q

Digital fluoroscopy uses which of the following techniques that are not used in traditional fluroscopy?

pulsed x-ray beam

1000:1 SNR

progressive scanning of TV camera tube and CRT

all of the above

none of the above

A

all of the above

615
Q

Fluoroscopic resolution will vary according to

minification gain

electrostatic focal point

input and output screen diameter

all of the above

A

all of the above

616
Q

The most commonly used fluoroscopic viewing system is

cine

real-time video

70 mm spot-film roll

none of the above

A

real-time video

617
Q

Traditional fluoroscopy has a signal to noise ratio about _______.

1000: 1
1: 1000
200: 1
1: 200

A

200:1

618
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The target is the photoconductive layer of the TV camera tube.

A

TRUE

619
Q

Modern day computers use ___ to process information.

transistors

micro processors

array processors

macro processors

A

array processors

620
Q

Computer hardware includes the ___.

keyboard

central processing unit

motherboard

all of the above

A

all of the above

621
Q

A tape, diskette, hard disk or optical disk is used to ___.

archive files

process data

convert data

perform calculations

A

archive files

622
Q

The ___ represents zero or one.

byte

bit

gigabyte

terabyte

A

bit

623
Q

MAC-OS, Windows, and Unix are three different ___ systems.

hardware

printer

operating

output

A

operating

624
Q

All of the below are examples of a type of computer storage except:

microprocessor

solid state drive

hard disk drive

flash drive

A

microprocessor

625
Q

What is the form of radiology that allows for the transfer of images to remote sites for interpretation.

neuroradiology

interventional radiology

long distance radiology

teleradiology

A

teleradiology

626
Q

The __________ controls receipt and retrieval of images and ______ actually stores them.

Image manager, Archive server

Archive server, Image manager

Image manager/ web based system

Archive server, client server system

A

Image manager, Archive server

627
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Computed radiography cassettes may be used with the same equipment as film/screen cassettes, with minor modification to techniques.

A

TRUE

628
Q

A photostimulable phosphor in a metastable state will emit light ___.

I. immediately

II. when stimulated by light

III. over time

I

II

II & III

I, II & III

A

I, II & III

629
Q

Europium is the ___ of the photostimulable phosphor.

image buffer

scintillator

phosphor

activator

A

activator

630
Q

The photostimulable phosphor screen is handled in a ___.

reader

darkroom

film processor

film changer

A

reader

631
Q

The computed radiography reader is made up of ___, ___, and ___ modules.

I. mechanical

II. chemical

III. optical

IV. computer

I, II, III

II, III, IV

I, III, IV

I, II, IV

A

I, III, IV

632
Q

The four steps of creating an image with computed radiography are ___.

metastable state, stimulate, read, and erase

erase, stimulate, metastable state, and read

read, erase, stimulate, and metastable state

metastable state, read, erase, and stimulate

A

metastable state, stimulate, read, and erase

633
Q

Following the laser stimulation of the photostimulable phosphor, the excited electrons are ___.

completely (100%) stabilized

mostly (99%) stabilized

still excited

completely removed

A

mostly (99%) stabilized

634
Q

The laser is one of the ___ features of the computed radiography reader.

computer

chemical

mechanical

optical

A

optical

635
Q

Optical filters are used to filter out the ___ light and allow the ___ light to reach the photodetector.

stimulating, emitted

emitted, stimulated

emitted, monochromatic

stimulating, monochromatic

A

stimulating, emitted

636
Q

The output signal from the photostimulable phosphor plate is converted from analog to digital by the ___.

optical system

computer controls

photodiode

drive mechanism

A

photodiode

637
Q

Computed radiography and screen-film imaging both have a(n) ___.

image receptor response function

characteristic curve

digital image

latent image

A

latent image

638
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Spatial resolution, contrast resolution, noise, and artifacts are identical in screen-film imaging and computed radiography.

A

FALSE

639
Q

The principal source of reduced contrast resolution in computed radiography is ___.

scatter radiation

background radiation

computer noise

phosphor scatter

A

scatter radiation

640
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The 800 speed film-screen systems are faster than computed radiography image receptors.

A

TRUE

641
Q

With computed radiography the contrast is ___.

controlled by kVp

controlled by mAs

constant(LINEAR) regardless of radiation exposure

impossible to change

A

constant(LINEAR) regardless of radiation exposure

642
Q

The computed radiography image has ___.

narrow exposure latitude

wide exposure latitude

improved contrast resolution

both B and C

A

both B and C

643
Q

The laser beam must be less than 100 nm in diameter in order to maintain ___.

consistent beam shape

smooth image edges

high spatial resolution

high speed

A

high spatial resolution

644
Q

___ is prevented by flooding the imaging plate with bright light after reading.

image fog

noise

overexposure

ghosting

A

ghosting

645
Q

Fluoroscopy was developed so that radiologists could view ___ images.

static

dynamic

magnified

darkened

A

dynamic

646
Q

What is the milliamperage used during fluoroscopy?

≤100 mA

≤50 mA

≤5 mA

≤1 mA

A

≤5 mA

647
Q

X-rays that exit the patient and enter the image intensifier first interact with the ___.

output phosphor

input phosphor

photocathode

anode

A

input phosphor

648
Q

The output phosphor of the image intensifier is composed of ___.

cesium iodide

antimony

zinc cadmium sulfide

graphite

A

zinc cadmium sulfide

649
Q

The input phosphor converts ___ to ___.

x-rays, electrons

light, electrons

electrons, light

x-rays, light

A

x-rays, light

650
Q

The ___ in the image intensifier emits electrons when it is stimulated by light photons.

input phosphor

output phosphor

photocathode

electron gun

A

photocathode

651
Q

The number of light photons emitted within the image intensifier is ___ to the amount of x-ray photons exiting the patient.

equal

unrelated

inversely proportional

directly proportional

A

directly proportional

652
Q

The kinetic energy of photoelectrons in the image intensifier is greatly increased by the ___.

mAs of the exposure

potential difference across the tube

cesium iodide at the input phosphor

zinc cadmium sulfide at the output phosphor

A

potential difference across the tube

653
Q

Electrons hit the ___ after exiting the anode (fluoro).

output phosphor

tube housing

photocathode

focusing lenses

A

output phosphor

654
Q

The ___ is the product of the minification gain and the flux gain.

horizontal resolution

brightness gain

contrast resolution

flux gain

A

brightness gain

655
Q

The ratiio of x-rays incident on the input phosphor to light photons exiting the output phosphor is called ___ gain.

magnification

minification

brightness

flux

A

flux

656
Q

An image intensifier tube is identified by the diameter of its ___.

input phosphor

glass housing

output phosphor

focusing lenses

A

input phosphor

657
Q

Viewing the fluoroscopic image in magnification mode increases ___.

contrast resolution

spatial resolution

Entrance skin exposure

all of the above

A

all of the above

658
Q

Automatic brightness control (ABC) maintains the brightness of the image by varying ___.

monitor settings

kVp and mA

monitor bandwidth

all of the above

A

kVp and mA

659
Q

Digital fluoroscopy with a charge-coupled device has lower ___ and higher ___ than conventional fluoroscopy.

light sensitivity, patient dose

patient dose, light sensitivity

detective quantum efficiency, maintenance

signal-to-noise ratio, patient dose

A

patient dose, light sensitivity

660
Q

Energy subtraction technique takes advantage of the difference in ___ during contrast injection.

tissue density

K-edge absorption

Compton scatter

patient thickness

A

K-edge absorption

661
Q

Remasking due to a misregistration error s the result of ___.

noise artifacts

motion artifacts

technical factors

any of the above

A

motion artifacts

662
Q

TRUE/FLASE

Digital fluoroscopic dose rate is lower than that for continuous analog fluoroscopy

A

TRUE

663
Q

Conventional fluoroscopy creates images in using which of the following conditions?

progressive mode, 200:1 SNR

interlaced mode, 200:1 SNR

progressive mode 1000:1 SNR

interlaced mode, 1000:1 SNR

A

interlaced mode, 200:1 SNR

664
Q

Which of the following languages is used for the image data, providing seemless transfer between types of equipment?

HL-7

DICOM

UNIX

DOS

A

DICOM

665
Q

Which of the following PACS architectures is not network dependent?

Web based

Client/Server based

Distributed system

all of the above are network dependent

A

Distributed system

666
Q

As the display field of view is increased in size, spatial resolution (sharpness) in the image:

increases

decreases

is unaffected

A

decreases

667
Q

In a 12-bit analog-to-digital converter, each pixel will have how many possible values:

256

512

1024

4096

A

4096

668
Q

Mottle is likely to appear in the computerized image any time the:

brightness is low

contrast is low

exposure indicator is low in a postive system

density is low

A

exposure indicator is low in a postive system

669
Q

Which of the following types of DR uses a fan beam and a detector array?

a- Si indirect

a-Se direct

CCD

SPR

A

SPR

670
Q

TRUE/FALSE

An indirect DR system with CsI is preferred over GdOS, due to its better spatial resolution from needle like phosphor crystals.

A

TRUE

671
Q

Which of the following DR systems has the best spatial resolution?

CsI with a-Si

GdOS with a-Si

a-Se

CsI with CCD

A

a-Se

672
Q

Which of the following choices will require the least image exposure for the same image quality/noise level.

25 % dead space

15 % dead space

5 % dead space

dead space has no effect on exposure factors

A

5 % dead space

673
Q

Which of the following corrects for pixels that are not responding?

lag correction

Noise correction

Gain images

interpolation

A

interpolation

674
Q

TRUE/FALSE

A radiography exam has a 1500 x 1200 matrix, and a 1 Byte grayscale. The image will require 1.8 MB

A

TRUE

675
Q

Which of the following is not a form of image noise:

false images

mottle

artifacts

signal

A

signal

676
Q

What size is the smallest object that can be resolved by an x-ray imaging system with a spatial frequency of 2.5 LP/mm?

.2 mm

0.4 mm

2 mm

2.5 mm

A

.2 mm

677
Q

As the line pairs of a resolution test template become smaller and thus closer together, the overlapping of their penumbra in a radiographic image causes a loss of .:

width

umbra

contrast

noise

A

contrast

678
Q

When the hardware pixels of a digital imaging system are smaller than both the object and the focal spot, what becomes the primary limiting factor for spatial resolution?

the hardware pixel size

the focal spot size

the size of the object being imaged

the subject contrast of the object being imaged

A

the focal spot size

679
Q

Which of the following is not a variable affecting image noise:

mAs

Part thickness

OID

Exposure time

A

Exposure time

680
Q

For radiography, the brightness of a particular pixel within the image matrix of a digital image is related to the:

percentage of hydrogen in the tissue

radionuclide uptake of the tissue

attenuation coefficient of the tissue

interface reflectivity of the tissue

A

attenuation coefficient of the tissue

681
Q

In a 12-bit analog-to-digital converter, each pixel will have how many possible values:

256

512

1024

4096

A

4096

682
Q

The larger the number of pixels in an image matrix, the:

greater the resolution in the image

greater the number of gray shades in the image

shorter the acquisition time

none of the above

all of the above

A

greater the resolution in the image

683
Q

The general term for making changes in the brightness and contrast of a digital image is:

automated re-scaling

image enhancement

windowing

histogram analysis

A

windowing

684
Q

The term preprocessing
is best used to describe all those computer algorithms which are designed to:

prepare the image for display according to the parameters of the human eye

refine the characteristics of the image

prepare the acquired data for entry into the computer system

correct for flaws and limitations in the image acquisition system being used

A

correct for flaws and limitations in the image acquisition system being used

685
Q

In the active matrix array of a DR receptor plate, variations in alignment for multiple electronic amplifiers and differences in resistance for varying lengths of wires coming from the hundreds of detector elements cause:

data clipping

gain offsets

pixel drop-out

light guide variations

A

gain offsets

686
Q

Which of the following flaws is unique to the CR reader or processor, (not shared by DR)?

Light guide variations

Electronic response offsets

Electronic gain offsets

The anode heel effect

A

Light guide variations

687
Q

Background exposure to a CR cassette, and small amounts of electrical current flowing through a DR detector system when no exposure is taking place, are examples of:

Mottle

The heel effect

Light noise

Dark noise

A

Dark noise

688
Q

In a digital image histogram graph, the vertical height of any data point along the plotted curve (measured against the y axis of the graph), indicates the:

pixel value (brightness)

number of pixels possessing the value

S1

image contrast

A

number of pixels possessing the value

689
Q

Which of the following systems requires the greatest amount of preprocessing functions?

direct digital radiography (DR)

computed radiography (CR)

digital fluoroscopy (DF)

conventional screen/film radiography (S/F)

A

direct digital radiography (DR)

690
Q

On an image histogram, an unusual spike to the left of the main bell-shaped lobe of the curve most likely represents:

bone disease

a large metallic object

air in the lungs

background density

A

a large metallic object

691
Q

An algorithm designed to accentuate soft tissue densities will locate the volume of interest (VOI) on the histogram:

higher

lower

farther to the left

farther to the right

A

farther to the right

692
Q

The computer distinguishes the anatomy of interest from background densities during:

automated exposure field recognition

automated rescaling

exposure

field uniformity corrections

A

automated exposure field recognition

693
Q

For a large abdomen which completely covers the image receptor plate, the expected shape of the original histogram will appear:

with no spikes, only the main lobe

with a single spike to the left of the main lobe

with a single spike to the right of the main lobe

with spikes both on the left and the right of the main lobe

A

with no spikes, only the main lobe

694
Q

Exposure field recognition is normally done as part of:

histogram analysis

rescaling

noise reduction

gradation processing

A

histogram analysis

695
Q

Many systems present the histogram with an “S”-shaped exposure response curve overlying the histogram. The steeper the slope of this curve, the:

darker the image

lighter the image

higher the image contrast

longer the image gray scale

A

higher the image contrast

696
Q

The bins of data from an acquired image to be used for rescaling are labeled as ___ values:

S

QP

I

D

A

S

697
Q

Because the range of the Q scale is far beyond the discernment of the human eye, this allows for _____ of the image:

data clipping

normalizing

windowing

noise reduction

A

windowing

698
Q

Rescaling the image is primarily a process of __________ the acquired data set:

geometrically sorting

numerically counting

algebraically re-labeling

electronically amplifying

A

algebraically re-labeling

699
Q

Histogram analysis can fail to identify key landmarks when a bizarre data set results in an unexpected ________.

Histogram shape

Histogram position

Pixel count

Volume of interest

A

Histogram shape

700
Q

All of the following are general domains in which a digital image can be processed except:

intensity

amplitude

frequency

spatial

A

amplitude

701
Q

Sorting an image by the location of its pixels results in a(n):

LUT

frequency distribution

histogram

matrix

A

matrix

702
Q

Point, area, and global operations are all subcategories within the ________ domain:

intensity

amplitude

frequency

spatial

A

spatial

703
Q

An example of an area operation would be:

a window width adjustment

darkening the image overall

translating the image left-for-right

zoom (magnification)

A

zoom (magnification)

704
Q

Whenever a displayed image is windowed, which of the following default processes is re-applied:

Band-pass filtering

Uniformity correction

Gradation processing

Dynamic range compression

A

Gradation processing

705
Q

If the dynamic range of a digital processing system is too limited, it is possible for ________ to occur when the displayed image is later windowed:

Quantum mottle

Image reversal

Data clipping

Excessive contrast

A

Data clipping

706
Q

From a selected mid-point in the various gray levels of a digital image, lighter areas in the image are progressively darkened, while darker areas are progressively lightened. This describes:

multi scale processing
normalization

dynamic range compression

rescaling of brightness

flat-field uniformity correction

A

dynamic range compression

707
Q

For the gradation processing curves developed early on by Fuji, the shape of a particular curve which a particular algebraic formula generates is represented by the parameter:

GT

GS

GA

GC

A

GT

708
Q

Noise in the image caused by electronic malfunctions is normally periodic, occurring at regular intervals across the image, (rather than random, such as quantum mottle). This periodic type of noise is best eliminated from a digital image using:

processing in the frequency domain

processing in the spatial domain

gradation processing

histogram analysis

A

processing in the frequency domain

709
Q

A smaller “core” matrix of mathematical values which is passed through the entire image matrix, multiplying the value of each image pixel sequentially by the numbers in it, is called a(n):

region of interest

look-up table

kernel

Fourier transform

A

kernel

710
Q

High-pass filtering only allows to pass through processing to the final displayed image:

high frequencies

low frequencies

high pixel values

low pixel values

A

high frequencies

711
Q

The mathematical method by which a complex wave form representing one line of a digital image can be broken down into a set of the different individual wavelengths that make it up is known as:

pyramidal decomposition

the Fourier transform

the calculus

dual-energy subtraction

A

the Fourier transform

712
Q

What “across-the-board” adjustment in radiographic techniques is recommended to allow for CR operation at the 400-speed class, reduce patient exposure, and avoid image mottle?

double all mAs values

cut all mAs values in half

increase all kVp levels by 15 per cent

reduce all kVp levels by 15 per cent

A

increase all kVp levels by 15 per cent

713
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding CR systems:

They are “mAs-driven,” adjust only the mAs

Never use less than 70 kVp

Grids cannot be used

Digital processing is able to compensate for scatter caused during the exposure

A

Digital processing is able to compensate for scatter caused during the exposure

714
Q

Which of the following statements is false:

Digital processing cannot compensate for insufficient penetration of the original
remnant x-ray beam

Digital processing cannot always compensate for very extreme (10 times) overexposure in the original remnant x-ray beam

Scatter radiation in the original remnant x-ray beam always results in a dark image after digital processing

Digital processing cannot always compensate for inadequate signal-to-noise ratio
(SNR) in the original remnant x-ray beam

A

Scatter radiation in the original remnant x-ray beam always results in a dark image after digital processing

715
Q

When exposing multiple fields on a single CR receptor plate, which of the following assists the computer in avoiding exposure field recognition errors:

keep the anatomy centered within each field

keep the fields parallel to each other

keep the fields equidistant from each other equalization

a, b & c only

A

a, b & c only

716
Q

For CR, as a rule-of-thumb, at least ___ per cent of the receptor plate must be exposed to avoid histogram errors:

25%

33%

50%

75%

A

33%

717
Q

Which of the following has the least dramatic effect on scatter radiation:

large body parts

large field sizes

grids

kVp

A

kVp

718
Q

Which of the following affects the displayed image contrast for a digital image:

windowing

gradation processing

rescaling

all of the above

A

all of the above

719
Q

The increased exposure latitude afforded by digital imaging includes all of the following options except:

Using high kVp levels

Performing more procedures non-grid

Not using compensating filters except for the most extreme cases

Using low kVp levels

A

Using low kVp levels

720
Q

When a department changes a particular room from film/screen to CR, the AEC for that x-ray unit must be recalibrated according to the:

final density of the image

final brightness of the image

exposure indicator readings

measured primary beam radiation

A

exposure indicator readings

721
Q

In the digital age, for final displayed image contrast, the kVp is best described as:

the only controlling factor

the primary controlling factor

one contributing factor among many

not related at all

A

one contributing factor among many

722
Q

For all digital imaging systems, a strict lower limit for exposure to the receptor is imposed by:

the appearance of quantum mottle

images turning out too light

the appearance of fog density

images turning out with excessive contrast

A

the appearance of quantum mottle

723
Q

Mottle is likely to appear in the computerized image any time the:

brightness is low

contrast is low

exposure indicator is low in a postive system

density is low

A

exposure indicator is low in a postive system

724
Q

Anything that can result in a histogram error can result in:

improper technique

mottle

blank image

exposure indicator error

A

exposure indicator error

725
Q

Which of the following is a possible ill effect of edge enhancement?

excessive noise

segmentation failure

saturation

excessive overall brightness

A

excessive noise

726
Q

The use of low-pass filtering (smoothing) will tend to:

increase the sharpness of the edges of the image border

improve the alignment of images during subtraction

increase the appearance of noise when excessive data is available

eliminate the appearance of high-attenuation artifacts from the image

A

eliminate the appearance of high-attenuation artifacts from the image

727
Q

Which of the following is determined by the computer by finding the mid-point between S-MIN and S-MAX in the main lobe of the generated histogram for the image?

the exposure indicator

the average gray scale

the dynamic range

the volume of interest

A

the exposure indicator

728
Q

Mottle in a CR or DR image can result from:

insufficient kVp

insufficient mAs

improperly calibrated AEC

all of the above

none of the above

A

all of the above

729
Q

For a quality digital image, the highest possible _______ should be achieved:

brightness

contrast

gray scale

signal-to-noise ratio

magnification

A

signal-to-noise ratio

730
Q

The exposure indicator is _________ related to the brightness of the image displayed on the monitor screen:

directly

inversely

exponentially

not

A

not

731
Q

For each image in the PACS, the exposure indicator is to be permanently stored as part of the DICOM:

Header

Tag

Menu

Viewer

A

Header

732
Q

The speed of a digital imaging system is _____ to the amount of exposure required to
produce adequate signal for processing:

Not related

Directly proportional

Inversely related

Exponentially related

A

Inversely related

733
Q

The only prominent disadvantage of the liquid crystal diode (LCD) monitor is related to its:

compactness

image sharpness

reflective glare

viewing angle

A

viewing angle

734
Q

In a liquid crystal diode (LCD) screen, in order to shut a pixel “off” so that it appears dark:

electrical current is applied to the pixel

electrical current is blocked from reaching the pixel

an LED is energized behind the pixel

two light-polarizing plates are turned perpendicular to each other

A

electrical current is applied to the pixel

electrical current is blocked from reaching the pixel partial credit

735
Q

A 5-megapixel LCD screen presents much higher than a 3-megapixel LCD:

brightness

contrast

resolution

viewing angle

A

resolution

736
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Detail processing in the spatial domain includes multi scale processing (used different matrix sizes in the layers) and bandpass filtering (removes layers for improved quality).

A

FALSE

737
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Edge enhancement is sharp mask filtering, we find large objects and only add them to the mask, the mask is inverted and then subtracted from the original.

A

FALSE

738
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Dynamic range compression is also known as tissue equalization.

A

TRUE

739
Q

TRUE/FALSE

the S-ave is calculated and will determine the brightness of our image. If we send a histogram into the computer that is not the shape its expecting ( like there is no raw in our data but raw in the histogram) an error will occur and our image quality will suffer.

A

TRUE

740
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Only those values between S-min and S-max are used for analysis, VOI and will be feed into the LUT.

A

TRUE

741
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Image analysis includes exposure field recognition (EFR), it identifies the raw radiation area, finds Smax

A

TRUE

742
Q

Mammography utilized a magnification of 1.8 to allow assessment of ____________.

skin margins

tumor margins

soft tissue margins

microcalsifications

A

microcalsifications

743
Q

The Focal Spot Size in mammography is ________ as compared to diagnostic radiography.

larger

smaller

the same

A

smaller

744
Q

Mammography has multiple target materials available, which of the following will provide a beam with the appropriate kVp for fatty breasts (lowest kVp)?

Rhodium

Tungsten

Silver

Molybdenum

A

Molybdenum

745
Q

Which of the following prevents anatomical iinformation at the chest wall from being “cut off” or missed?

cathode at chest wall

anode at chest wall

CR at chest wall

none of the above

A

CR at chest wall

746
Q

Compression in mammography does all of the following except?

allows for a decreased exposure

increases the penetration needed for good image quality

decreases superimposition

increases detail in the image

A

increases the penetration needed for good image quality

747
Q

Which of the following mammography system has the best spatial resolution?

CsI with a Si

GaOS with a Si

a Se

CR

A

CR

748
Q

Thrombolysis performed in the IR suite _________.

uses a balloon to open an vessel

places a metal tube to maintain an open vessel

terminates blood supply to an area

dissolves a clot with pharmaceuticals

A

dissolves a clot with pharmaceuticals

749
Q

IR x-ray tubes require a larger ____________ than diagnostic due to the amount of heat created with long exposure times.

anode

focal spot size

SID

cathode

A

anode

750
Q

TRUE/FALSE

CR/DR systems are faster than traditional film systems and therefore require less exposure for equal image quality.

A

FALSE

751
Q

TRUE/FALSE

When an image is under penetrated (too low kVp) the computer processing can correct the image to proper quality.

A

FALSE

752
Q

When changing from a film system, speed 400, to a CR system speed 200, which of the following changes in technique would be the best choice?

increase mAS by 2x

increase kVp by 15%

decrease SID by 20%

decrease grid ration used

A

increase kVp by 15%

753
Q

Scatter radiation is a concern with image quality, which of the following factors is the main cause of scatter?

high kVp

high mAs

large FOV

large patient size

A

large patient size

754
Q

TRUE/FALSE

In CR/DR imaging scatter is less of a concern than in film imaging, due to the computer processing ability to remove the scatter digitally.

A

TRUE

755
Q

If a CR cassette is allowed to gather background radiation (prefogging) which part of the histogram will be effected?

the very dark black shades

the very light, almost white shades

the mid gray levels

none will be affected

A

the very light, almost white shades

756
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Utilizing the 15 % rule to adjust technique compared to increasing the mAs by a factor of two will save 33% in exposure.

A

TRUE

757
Q

All of the following are influencing factors for contrast except?

LUT

window width

window level

kVp

A

window level

758
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Dose creep occurs because over exposure in CR/DR generally does not negatively effect image quality .

A

TRUE

759
Q

When using a CR system, you may need to purchase new grids to prevent which of the following __________.

grid cut off

veiling glare

barrel distortion

moire patterns

A

moire patterns

760
Q

TRUE/FALSE

The signal values between S-min and S-max are known as our VOI and represent the anatomical information in our image.

A

TRUE

761
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Information above S-max and below S-min are not included in the VOI and are not included in the final image.

A

TRUE

762
Q

In the attached histogram a prosthetic a nd lead shield are present. The S-min has been placed too far to the left, how will this skew the S-ave and our exposure indicator?

it will be increased

it will be decreased

will not affect it

A

it will be decreased

763
Q

The histogram displayed represents which of the following body parts?

abdomen

extremity

chest

A

chest