EXAM #1 (Ch. 1-7, 41) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

what is inverse square

how do you calculate it

A

radiation intensity decreases as distance increases

doubling distance decreases intensity 4x

intensity1 = (distance2)^2
/
instensity2 = (distance1)^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is ionization

what are two ionizing electromagnetic radiations

A

breaking atomic bonds, adding or subtracting electrons (making it pos. or neg.)

x-rays + gamma rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what causes ionization

A

total dose

rate of dose

age

type of radiation

cell sensitivity

body part irradiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the difference between a gamma ray and x-ray

A

the origin

x-rays = tube

gamma = decompostion of nuclide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the two major sources of radiation

A

1 natural sources:

cosmic rays: particles emitted by sun and stars

terrestrial radiation: emitted from deposits of uranium, thorium etc.

radionuclides: part of human metabolism, potassium-40

x-rays: largest source

other contributors: nuclear power plants, industrial sources, smoke detectors, televisions, and airport surveillance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

who discovered x-rays and when

A

Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen in 1895

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

who invented flouroscopy and when

A

Thomas Edison in 1896

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

who was the first x-ray fatality in the US

A

Clarence Dally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

[ * ] what are the three cardinal rules of radiation protection

A

time

distance

sheilding
• protective barriers
• protective devices
– 0.23 - 1.0 mm lead equivalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the dose limit for workers per year

pregnant women

fetus

A
  1. 00 rads worker
  2. 50 rads pregnant
  3. 05 rads fetus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

does stochastic radiation have a threshold

what are its risks

A

no threshold

random in nature

can cause cancer or genetic effects

occurrence increases with dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

[?] the fetus is most radiosensitive at what time point of gestation

0 - 7 weeks

8 - 15 weeks

16 - 23 weeks

24 - 31 weeks

A

8 - 15 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where do we wear our badges

A

between chest and waist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what type of badge do we wear

A

dosimeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is exposure

what is the conventional and SI unit

what is the conversion to metric

A

number of ionization in a given quantity of air

conventional unit:
1 Roentgen (R)

SI unit:
C = Coulomb

1 Roentgen (R) = 2.58 x 10^-4 C/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is absorbed dose

what is the conventional and SI unit

what is the conversion to metric

A

measures amount of energy absorbed

conventional unit:
1 rad

SI unit:
1 Gray (Gy)

conversion:
1 Gy = 100 rad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is equivalent dose

A

absorbed dose and radiation weighting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is effective dose

A

sum of the equivalent doses of specific tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1 rad = ___ Gy

A

0.01 Gy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

1 Gray = ___ rad

A

100 rad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1 rad = ___ Gy or ___ cGy or ___ mGy

A

1 rad = 0.01 Gy or 1 cGy or 10 mGy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe the bohr atom

A

positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined orbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the charge of a neutron

A

neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the charge of an electron

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the charge of a proton

A

positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which is bigger? proton or electron

A

proton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which is bigger? neutron or electon

A

neutron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is atomic number (Z#)

A

distinguishes elements by number of protons contained in nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is atomic mass number (A#)

A

protons and neutrons combined

neglects the mass of an atom’s electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is electron binding energy (Eb)

how is strength related

A

energy needed to eject electron from atom

related to how close electron is to nucleus (closer = less strong)

Eb increases as Z# increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how do binding energies change based on what shell you’re in and in what material (Z#) you’re talking about

A

binding energies are stronger as the shells go further out

they increase with Z# (because the bigger the z#, the more protons, the more electrons, the more shells (octet rule))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is an isotope

A

an atom with a changed number of neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the types of ionizing radiation

A

particulate and electromagnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the relationship between electromagnetic waves and velocity

A

Velocity of all EM radiation is c

c = 3 x 10^8 m/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

[ * ] what is the relationship (equation) between frequency and wavelength

A

velocity = frequency * wavelength

V = ν * λ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the relationship between frequency and energy of EM waves

A

energy = wavelength * frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how does energy affect the waves behavior

when do they act like particles

A

electrons exist in wave form until they are observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is wave particle duality

A

every elementary particle or quantic entity may be partly described in terms not only of particles, but also of waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is potential energy

A

capacity to do work due to an objects position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is kinetic energy

A

work through motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is chemical energy

A

energy released through chemical reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is electrical energy

A

work accomplished when electrons move through a wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is thermal energy

A

energy of molecular motion (heat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is nuclear energy

A

energy within the nucleus of an atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is electromagnetic energy

A

radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is excitation

A

temporary elevation of energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is ALARA

A

as low as reasonably achievable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

does deterministic radiation have a threshold

what are its risks

A

there is a threshold

cataracts, skin erythema, sterility

once threshold is surpass: an increase in dose will increase the severity of response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

[?] when wearing a protective apron the personal monitoring badge should be worn…

under apron at waist

under apron at collar

outside apron at waist

outside apron at collar

A

outside apron at collar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

[?] which of the following is measured in air

R

Rad/GY

Rem/Sv

KERMA

A

R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

[?] which of the following is the product of absorbed dose and the radiation weighting factor

integral dose
equivalent dose
effective dose

A

equivalent dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

[?] which of the following categories does cancer caused by radiation fit in

threshold

stochastic

deterministic

A

stochastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

[?] which of the following is NOT a cardinal rule of radiation protection

time

low technique

distance

shielding

A

low technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what happens if you change the Z#

A

you change the element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the order and electron capacity of shells

A

K, L, M, N, O, P, Q

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are alpha particles

how massive

travel distance

A

high energy helium
2 protons and 2 neutrons

large amount of mass and charge

can travel 5cm in air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what are beta particles

how massive

travel distance

A

electrons from decaying radioactive material

little mass and charge

can travel 10-100 cm in air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

[?] which of the following types of radiation can’t travel 10+ cm

xray

gamma

beta

alpha

A

alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

[? REVIEW] what two things affect binding energy

A

distance of electron to nucleus

how many protons (more protons = more attraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

[? REVIEW] what particle has lots of energy but little mass

A

neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

[? REVIEW] can we direct radiation (focus it)

A

no, we can just block it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

[? REVIEW] if we’re talking about particles, we have two types (alphas and betas) which is most penetrating and why

A

betas, they can go farther because they’re lighter and have more energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

[? REVIEW] when we say that x-rays can ionate something, what do they change and what is the bi-product

A

they get rid of an electron

bi-product: radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

how to convert Gy to rad

how to convert rad to Gy

A

if given Gy * by 100 to get rad

if given rad * by .01 to get Gy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are the two types of personnel monitoring devices

A

optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter

poket dosimeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

[PQ1] Energy is measured in _____.

a. kilograms
b. joules
c. electron volts
d. B or C

A

d. B or C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of _____.

a. energy
b. radiation
c. matter
d. gravity

A

c. matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The formula E=mc2 is the basis for the theory that led to the development of _____.

a. x-rays
b. electromagnetic radiation
c. nuclear power
d. cathode ray tubes

A

c. nuclear power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Radio waves, light, and x-rays are all examples of _____ energy.

a. nuclear
b. thermal
c. electrical
d. electromagnetic

A

d. electromagnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the removal of an electron from an atom called?

a. ionization
b. pair production
c. irradiation
d. electricity

A

a. ionization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The energy of x-rays is _____.

a. thermal
b. potential
c. kinetic
d. electromagnetic

A

d. electromagnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The biggest source of man-made ionizing radiation exposure to the public is _____.

a. atomic fallout
b. diagnostic x-rays
c. smoke detectors
d. nuclear power plants

A

b. diagnostic x-rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The basic quantities measured in mechanics are _____, _____, and _____.

a. volume, length, meters
b. mass, length, time
c. radioactivity, dose, exposure
d. meters, kilos, seconds

A

b. mass, length, time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

_____ is a special quantity of radiologic science.

a. Mass
b. Velocity
c. Radioactivity
d. Momentum

A

c. Radioactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Exposure is measured in units of _____.

a. becquerel
b. sieverts
c. meters
d. grays

A

d. grays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Today, radiology is considered to be a(n) _____ occupation.

a. safe
b. unsafe
c. dangerous
d. high-risk

A

a. safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does ALARA mean?

a. All Level Alert Radiation Accident
b. As Low As Reasonably Achievable
c. Always Leave A Restricted Area
d. As Low As Regulations Allow

A

b. As Low As Reasonably Achievable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The smallest particle that has all the properties of an element is a(n) _____.

a. neutron
b. proton
c. electron
d. atom

A

d. atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined orbits is the _____ model of the atom.

a. Bohr
b. Thomson
c. Rutherford
d. Dalton

A

a. Bohr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the fundamental particles of an atom?

a. quark, positron, negatron
b. nucleon, electron, proton
c. proton, neutron, quark
d. proton, electron, neutron

A

d. proton, electron, neutron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of _____.

a. one
b. zero
c. positive
d. negative

A

b. zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their _____.

a. atomic numbers
b. atomic mass units
c. shells
d. isotopes

A

c. shells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of neutrons, it is called an _____.

a. isomer
b. isobar
c. isotone
d. isotope

A

d. isotope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is a(n) _____.

a. ion
b. molecule
c. isotope
d. isomer

A

a. ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The maximum number of electrons that can exist in an electron shell is calculated with the formula _____.

a. 2n
b. 2n^2
c. 2/n
d. 2/n^2

A

b. 2n^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The innermost electron shell is symbolized by the letter _____.

a. J
b. K
c. L
d. M

A

b. K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter _____.

a. A
b. X
c. Z
d. n

A

c. Z

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Two identical atoms which exist at different energy states are called _____.

a. isotopes
b. isomers
c. isotones
d. isobars

A

b. isomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

During beta emission, an atom releases _____.

a. electrons
b. positrons
c. protons
d. neutrons

A

a. electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The only difference between x-rays and gamma rays is their _____.

a. energy
b. size
c. origin
d. name

A

c. origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The four properties of photons are _____, _____, _____ and _____.

a. size, shape, spin, mass
b. frequency, mass, amplitude, wavelength
c. frequency, wavelength, velocity, amplitude
d. refraction, velocity, spin, amplitude

A

c. frequency, wavelength, velocity, amplitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The smallest quantity of any type of electromagnetic radiation is a(n) _____.

a. photon
b. electron
c. neutrino
d. quark

A

a. photon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the velocity of all electromagnetic radiation?

a. 8 × 10^3 m/s
b. 2 × 10^8 m/s
c. 3 × 10^8 m/s
d. 4 × 10^3 m/s

A

c. 3 × 10^8 m/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its _____.

a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. wavelength
d. velocity

A

b. frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then its frequency must _____.

a. double
b. increase four times
c. decrease by half
d. remain constant

A

c. decrease by half

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The intensity of radiation _____ in _____ proportion to the square of the distance of the object from the source.

a. increases, direct
b. decreases, direct
c. increases, inverse
d. decreases, inverse

A

d. decreases, inverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet, what will the intensity be at 6 feet?

a. 0.4 millilumens
b. 1 millilumen
c. 2 millilumens
d. 16 millilumens

A

b. 1 millilumen

think 1/4 of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its _____.

a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. velocity
d. wavelength

A

b. frequency

Planck’s E=h*freq.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

X-rays are usually identified by their _____.

a. energy
b. velocity
c. wavelength
d. hertz

A

a. energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Photons with the highest frequencies have the _____.

a. highest velocity
b. lowest energy
c. longest wavelengths
d. shortest wavelengths

A

d. shortest wavelengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what is radiation weighting

what units

A

different ionizing radiation produce different biological responses

Rem or Sv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is alpha radiation

A

the emission of an alpha particle from the nucleus of an atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is beta radiation

A

the emission of a beta particle from the nucleus of an atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what is gamma radiation

A

emission of a high-energy wave from the nucleus of an atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what is x-ray radiation

A

the emission of a high energy wave from the electron cloud of an atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

in the SI system, energy is measured in:

A. joules
B. ergs
C. calories
D. BTU

A

A. joules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

when a ball is thrown into the air, the initial kinetic energy is converted into an energy form that is best categorized as:

A. electrical
B. chemical
C. nuclear
D. potential

A

D. potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

the relationship between energy (E), matter (m), and the velocity of light is ____.

A. E=mc
B. E=m/c
C. E=mc^2
D. E=m/c^2

A

C. E=mc^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

power is measured in

A. joules
B. watts
C. voltages
D. amperes

A

B. watts

110
Q

the smallest unit of matter is most likely an:

A. atom
B. molecule
C. gram-mole
D. grain

A

A. atom

111
Q

normal constituents of atoms are least likely to be:

A. neutrons
B. protons
C. electrons
D. photons

A

D. photons

112
Q

chemical properties of atoms are most likely determined by the number of:

A. protons
B. neutrons
C. neutrons and protons
D. photons and electrons

A

A. protons

113
Q

the relationship between the atomic mass (A), number of protons (Z), and the number of neutrons (N) is ____.

A. A=Z+N
B. Z=A+N
C. N=A+Z
D. none of the above

A

A. A=Z+N

114
Q

the name of the innermost electron shell is ____.

A. A
B. I
C. K
D. varies with Z

A

C. K

115
Q

the electron capacity of the innermost shell of any atom is ____.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

A

B. 2

116
Q

electron binding energies are most likely measured in:

A. watt
B. joule
C. eV
D. horsepower

A

C. eV

117
Q

the K-shell binding energy (keV) of oxygen is ____.

A. 0.5
B. 4
C. 20
D. 33

A

A. 0.5

118
Q

the K-shell binding energy (keV) of lead is ____.

A. 25
B. 33
C. 70
D. 88

A

D. 88

119
Q

the binding energy (eV) of an outer shell electron of tissue is most likely ____.

A. 1
B. 10
C. 100
D. 1000

A

B. 10

120
Q

the speed of light (m/s) is normally taken to be ____.

A. 3x10^2
B. 3x10^4
C. 3x10^6
D. 3x10^8

A

D. 3x10^8

121
Q

the velocity of an x-ray photon is proportional to the photon:

A. frequency
B. wavelength
C. energy
D. none of the above

A

D. none of the above

122
Q

which has the longest wavelength

A. visible light
B. microwaves
C. radiowaves
D. x-rays

A

C. radiowaves

123
Q

which has the highest frequency

A. radiowaves
B. microwaves
C. infrared
D. gamma rays

A

D. gamma rays

124
Q

the energy of an electromagnetic photon with frequency (f) is proportional to ____.

A. f
B. f^0.5
C. f^2
D. 1/f

A

A. f

125
Q

when a photon’s energy is doubled, the photon wavelength will be:

A. the same
B. doubles
C. quadrupled
D. halved

A

D. halved

126
Q

the fall-off of intensity of an x-ray source with distance is most likely called:

A. exponential
B. linear
C. inverse square law
D. quadratic

A

C. inverse square law

127
Q

removing an electron from an atom is likely known as:

A. ionization
B. excitation
C. isometric transition
D. annihilation

A

A. ionization

128
Q

the charge on an atom that has lost an electron is most likely:

A. negative
B. positive
C. neutral
D. positive or negative

A

B. positive

129
Q

which of the following is not ionizing radiation

A. radiowaves
B. microwaves
C. visible light
D. ultraviolet

A

D. ultraviolet

130
Q

which of these is not ionizing radiation

A. gamma rays
B. x-rays
C. visible light
D. ultraviolet

A

C. visible light

131
Q

the energy of an x-ray photon (keV) in diagnostic radiology is most likely ____.

A. 0.5
B. 5
C. 50
D. 500

A

C. 50

132
Q

the charge on an alpha particle is ____.

A. -2
B. -1
C. +1
D. +2

A

D. +2

133
Q

the average distance an alpha particle travels in tissue is most likely ____ mm

A. 0.1
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100

A

A. 0.1

134
Q

a beta particle is most like a(n):

A. atom
B. proton
C. neutron
D. electron

A

D. electron

135
Q

the distance a beta particle travels in the air is most likely ____ m

A. 0.01
B. 0.1
C. 1
D. 10

A

C. 1

136
Q

when an object travels a distance (d) in a time (t), the velocity is ____.

A. d/t
B. t/d
C. d^2/t
D. t^2/d

A

A. d/t

137
Q

an acceleration of zero implies that the velocity of an object is:

A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. constant
D. indeterminate

A

C. constant

138
Q

the relationship between a force (F), mass (m), and acceleration (a) is:

A. F=ma
B. M=F
a
C. a=m*F
D. F=m+a

A

A. F=m*a

139
Q

90°F on the centigrade scale is approx. ____.

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

A

C. 30

140
Q

transmission of heat is least likely to involve:

A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. transmutation

A

D. transmutation

141
Q

observation and investigation of charged particles is known as:

A. mechanics
B. electrostatics
C. electrodynamics
D. statics

A

B. electrostatics

142
Q

how would doubling one of the charges affect the size of the electrostatic force

A. have no effect
B. double it
C. quadruple it
D. halve it

A

B. double it

143
Q

units of electric voltage are:

A. joules/coulomb
B. joules/second
C. coulomb/joule
D. coulomb/second

A

A. joules/coulomb

144
Q

observation and investigation of moving electric charges is known as:

A. electrodynamics
B. electrostatics
C. induction
D. electromagnetism

A

A. electrodynamics

145
Q

which of the following is most likely an insulator

A. copper
B. oil
C. silver
D. tungsten

A

B. oil

146
Q

when 10 coulombs flow through a circuit at 0.1 second, the electrical current (A) is ____.

A. 0.1
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100

A

D. 100

147
Q

electrical resistance is measured in:

A. coulombs
B. ohms
C. amperes
D. hertz

A

B. ohms

148
Q

the relationship between the voltage (V), electrical current (I), and resistance (R) in an electrical circuit is:

A. V=IR
B. V=I^2
R
C. V=I/R
D. V=R/I

A

A. V=I*R

149
Q

domestic AC electricity in the United States has a frequency (Hz) of ____.

A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120

A

60

150
Q

the phase difference in degrees of a 3-phase power supply is ____.

A. 0
B. 45
C. 90
D. 120

A

D. 120

151
Q

what is the power dissipation (kW) when a current of 10A flows through a circuit of 100V

Power Rating (kW)= (current * potential) / 1000

A. 1
B. 10
C. 100
D. 1000

A

A. 1

Power Rating (kW)= (current * potential) / 1000

kW = ( 10A * 100V ) / 1000
kW = 1000 / 1000
kW = 1
152
Q

what is the non-SI unit of magnetic field strength

A. gauss
B. hertz
C. ohm
D. candela

A

A. gauss

153
Q

the Earth’s magnetic field (uT) is most likely ____.

A. 0.5
B. 5
C. 50
D. 500

A

C. 50

154
Q

an electromagnet most likely requires the application of:

A. electric currents
B. magnetic fields
C. mechanical forces
D. moving objects

A

A. electric currents

155
Q

which type of magnet is easiest to turn on and off

A. natural magnet
B. permanent magnet
C. mechanical magnet
D. electromagnet

A

D. electromagnet

156
Q

how would doubling the pole strength of two magnets affect the size of the magnetic force

A. have no effect
B. double it
C. quadruple it
D. halve it

A

C. quadruple it

157
Q

how would doubling the distance between magnetic poles affect the size of the magnetic force

A. halve it
B. reduce to a quarter
C. double it
D. quadruple it

A

B. reduce to a quarter

158
Q

to induce an electric current, a magnetic field needs to:

A. change
B. exceed 0.1T
C. last >1 second
D. remain constant

A

A. change

159
Q

a rotor shaft of an x-ray tube is most likely moved by the use of a(n):

A. induction motor
B. rectifier
C. transformer
D. generator

A

A. induction motor

160
Q

electrical power is most likely produced by a:

A. generator
B. rectifier
C. transformer
D. none of the above

A

A. generator

161
Q

transformers are most likely used to change the magnitude of electrical:

A. voltage
B. resistance
C. frequency
D. power

A

A. voltage

162
Q

transformers require ____ current to operate

A. DC
B. AC
C. rectified
D. constant

A

B. AC

163
Q

if a transformer increases the voltage 100%, the change in electrical current is most likely:

A. +100%
B. +50%
C. 0% (no change)
D. -50%

A

D. -50%

164
Q

a rectification circuit is most likely to consist of:

A. diodes
B. resistances
C. coils
D. electromagnets

A

A. diodes

165
Q

define electrostatics

A

electric charges at rest

166
Q

define electrification

A

from negative to (more) positive

167
Q

define zero (or ground)

A

any excessive electric current will go through ground wire

168
Q

[laws of electrostatics]

define repulsion-attraction

A

positive and negative are attracted

neg and neg repel

pos and pos repel

169
Q

[laws of electrostatics]

what is inverse square law

A

force between two charges is directly proportional to the product of their magnitudes and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them

170
Q

[laws of electrostatics]

define distrubution

A

charges reside (mostly) on external surface of conductors in attempt to repel from each other

171
Q

[laws of electrostatics]

define concentration

A

the greatest concentration of charges will gather at the sharpest curvature of an object

172
Q

[laws of electrostatics]

what dictates movement

A

only negative charges will move along solid conductors

173
Q

[methods of electrification]

define friction

A

when one object is rubbed against another

174
Q

[methods of electrification]

define contact

A

when two objects touch

allows electrons to move from one object to another

175
Q

[*] [methods of electrification]

define induction

A

allows electric fields to act on one another without touching

(moves parts how we want them to)

176
Q

[?} which of the following types of electrification does not require the two objects to touch

A. friction
B. contact
C. induction
D. none of the above

A

C. induction

92% of class correct

177
Q

[electrodynamics]

what is electrodynamics

A

electron in motion or moving

178
Q

[electrodynamics]

define current flow

A

electrons move from high to low concentration

positive to negative

179
Q

[electrodynamics]

what is the quantity of electric current

A

current (mA = milliamperes)

180
Q

[electrodynamics]

what is mA

what is mAs

A

milliamperes (electrons flowing, current)

total of miliamperes per second

181
Q

[electrodynamics]

what is keV

A

force of electron travel

potential difference

control how energetic x-rays are

182
Q

[electrodynamics]

what is opposition to current flow

A

impedance or resistance

183
Q

[electrodynamics]

AC

A

alternating current

positive and negative pulse

184
Q

[electrodynamics]

DC

A

direct current

continual

185
Q

[electrodynamics]

what is current

A

electrons flowing

186
Q

[electrodynamics]

what is potential difference

A

force that drives the electrons

area of higher and lower concentration of electrons

unequal forces try to balance

187
Q

[electrodynamics]

potential difference unit

A

voltage

188
Q

[*] just remember: high voltage is always a danger, even if there is no current

A

high voltage is always a danger, even if there is no current

189
Q

[electrodynamics]

define resistance

A

amount of opposition to current

190
Q

[electrodynamics]

what is resistance measured in

A

ohms

191
Q

[electrodynamics]

what are the four things resistance is dependent upon

A

conductivity of material

length

diameter

temperature

192
Q

what is a material’s conductivity dependent on (4 items)

A

configuration of atom’s valence and conduction band

insulator: conduction spaced out from valence
semiconductor: conduction and valence band close
conductor: conduction and valence band overlap

193
Q

length in relation to resistance?

A

directly related to resistance

194
Q

diameter in relation to resistance?

A

inversely related to resistance

195
Q

temperature in relation to resistance?

A

directly related to resistance

increased atomic motion due to increased temperature and prevents electrons from moving freely

196
Q

[?] electrons flow from areas of ____ to areas of ____ charge

A. negative to positive
B. positive to negative
C. positive to neutral
D. neutral to positive

A

A. negative to positive

197
Q

[?] the force with which an electron travels is

A. mA
B. keV
C. Sec
D. current

A

B. keV

87% of class

198
Q

[?] which of the following reduces resistance in a wire

A. decreased length
B. decreased diameter
C. increased temperature
D. decreased conductivity

A

A. decreased length

67% of class

199
Q

[*] Ohm’s law

A

V = IR

V = potential difference (volts)

I = current (amperes)

R = resistance (ohms)

200
Q

[*] Power EQ

A

P = IV

P = power (watts)

I = current (amperes)

V = potential difference (volts)

201
Q

define magnetism

A

orbital magnetic moment (electrons spinning around)

spin magnetic moment (electron spins on its own)

magnetism is always perpendicular (90°) to charged electron

202
Q

[magnetism]

what are lines of force called

unit?

A

lines of flux (closer = more strength, further = less strength)

SI unit = Weber (Wb)

203
Q

[magnetism]

direction of flow (outside and inside)

A

outside magnet - north to south

inside magnet - south to north

204
Q

[magnetism]

define flux density

A

measured in Tesla (T) and Gauss (G)

don’t need to know: 1 T = 10000G = Wb/m^2

205
Q

[magnetism]

what is earth’s magnetic field

A

0.0001 T or 1 G

206
Q

[magnetism]

house magnet strength

A

0.1 T (tesla)

207
Q

what are the three classifications of magnets

A

natural

artificial permanent

electromagnets

208
Q

[laws of magnetism]

inverse square law

A

force between two magnetic fields is directly proportional to the product of their magnitudes and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them

209
Q

rule of magnetic poles

A

regions of magnetism always exist as a dipole no matter how small it gets

210
Q

three things inverse square law applies to three things

A

magnetism

electric fields

gravity

211
Q

[QUIZ] Technologists wear a TLD type personnel monitoring device.

True

False

A

False

212
Q

[QUIZ] The common property of all electromagnetic (EM) radiation is frequency.

True

False

A

False

213
Q

[QUIZ] The wavelength of an electromagnetic wave is:

inversely proportional to wave velocity

directly proportional to wave frequency

inversely proportional to wave frequency

usually designated by the letter c

A

inversely proportional to wave frequency

214
Q

[QUIZ] Time, Distance and shielding are the cardinal rules of radiation safety.

True

False

A

True

215
Q

[QUIZ] Which of the following creates the most ionizations in air, and has a radiation weighting factor of 4?

x-ray

beta particle

alpha particle

they are equal

A

alpha particle

216
Q

[QUIZ] If the photon (x-ray) frequency is increased tenfold, then the

velocity will increase times 10

velocity will decrease to 10

wavelength will increase times 10

wavelength will decrease to 1/10

A

wavelength will decrease to 1/10

217
Q

[QUIZ] A technologist is exposed to 10 mR of radiation at a distance of 50 cm . What distance would result in an exposure of 100mR?

5 cm

500 cm

16 cm

160 cm

A

16 cm

218
Q

[QUIZ] Background radiation accounts for 6 mSv of exposure, man mad sources account for ____ mSv of that.

1

2

3

4

A

3

219
Q

[QUIZ] In the ionization process an electron is removed from an atom. In excitation the electron is moved to a/an ___ energy state.

lower

higher

incomplete

all of the above

A

higher

220
Q

[QUIZ] Air KERMA is an easily measured and comparable factor used for entrance skin exposure.

True

False

A

True

221
Q

[QUIZ] Which of the following units of measure are used for patient absorbed dose?

R

Sv

Gy

Bq

A

Gy

222
Q

[QUIZ] The particles that distinguish one element from another are the

neutrons

protons

electrons

beta particles

A

protons

223
Q

[QUIZ] Thomas Edison discovered x-rays.

True
False

A

False

224
Q

[QUIZ] A gamma ray is created in ___ and an x-ray is created in ___.

nucleus of an atom, x-ray tube

x-ray tube, nucleus of an atom

nucleus of an atom, image tube

none of the above

A

nucleus of an atom, x-ray tube

225
Q

[QUIZ] Visible light (moderate energy) acts like a ___ while x-rays (high energy) act like a ___.

particle, particle

wave, particle

particle, wave

wave, wave

A

wave, particle

226
Q

[QUIZ] If an electron is gained or lost from an atom, that atom becomes

an ion

a new element

an isotope

unstable

A

an ion

227
Q

[QUIZ] 0.05 Sv or 5 rem is the yearly occupational dose limi in the US.

True

False

A

True

228
Q

[QUIZ] What unit of measure is used for the absorbed dose multiplied by the radiation weighting factor in the SI system

rem

Gy

Ci

Sv

A

Sv

229
Q

[QUIZ] The theory that electrons circulate in discrete circular paths was proposed by

Bohr

Einstein

Planck

Rutherford

A

Bohr

230
Q

[QUIZ] The maximum number of electrons found in any energy level (shell) at any point in time is

2

6

10

2n^2

A

2n^2

231
Q

[QUIZ] Stochastic effects of radiation require a threshold dose before they are detectable.

True

False

A

False

232
Q

[QUIZ] Which of the following describes a product of the absorbed dose, the radiation weighting factor and the tissue sensitivity?

Effective dose

Equivalent dose

Absorbed dose

Tissue KERMA

A

Effective dose

233
Q

[QUIZ] The sum of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called the

electron number

atomic weight

quantum number

atomic mass

A

atomic mass

234
Q

[QUIZ] Isotopes have ______ number of protons and ________ number of neutrons compared to a stable atom of a material.

the same, the same

the same, different

different, the same

different, different

A

the same, different

235
Q

[QUIZ] Frequency and the energy of electromagnetic waves have a ___ relationship, as explained by Plank’s equation.

directly proportional

inversely proportional

exponential

indirect linear

A

directly proportional

236
Q

[EXAM PQ] The smallest unit of electrical charge is the _____.

a. electron
b. proton
c. neutron
d. neutrino

A

a. electron

237
Q

[EXAM PQ] Electrification occurs through the movement of _____.

a. protons only
b. protons and electrons
c. electrons only
d. electrons and neutrons

A

c. electrons only

238
Q

[EXAM PQ] Like charges _____ and unlike charges _____.

a. repel, repel
b. attract, attract
c. attract, repel
d. repel, attract

A

d. repel, attract

239
Q

[EXAM PQ] Electrostatic force is _____ proportional to the distance between charges, and _____ proportional to the product of the charges.

a. directly, inversely
b. inversely, directly
c. inversely, inversely
d. directly, directly

A

b. inversely, directly

240
Q

[EXAM PQ] The charges on an electrified object are distributed _____.

a. in the center of the object
b. on the side nearest the charge
c. on the topside of the object
d. evenly throughout the object

A

d. evenly throughout the object

241
Q

[EXAM PQ] On the surface of an electrified object, the charges concentrate on the _____.

a. top side
b. underside
c. sharpest curvatures
d. smoothest curvatures

A

c. sharpest curvatures

242
Q

[EXAM PQ] A _____ is a source of direct current.

a. wall socket
b. battery
c. generator
d. spark

A

b. battery

243
Q

[EXAM PQ] What is the unit of electric potential?

a. watt
b. amp
c. volt
d. ohm

A

c. volt

244
Q

[EXAM PQ] An electric potential applied to a conductor produces _____.

a. an electric current
b. a magnetic field
c. an electric insulator
d. both A and B

A

d. both A and B

245
Q

[EXAM PQ] An alternating (AC) current is represented by a _____ line.

a. sinusoidal
b. horizontal
c. vertical
d. descending

A

a. sinusoidal

246
Q

[EXAM PQ] A _____ uses direct current.

a. hair dryer
b. toaster
c. microwave
d. flashlight

A

d. flashlight

247
Q

[EXAM PQ] Alternating current is produced by a _____.

a. battery
b. generator
c. capacitor
d. semiconductor

A

b. generator

248
Q

[EXAM PQ] What is Ohm’s law?

a. I = V/R
b. V = I/R
c. R = VI
d. I = VR

A

a. I = V/R

249
Q

[EXAM PQ] A charged particle in motion creates a(n) _____.

a. negative charge
b. positive charge
c. magnetic field
d. electrostatic charge

A

c. magnetic field

250
Q

[EXAM PQ] Electrical power is measured in _____.

a. coulombs
b. amperes
c. volts
d. watts

A

d. watts

251
Q

[EXAM PQ] Rubber and glass are _____.

a. semiconductors
b. conductors
c. insulators
d. superconductors

A

c. insulators

252
Q

[EXAM PQ] The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called _____.

a. magnetic force
b. electron spin
c. unified field theory
d. magnetic induction

A

b. electron spin

253
Q

[EXAM PQ] When a group of dipoles are aligned, they create _____.

a. a magnetic domain
b. paramagnetic material
c. magnetic resonance
d. a north pole

A

a. a magnetic domain

254
Q

[EXAM PQ] In the United States, alternating current goes through a complete cycle every _____ second.

a. 1/120
b. 1/100
c. 1/60
d. 1/30

A

c. 1/60

255
Q

[EXAM PQ] What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength?

a. ampere
b. tesla
c. dipole
d. ohm

A

b. tesla

256
Q

[EXAM PQ] The force between magnetic poles is proportional to the _____ of the magnetic pole strengths, divided by the _____ of the distance between them.

a. square, sum
b. sum, square
c. square, product
d. product, square

A

d. product, square

257
Q

[EXAM PQ] What type of material can be made magnetic when placed in an external magnetic field?

a. diamagnetic
b. ferromagnetic
c. paramagnetic
d. nonmagnetic

A

b. ferromagnetic

258
Q

[EXAM PQ] Like magnetic poles _____ and unlike magnetic poles _____.

a. attract, attract
b. repel, repel
c. repel, attract
d. attract, repel

A

c. repel, attract

259
Q

[EXAM PQ] Water is a _____ material.

a. paramagnetic
b. magnetic
c. diamagnetic
d. ferromagnetic

A

c. diamagnetic

260
Q

[EXAM PQ] The magnetic intensity of an electromagnet is greatly increased by the addition of a(n) _____ core.

a. wood
b. iron
c. aluminum
d. copper

A

b. iron

261
Q

what is a magnetic dipole

A

an entire atom with a magnetic field (odd number of electrons)

262
Q

what are magnetic domains

A

regions in which atoms tend to line up with their magnetic dipoles

263
Q

what are diamagnetic materials, give two examples

A

repelled away from magnets and are referred to as diamagnetic

glass and water

264
Q

what are two examples of insulators

A

rubber and oil

265
Q

what are ferromagnetic materials, give two examples

A

when places in a magnetic field, their magnetic domains all line up with the field

iron and nickel

266
Q

in solid objects, only ____ can move

A

negative charges (electrons)

267
Q

what are insulators

A

electrons are strongly bound and not allowed to freely flow

268
Q

what are semiconductors

A

a material in which conduction DEPENDS on specific conditions, like being hot/cold or charged/uncharged

269
Q

if electrons are at rest they are measured by [coulomb/amperes]

if electrons are in motion they are measured by [coulomb/amperes]

A

rest = coulomb

motion = amperes

270
Q

what are conductors

A

materials that allow electrons to pass through easily (loosely bound electrons)