final prep Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following monosaccharides is an aldose?
  Dihydroxyacetone 
  Glyceraldehyde 
  Glucose 
  Lactose
A

Both B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When two monosaccharides are epimers:
They differ only in the configuration about one carbon atom
One is a furanose, the other a pyranose
One is an aldose, the other a ketose
They can form ring structures
They form O-glycosidic bonds

A

They differ only in the configuration about one carbon atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
Which pair is anomeric?
A) D-ribose and D-galactose
B) α-D-allose and β-D-allose
C) D-Ribose and L-fructose
D) D-glucose and L-glucose
E) α-D-idose and β-L-idose
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When forming the disaccharide maltose from two glucose monosaccharides:
Gas is eliminated
A condensation reaction occurs
An anomeric carbon is formed on carbon-1
An epimer is formed
A polysaccharide is formed

A

A condensation reaction occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Amylose and amylopectin are both polymers of:

A) α-D-glucose
B) β-D-glucose
C) Galactose
D) Idose
E) Maltose
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which statement about starch and glycogen is false?

A) Both have β-D-glucose monomers
B) Both starch and glycogen are energy storage polysaccharides
C) Both are homopolymers of glucose
D) Glycogen is more extensively branched than starch
E) Both have O-glycosidic linkages

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
Which monosaccharide is not a six-carbon monosaccharide?
  Idose 
  Gulose 
  Galactose 
  Dihydroxyacetone 
  Allose
A

Dihydroxyacetone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which statement about cellulose is true?
Cellulose is found in plants
Cellulose is the primary storage polysaccharide of animal cells
Cellulose is found in DNA
The glucose residues of cellulose contain the same configuration as the glucose residues of amylose
Cellulose is an epimer of chitin

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
The polysaccharide chitin is most chemically similar to:
 Cellulose 
  Dextrose 
  Glycogen 
  Starch 
  Amylose
A

Cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
Which of the following is the most common monosaccharide on earth?
  Ribose 
  Cellulose 
  Chitin 
  Sucrose 
  Glucose
A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
The “D” in the D-carbohydrates stands for:
  3-dimensional 
  Dextrorotatory 
  Derivative 
  Design 
  Double
A

Dextrorotory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which compound does not fit the formal definition of a carbohydrate?

A. C6H12O6

B. C9H18O9

C. C3H6O3

D. C8H14O8

E. C5H10O5

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Table sugar is also known as:
  Sucrose 
  Dextrose 
  Glucose 
  Galactose 
  Glycogen
A

Sucrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
Amylose has α1 → 6 branching about every \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ residues.
  1 to 10 
  8 to 12 
  10 to 30 
  24 to 30 
  No branching
A

No branching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Besides C, H, and O, chitin has which other element in its structure?

  F 
  Cl 
  P 
  S 
  N
A

N

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Some carbohydrates form a(n)___________ structure, which resembles a structure in proteins.

A) α form

B) β-turn

C) βeta-sheet

D) D-configuration

E) α-helix

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The equilibrium between _________ structures is called mutarotation.

A) Anomer and epimer

B) α and β

C) L and D

D) Helix and beta sheet

E) None of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Carbohydrates are not used in the following function.

  Structure 
  Energy storage 
  RNA sugar 
  Metabolic intermediate 
  All of the above are functions.
A

All are functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which word is Greek for sugar?

  Sugar 
  Carbohydrate
  Saccharide 
  Sucrose 
  Starch
A

Saccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Table sugar dissolves easily in water. Given its structure, explain why this is.

A

Sucrose contains -OH groups which can form hydrogen bonds with water. These non-covalent interactions permit solubility by permitting carbohydrates to interact with water and become an aqueous solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A hiker is lost in the wilderness and without food. He runs across several beetles with hard chitin exoskeletons. Would he get nutrition in the form of glucose from eating these beetles? Explain.

A

The human enzyme cannot break down the bond between the glucose residues in chitin. The bond is a β1 →4, but human enzymes only act upon α 1 →4. So, no he should not eat the beetles as food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How are oligosaccharides and polysaccharides similar in their structure? How are they different?

A

An oligosaccharide is a polymer of 2 to 20 monosaccharides joined together. A polysaccharide is more than 20 monosaccharides joined together. They are typically linked together by the same
1 → 4 linkages practically, and there are usually thousands of monosaccharides in a polysaccharide. In addition, polysaccharides can have branches in the structure, which permits them to form large complexes. In contrast, most oligosaccharides do not have branching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Glycerol contains how many alcohol functional groups?

1
2
3
4

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
Which of the following are derived from or made from fatty acids?
  Cholesterol 
  Carotenoids 
  Phosphoglycerides 
  Both A and B 
  Both A and C
A

Phosphoglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
Triacylglycerols are made from a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  glycerol; cholesterol 
  glycerol; three fatty acids 
  ceramide; three fatty acids 
  ceramide; three cholesterols 
  carotenoid; two cholesterols
A

glycerol and 3 fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following refers to carboxylic acids that are structural components of lipids?

  Amino acids 
  Anomers 
  Fatty acids 
  Gluconic acid 
  Sphingolipids
A

FAtty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
A particular lipid is a solid at room temperature, so it is called a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  Carotenoid 
  Oil 
  Sphingolipid 
  Fat 
  Membrane
A

fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are a class of membrane proteins that are firmly associated with the membrane bilayer.
  Peripheral protein 
  Integral protein 
  Channel protein 
  Transport protein 
  Inner transmembrane protein
A

Integral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
Isoprene units are used to make  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  A. Fatty acids 
  B. Carotenoid molecules 
  C. Sphingolipids 
  D. Both B and C 
  E. All of the above
A

carotenoid molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which notation is for a fatty acid with one double bond?

A) 18:1(Δ12)

B) 1:18(Δ12,15)

C) 1:12(Δ12)

D) 2:18(Δ12,15)

E) 12:1(Δ7,9)

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which notation indicates a 20-carbon omega-3 fatty acid that contains no other double bonds?

A) 20:1 (Δ11)

B) 20:1(Δ18)

C) 20:1(Δ17)

D) 20:1(Δ3)

E) 20:3(Δ3omega)

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
Which of the following is used as the backbone molecule in the formation of storage fats?
  Glycogen 
  Glycerol 
  Sphingolipid 
  Glucose 
  Phosphoglycerol
A

Glycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
Which types of membrane lipids determine the blood type of humans?
  Triacylglycerols 
  Phosphoglycerides 
  Cholesterol 
  Fatty acids 
  Sphingolipids
A

Sphingolipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
Sphingolipids are found in high concentrations in the membranes of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  organelles 
  myelin sheaths 
  all cells 
  heart cells 
  Vitamin K lipids
A

myelin sheaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
In a sphingolipid, the fatty acids are attached at carbon-2 by this type of linkage?
  Amide linkage 
  An ether linkage 
  An alcohol linkage 
  A peptide linkage 
  Alkyl linkage
A

Amide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
Membrane proteins:
  Are sometimes peripheral 
  Are sometimes integral 
  Assist in the transport of molecules 
  Can get nutrients in and the waste molecule out of the cell 
  All are correct
A

all are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Peripheral membrane proteins
Go all the way through the membrane and are firmly attached to the membrane
Are firmly attached to the membrane
Are lipids that can be either on the top of the cell or bottom of the cell
Are associated with the inside or outside surface of the membrane
None of the above

A

are associated with the inside or outside surface of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which statement best describes a general feature of membranes?
Individual lipid molecules are free to move in the membrane
The interior of the lipid bilayer is very polar
The membrane breaks easily
The polar heads face inward
The membrane is rigid

A

Individual lipid molecules are free to move in the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
Vitamin K is important for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  Blood coagulation 
  Blood type 
  Myelin sheaths 
  Membrane dynamics 
  Dye formation
A

Blood coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
What molecule is not found in membrane bilayers?
  Phosphoglycerides 
  Sphingolipid 
  Cholesterol 
  Integral proteins 
  None of these
A

none of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
What molecule that protects against UV rays is found both in bacteria and in the eyes?
  Sphingolipids 
  Carotenoid 
  Triacylglycerol 
  Cholesterol 
  Water
A

carotenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
What molecule has four fused rings in its structure?
  Sphingolipid 
  Carotenoid 
  Triacylglycerol 
  Cholesterol 
  Water
A

Cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In triacylglycerols, fatty acids are attached to glycerol via a/an______ linkage.

  • O-CO-
  • NH-
  • O-NH-
  • COO-
  • C=C-
A

-O-CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
A lipid is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  A fat 
  A molecule that dissolves in a non-polar solvent 
  Is made from isoprene units 
  An oil made up of carbon and oxygens 
  Is water soluble
A

A molecule that dissolves in a non-polar solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A particular fatty acid molecule has two bends, or kinks, in its structure. What is the cause of the bending or kinking?

A

Double bonds cause the fatty acids to bend or kink about in solution. These double bonds reduce the packing structure of fatty acids making them more liquid-like.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where in the body are membranes found?

A

In the cell. The cell, itself, and the organelles have membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

One type of lipid is prominent in myelin sheaths. What is this the lipid and what is unique about its structure?

A

Sphingomyelins are a subtype of sphingolipids that occur in all membrane bilayers but are especially prominent in the myelin sheath of some neurons. This subclass of sphingolipids typically has a polar head group with a neutral charge. Another unique part of the structure is the ceramide linking of the fatty acid on carbon-2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What molecules are storage fats? How do these molecules differ from those that make up cellular membranes?

A

Triacylglycerols are nonpolar molecules that can be stored as energy. They are a non-polar molecule (hydrophobic), so they do not interact with water. Phosphoglycerides, on the other hand, have both polar and nonpolar regions that permit them to interact with both polar and nonpolar environments making them perfect for membrane bilayers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which types of molecules are most likely to be present in membranes?

A

Phosphoglycerides, sphingolipids, cholesterol, and proteins are all found in the membrane. These molecules are all loosely associated with each other as described by the fluid mosaic model of the cellular membrane. They form a membrane bilayer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
In RNA, guanine always pairs with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  Thymine 
  Guanine 
  Cytosine 
  Uracil 
  Both A and B
A

cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
DNA is built from which of the following?
  Nucleosides 
  Genes 
  Purines 
  Nucleotide 
  Codons
A

nucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
The structure of tRNA is held together, primarily, by which of the following?
  Hydrogen bonds 
  London forces 
  Covalent bonds 
  Ion-dipole bonds 
  Hydrogen covalent bonds
A

Hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following pentose sugars is a constituent of B-DNA?

Xylose 
  Ribitol 
  Ribose 
  Arabinose 
  2-deoxyribose
A

2 deoxyribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
Pyrimidines have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ring(s), (each) containing \_\_\_\_\_\_ nitrogen(s), whereas purines have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ring(s), (each) containing \_\_\_\_\_\_ nitrogen(s).
  1; 1; 1; 1 
  1; 2; 2; 2 
  2; 2; 1; 2 
  2; 1; 1; 2 
  2; 2; 1; 1
A

1; 2, 2; 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
Which of the following nucleic acids is responsible for using the encoded genetic information to produce proteins found in living organisms?
  Peptide nucleic acid 
  Ribonucleic acid 
  Ribitol nucleic acid 
  Deoxyribonucleic acid 
  Glycerol nucleic acid
A

ribonucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
Identify the complementary bases from the following.
  Adenine-Cytosine 
  Adenine- Thymine 
  Guanine-Thymine 
  Guanine-Adenine 
  Cytosine-Uracil
A

adenine-thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
How many hydrogen bonds are made between A and its complementary nucleotide?
  1 
  2 
  3 
  4 
  5
A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
The base sequence along one strand of DNA of 5’-GCATGAGCC-3’. What is the sequence of the complementary strand of DNA?
  5’-CTAGTCCGC-3’ 
  3’-CGTACTCGG-5’ 
  3’-CTAGTCCGC-5’ 
  3’-CAGTCAGCT-5’ 
  5’-CTGACTACG-3’
A

3’- CGTACTCG-5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
Which of the following types of RNA functions as part of the complex that makes proteins?
  mRNA 
  gRNA 
  rRNA 
  snRNA 
  tRNA
A

rRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the set of three sequential nucleotides that encodes for a particular amino acid.
  Anticodon 
  Allele 
  Gene 
  Codon 
  Chromosome
A

codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
A type of DNA that has a right-handed helix is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  A-form 
  X-Form 
  C-form 
  L-form 
  Z-form
A

A- form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
Which of the following is a second messenger in cells?
  FAD 
  cAMP 
  AMP 
  dATP 
  UTP
A

cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
rRNA makes up about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of ribosomes.65
  65 
  35 
  20 
  90 
  0
A

65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
The conclusion that G and C are present in DNA in equimolar amounts is credited to \_\_\_\_\_\_.
  James Watson 
  Francis Crick 
  Erwin Chargaff 
  Both A and B 
  None of the above
A

Erwin Chargaff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
The order of nucleotides in DNA is written \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  to C 
  C to N 
  3’ to 5’ 
  5’ to 3’ 
  Both C and D
A

5’ to 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In the Watson-Crick model for the double helix, which statement is NOT true?
The two strands run anti-parallel to one another
The base-pairing occurs on the inside of the double helix.
The double helix (B form) is right-handed.
Two equally sized grooves that run up the sides of the helix.
The two strands have complementary sequences.

A

Two equally sized grooves that run up the sides of the helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
Besides ATP, which other nucleotide is part of energy storage in cells?
  ATP 
  UTP 
  TTP 
  CTP 
  GTP
A

GTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
A major component of RNA but not DNA is:
  AMP 
  GMP 
  UMP 
  CMP 
  TMP
A

UMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

One strand of a double-helical DNA has the sequence (5’)GCGCAATATTCTCAAAATAT(3’).

A) Write the base sequence of the complementary strand.

B) Explain what complementary means in nucleic acid chemistry.

A

A. (3’)CGCGTTATAAGAGTTTTATA(5’)

B. The nucleotide sequences of complementary strands are such that, whenever an A occurs in one strand, there is a T in the other strand with which it can form a hydrogen-bonded base pair. Whenever a C occurs in one strand, a G occurs in the other. A is the base that is complementary to T, and C is the base complementary to G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Briefly describe how noncovalent interactions contribute to the three-dimensional shapes and structures of RNA molecules.

A

Hydrogen bonding in regions of complementarity within an RNA chain can result in the formation of a structure. If no complementary regions exist, then an unstructured area will exist within the RNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In one sentence, identify the most obvious similarity between the A-form of DNA and the B-form of DNA.

A

Both A and B form a right-handed helix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

In nucleic acid chemistry, compounds that contain an organic nitrogen-containing base and a sugar are called ____A_____.

Two pyrimidine found in DNA in are _____B____ and ____B____.

A pyrimidine found in all DNA but not in RNA is ____C_____.

In DNA, the pair ____D_____ is held together by two hydrogen bonds.

In RNA, the pentose ______E______ serves as the monosaccharides.

A

A) Nucleosides

B) Cytosine and Thymine

C) Thymine

D) A-T

E) Ribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The monomers of DNA nucleic acids, called nucleotides, consist of three parts. What are those three parts? (Give three)

A

phosphoric acid, deoxyribose (a pentose sugar), and an organic base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

True or False: The ΔG value for a particular reaction is -78kJ/mol. This value indicates the reaction is NOT spontaneous.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

True or false: A biochemical metabolic pathway is a single reaction that converts starting material into products.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

True or false: Two ATP molecules are used in the energy-investing stage of glycolysis.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

True or False: The citric acid cycle occurs in the absence of oxygen.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

True or false: The β-oxidation pathway degrades both even-numbered and odd-numbered fatty acids.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
In converting glucose to pyruvate, how many ATP or NADH are produced (or required) in the 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate step in glycolysis?
  2 ATP produced 
  1 ATP required 
  1 NADH produced 
  2 NADH and 1 ATP produced 
  None of the above
A

2 ATP produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
In converting glucose to pyruvate, how many ATP or NADH are produced (or required) in the phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate step in glycolysis?
  1 ATP required 
  1 ATP produced 
  2 ATP produced 
  2 ATP required 
  None of the above
A

2 ATP produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
What is the primary reactant of glycolysis?
  Glucose 
  Glucose-6-phosphate 
  Fructose 
  Fructose-6-phosphate 
  Hexokinase
A

glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
In glycolysis, when glucose enters a cell, it is immediately phosphorylated to form glucose-6-phosphate. The phosphate donor in this reaction is ATP, and the enzyme is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  Hexokinase 
  Aldolase 
  CoA 
  Phosphohexose isomerase 
  None of the above
A

Hexokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
In the last reaction of glycolysis, ATP is formed by the direct transfer of a phosphate group from a metabolite to ADP. This process is referred to as:
  Substrate-level phosphorylation 
  Protein phosphorylation 
  Lipid phosphorylation 
  Isomerization 
  Photo-protein dephosphorylation
A

substrate level phosphorylation

84
Q
Under anaerobic conditions, to which compound is pyruvate converted?
  Ethanol 
  DHAP 
  Hexokinase 
  GAP 
  None of the above
A

ethanol

85
Q
The reactions of glycolysis take place in/on the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  Mitochondria 
  Cytosol 
  Lysozyme 
  Ribosome 
  Nucleus
A

cytosol

86
Q
How is ATP used in the initial steps of glycolysis?
  Lipid phosphorylation reagent 
  Isomerization reaction 
  Source for phosphorylation 
  Protein production 
  None of the above
A

source for phosphorylation

87
Q

Which of the following is a cyclic pathway?

A. CAC

B. PDH

C. Glycolysis

D. Oxidative phosphorylation

E. β-oxidation

A

CAC

88
Q
How many ATP molecules does NADH yield after oxidative phosphorylation?
  1.5 
  2 
  2.5 
  3 
  3.5
A

2.5

89
Q
Besides NADH and FADH2, what energy molecule is produced directly in the citric acid cycle?
  ATP 
  GTP 
  CTP 
  TTP 
  None of the above
A

GTP

90
Q
Pyruvate conversion to acetyl-CoA production occurs in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  Lysosomes 
  Vacuoles 
  Nucleus 
  Mitochondria 
  None of the above
A

mitochondria

91
Q

Cellular respiration is the process of cells taking in ______ and producing ______ to generate energy.

A. Glucose; NADH

B. FAD; FADH2

C. CO2; ATP

D. NAD+; NADH

E. O2; CO2

A

E

92
Q
The complete degradation of glucose via cellular respiration occurs in \_\_\_\_\_\_ phases.
  1 
  2 
  3 
  alternate 
  reversible
A

3

93
Q
The PDH complex has three enzymes, which are referred to as:
  P, D, and H 
  E1, E2, and E3 
  Enzyme A, Enzyme B, and Enzyme C 
  Enzyme a, Enzyme b, and Enzyme c 
  None of the above
A

E1, E2, E3

94
Q

Of the following, which coenzyme(s) is (are) necessary for β-oxidation?

A. O2

B. FAD

C. GTP

D. Both A and B

E. None of the above

A

B

95
Q

The sequential process for oxidizing fatty acids to acetyl-CoA is often called:

A. β-degradation

B. α-degradation

C. Spiral

D. α-spiral

E. β-spiral

A

E

96
Q

At the end of the Preparatory Phase of glycolysis, there are two products. A) What are the two products? B) What happens to each product?

A

In step 5 of glycolysis, glucose (six-carbon) is converted to GAP and DHAP (both 3-carbons). GAP goes on in the glycolysis pathway. The other, DHAP, cannot go on through glycolysis directly; it is converted to GAP by triose phosphate isomerase.

97
Q

Glucose contains ___(A)_____ carbon atoms. The oxidation of a glucose molecule utilizes ______(B)______ ATP. Later, the ____(C)_____ three-carbon products of glycolysis produce ____(D)______ ATP by direct phosphorylation, which gives a net yield of two ATP. In addition, ____(E)_____ NADH are produced in glycolysis.

A

A) six

B) two

C) two

D)four

E) two

98
Q

he complete oxidative catabolism of glucose to form CO2 and H2O occurs in three phases. Describe each of the three phases giving the important pathway in each phase and the energy molecules produced in each.

A

First phase: Glucose metabolism begins with glycolysis which degrades the molecule into two molecules of pyruvate and also produces 2 ATP and 2 NADH molecules. The pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA. Second Phase: the acetyl-CoA groups are shuttled through the citric acid cycle to generate GTP, NADH, FADH2 molecules along with the release of CO2. Third Phase: the NADH and FADH2 coenzymes are themselves oxidized in the mitochondria to yield ATP by a process called oxidative phosphorylation.

99
Q

True or False: The majority of reactions of the urea cycle occur on the ribosome.

A

False

100
Q

True or False: FADH2 yields 2.5 ATP molecules after donating electrons and hydrogen atoms to the electron transfer chain (ETC).

A

False

101
Q

True or False: ATP is invested in the urea cycle.

A

True

102
Q

True or False: There are six complexes associated with the ETC.

A

False

103
Q

True or False: In the production of ATP via ATP synthase, the H+ ions move from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space.

A

False

104
Q
The urea cycle involves \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ reactions (only those in the cyclic portion of the process).
  4 
  5 
  6 
  8 
  10
A

4`

105
Q
Which amino acids are involved in the urea cycle?
  A. Ornithine 
  B. Aspartate 
  C. Threonine 
  D. Both A and B 
  E. Both A and C
A

D

106
Q

Fumarate reenters the mitochondrion as which of the following molecules?

  Malate 
  Ornithine 
  Citrulline 
  Fumarase 
  Ammonia
A

malate

107
Q
Urea is useful for excreting nitrogen from cells due to its:
  A. Ability to form London forces 
  B. High density of nitrogen atoms 
  C. Large size 
  D. Low melting point 
  E. Both B and C
A

B

108
Q
Which component of the urea cycle is also a member of the CAC?
  Fumarate 
  Malate 
  Acetyl-CoA 
  Citrate 
  None of the above
A

Fumarate

109
Q

Oxidative deamination of an amino acid results in a carbon skeleton and the formation of __________.

A. N2

B. NH4+

C. NO2

D. NH2

E. NH3

A

B

110
Q

FADH2 donates electrons and H+ to complex ______.

  I 
  II 
  III 
  IV 
  V
A

III

111
Q

Which of the ETC complexes does NOT pump H+ ions?

  Complex I 
  Complex II 
  Complex III 
  Complex IV 
  Both A and B
A

complex II

112
Q
What protein shuttles electrons from Complex III to Complex IV?
  NADH dehydrogenase 
  Cytochrome C 
  Fumarase 
  Cytochrome B 
  None of the above
A

cytochrome C

113
Q
What molecule transfers electrons and H+ ions from complexes I and II and transfers them to complex III
?
  NADH 
  FAD 
  Cytochrome C 
  Cytochrome B 
  CoQ
A

CoQ

114
Q

In what portion of the mitochondrion does the CAC take place?

  Matrix 
  Intermembrane space 
  Inner membrane 
  Outer membrane 
  Both B and C
A

matrix

115
Q

At which complex does the following reaction take place?

O2 + 4e- + 4H+ → 2H2O

  Complex I 
  Complex II 
  Complex III 
  Complex IV 
  Both A and B
A

Complex IV

116
Q

During the electron transport chain, protons are pumped from _________ in the mitochondria.
From the intermembrane space to the cytosol
From the intermembrane space to the matrix
From the matrix to the intermembrane space
From outside of the cell to the cytosol
From outside of the cell to the matrix

A

from matrix to intermembrane space

117
Q

Energy released _________________ is utilized for the synthesis of ATP.
As protons flow through ATP synthase and back into the mitochondrial matrix
In the digestion of proteins
In the degradation of carbohydrates
In the formation of ATP
None of the above

A

as protons flow through ATP synthase and back into mitochondrial matrix

118
Q

At which part of ATP synthase is ATP produced?

A. FO

B. F1

C. F2

D. Stator

E. Both A and C

A

B

119
Q
An individual with the MERRF disease, tend to have symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  Blood pressure issues 
  Headaches 
  Degenerated nerve cells 
  Red eyes 
  None of the above
A

Degenerated nerve cells

120
Q
In mitochondria, the complex that produces ATP is located in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
You Answered
  A. Intermembrane space 
  B. Outer membrane 
  C. Inner membrane 
  D. Both A and B 
  E. Both B and C
A

C

121
Q

_______ causes ATP to be produced.

A. GTP

B. Rotation of ATP synthase

C. Heat applied to ATP synthase

D. H2O in ATP synthase

E. None of the above

A

B

122
Q

Which of the following is not a part of ATP synthase?

A. FO

B. F1

C. F2

D. Axle

E. Stator

A

C

123
Q

ADP and Pi; ATP; GTP; reductive; citric acid cycle; electron transport chain; three; eight; ten

Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in ___(A)_____ phases using NADH and FADH2 generated from the ___(B)_____.

Oxidative phosphorylation is the synthesis of ____(C)______ from ____(D)_______, using energy generated by the _____(E)______ reactions.

A

A) three

B) citric acid cycle

C) ATP

D) ADP and Pi

E) electron transport chain

124
Q

According to the chemiosmotic theory, how is the ETC connected to ATP production?

Explain in at least four complete sentences.

A

The chemical reactions of the ETC provide energy to pump H+ ions from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space. The reactions also provide electrons and H+ to convert oxygen into water. The net result is that the H+ gradients permit a flow H+ to rotation ATP synthase, producing ATP.

125
Q

Consider the importance of the mitochondria in energy production.

A. What structural features of mitochondria support ATP formation?

And

B. Where are the complexes of the ETC located in Mitochondria?

Explain in at least four complete sentences.

A

This organelle is the central hub of energy production in the cell and has a complicated structure, including two membranes. The mitochondrion has an outer membrane and an inner membrane. The outer membrane is a bilayer with porin proteins that permit ions and molecules to cross into the intermembrane space. The intermembrane space is the solution between the outer and inner membranes. The inner membrane is a highly selective bilayer permitting only select ions and molecules to cross. The selectivity is crucial for maintaining specific concentrations of H+, ATP, and other species in the mitochondrial matrix. The inner membrane also contains the electron transport chain’s protein complexes, which accepts the electrons from the coenzymes. The matrix is the innermost space of mitochondrion, where the citric acid cycle occurs along portions of fatty acid oxidation and the urea cycle. Once the NADH and FADH2 are produced by the citric acid cycle, they are in proximity to the electron transport chain, so that donation of electrons and hydrogen ions is efficient.

126
Q

True or False: According to the Module, a compound with a molecular mass of 12,000 g/mol is considered a macromolecule.

A

True

127
Q

True or False: Biomolecules can have only one functional group.

A

False

128
Q

True or False: In a eukaryotic cell, the organelles called ribosomes serve the purpose of digesting macromolecules.

A

False

129
Q

True or False: Carbon dioxide has a linear molecular shape AND has a bond angle of 180o.

A

True

130
Q

Of the following, ____________ is not a property of carbon.

  covalent bonding 
  forming cyclic structures 
  forming multiple bonds 
  forming five bonds 
  bonding in long chains
A

forming five bonds

131
Q
Which of the following is an element not typically found in living organisms?
  Se 
  S 
  P 
  F 
  Na
A

F

132
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a functional group found in carbohydrates.
  Esters 
  Thiols 
  Carboxylic acids 
  Alcohols 
  Amines
A

alcohol

133
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a chemical formula that shows how the atoms of a molecule are bonded to one another.
  Structural formula 
  Line bond formula 
  Empirical formula 
  Ionic formula 
  Condensed formula
A

structural formula

134
Q
In biomolecular structure, if two macromolecules interact it is called a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
  Monomer 
  Dimer 
  Macromolecular structure 
  Supramolecular complex 
  Quasimer complex
A

supramolecular complex

135
Q
An organic compound with this structure, C–OH, contains a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ functional group.
  Alkane 
  Alkene 
  Alkyne 
  Alcohol 
  Both b and d
A

alcohol

136
Q
What element has been called the “super glue” of the chemical world?
  Ca 
  C 
  H 
  O 
  N
A

Carbon

137
Q

What energy molecule is produced via respiration?

  ATP 
  Creatine 
  DNA 
  RNA 
  mitochondria
A

ATP

138
Q

What would be the approximate size of a human cell?

a. 12 μm
b. 1 nm
c. 15 nm
d. 0.2 inch
e. 15 cm

A

A

139
Q
For propane, there are\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ carbon and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_hydrogen atoms.
  5, 12 
  4, 10 
  3, 6 
  3, 5 
  None of the above
A

3.6

140
Q
For an organic compound, which structure is the most efficient to draw?
  Condensed 
  Kekule’ 
  Line bond 
  Structural 
  None of these
A

Line bond

141
Q
When writing an organic functional group, scientists often write an “R” as part of the structure. What does the R indicate?
  A string of carbon atoms 
  Radon 
  Routine carbon atom 
  Rest of the molecule 
  None of the above
A

Rest of the molecule

142
Q

According to the module, the study of NON-carbon compounds is referred to as____.

  Organic chemistry 
  Inorganic chemistry 
  Biochemistry 
  Environmental chemistry 
  None of the above.
A

inorganic chemistry

143
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ functional group was NOT discussed in this module.
  Alcohol 
  Amine 
  Aromatic 
  Thiol 
  All of these were discussed.
A

all were discussed

144
Q
Which number would be closest to the approximate number of ribosomes in an E. coli cell?
  A. 1 
  B. 25 
  C. 250 
  D. 25,000 
  E. Both c and d
A

D

145
Q
Which of the following would most likely have a cell wall?
  Marigold flower cells 
  Deer cells 
  Heart cells 
  Human red blood cells 
  All of the above
A

marigold flower cells

146
Q

Eukaryotes have molecules that provide a protective structure. This network, which is found in all eukaryotes, is called the _____________.

  Cell wall 
  Cytoplasm 
  Cytosol 
  Cytoskeleton 
  Both Cell wall and Cytoskeleton
A

Cytoskeleton

147
Q
What is the molecule responsible for gout?
  Luciferin 
  Uric acid 
  Acetic acid 
  Glucose 
  Glycine
A

uric acid

148
Q
About how many different elements are found in living organisms?
 9 
  30 
  50 
  68 
  92
A

30

149
Q

All cells share a foundational property at the cellular level. Give a brief explanation of this foundational similarity.

A

The fundamental similarity is that each cell type has a plasma membrane that separates life from non-life. The plasma membrane acts as a barrier to most molecules but does have proteins that permit select molecules to cross via proteins (transporters). The plasma membrane permits the cell to have a different composition of molecules inside the cell than out and defines a space for life to occur.

150
Q

According to the Module, are smaller elements or large elements favored in biological molecules? Explain which one (smaller or larger) are preferred and give at least two examples of elements (smaller or larger) common in the biomolecules.

A

Smaller elements are preferred. These elements with smaller atomic shells are favored because they can form stable covalent bonds. Strong bonds form by significant overlap of atoms, such as carbon and hydrogen permitting them to share electrons. The bond that forms requires a substantial amount of energy to break, which allows the bonds to withstand insults, such as mechanical and thermal stresses. This bond strength is good news for living organisms. Stable bonds allow cells to form, hair to grow, and skin to protect against abrasion.

These elements are common: H, C, O, N, P, S, and Cl. (Se is borderline).

Larger elements tend to form ionic compounds–not covalent.

151
Q

What element is the basis for life? Describe at least two properties of this element that permit it to serve the basis for life.

A
  1. Carbon can form strong covalent bonds with a variety of different elements. 2. Besides, carbon can form double and triple bonds with other carbon atoms and other elements (N and o). 3. Carbon can form long chains by forming numerous carbon-carbon bonds; we call these large molecules polymer. 4. Lastly, carbon can form cyclic structures, which are also called ring compounds.
152
Q

What the definition of inorganic chemistry? How does it differ from organic chemistry?

A

Inorganic chemistry is the study of all other elements, but carbon. Organic chemistry is the study of carbon-based compounds both in living and non-living organisms. There is no need to have separate sub-disciples for organic and inorganic chemistry, but for historical and organizational reasons, the difference exists.

153
Q

Biochemists study the communication within and among organisms. According to the module, what are two other aspects of living organisms that biochemists study?

A

In the module, biochemists also study the structure and function of biomolecules and the chemical reactions of organisms.

154
Q

The amino acids serine and threonine both contain sulfur atoms.

A

False

155
Q

The side chain of leucine is bonded to the backbone nitrogen atom.

A

False

156
Q

The name of the molecule that binds to an enzyme is called the ligand.

A

False

157
Q

An inhibitor that binds at the active site is a noncompetitive inhibitor.

A

False

158
Q

Which amino acids differ by only one atom?

  Ser and Cys 
  Ser and Thr 
  Leu and Ile 
  Ala and Ser 
  Asp and Asn
A

Ser and Cys

159
Q
The formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids is an example of a(n) \_\_\_\_\_ reaction.
  Cleavage 
  Condensation 
  Group transfer 
  Isomerization 
  Double-bond breaking
A

Condensation

160
Q

The peptide Ala-Glu-Gly-Ala has ______ .

  A disulfide bond 
  Five peptide bonds 
  Four peptide bonds 
  Three peptide bonds 
  No C-terminal
A

Three peptide bonds

161
Q

Formally, when there are 99 or fewer amino acids are covalently linked together that is called a _________.

  Polypeptide 
  Oligopeptide 
  Peptide 
  Protein 
  Polyprotein
A

polypeptide

162
Q

What unit is used by biochemists to indicate the mass of a protein?

  kDa 
  kBa 
  Mol/g 
  g/mol 
  kg
A

kDa

163
Q

All of the 20 standard amino acids contain an R-group that is attached to the:

A) 𝛼 carbon
B) Carboxyl group
C) Amino group
D) 𝛽 carbon
E) None of the above
A

A

164
Q

Which of the following correctly matches the amino acid with its one letter abbreviation?

  Isoleucine, S 
  Lysine, K 
  Phenylalanine, P 
  Glutamic acid, G 
  Arginine, A
A

Lysine, K

165
Q

The order of amino acids in a protein is written _________.
3’ to 5’
5’ to 3’
N to C-terminus
C to N-terminus
Smallest to largest amino acid by weight

A

N to C- terminus

166
Q
In one turn of a helix, there approximate \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ amino acids.
  2.3 
  3.6 
  4.2 
  5.4 
  None of the above
A

3.6

167
Q

In an alpha helix, the R groups on the amino acid residues:

Alternate between the inside and outside of the helix
Cause only left-handed helices to form
Generate the hydrogen bonds that form the helix
Stack within the interior of the helix
Are found on the outside of the helix spiral

A

are found on the outside of the helix spiral

168
Q

Motifs are classified primarily by their:
Amino acid sequence
Evolutionary relationships
Content and arrangement of the secondary structure
Content and arrangement of the tertiary structure
Subunit content and arrangement

A

content and arrangement of the secondary structure

169
Q

A single folded polypeptide has a globular shape, which describes its ________ structure.

You Answered
  Secondary 
  Tertiary 
  Quaternary 
  Quasi 
  Motif
A

tertiary

170
Q
How many classes of enzymes are recognized by the IUBMB?
  5 
  6 
  7 
  10 
  25
A

6

171
Q
An enzyme requires Cr+3 for catalysis. Under conditions of chromium deficiency, when the enzyme lacks chromium, this enzyme would be referred to as a(n):
  Holoenzyme 
  Apoenzyme 
  Active enzyme 
  Inhibitor 
  Competitive inhibitor
A

apoenzyme

172
Q

When a substrate has just started its conversion to a new molecule, it is said to be in the ________.

  Stable mode 
  Unstable mode 
  Transition state 
  Conversion State 
  Conversion Mode
A

transition state

173
Q

Which of the following would change the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

amino acids, concentration, and temperature
pH, concentration, and temperature
pH, polarity, and concentration
polarity, concentration, and temperature
pH, polarity, and temperature

A

pH, concentration and temperature

174
Q

The concept of induced fit refers to the fact that:
When a substrate binds to an enzyme, the enzyme induces loss of water
Enzyme specificity is induced in the enzyme-substrate
The enzyme-substrate binding increases the temperature
Substrate binding induces a conformation change in the enzyme
The substrate bends and twists before it binds to the enzyme

A

substrate binding induces a conformation change in the enzyme

175
Q

The ES stands for:

  Enzyme-substrate 
  Energy-substance 
  Enzyme-specificity 
  Energy-specificity 
  None of the above
A

Enzyme substrate

176
Q
Any molecule or ion that is necessary for an enzyme’s function is called a:
  Cofactor 
  Coreactant 
  Coproduct 
  Bienzyme 
  Both B and C
A

cofactor

177
Q

Staphylokinase is said to be a dimer. A) What is a dimer? B) Structurally, a dimer describes what level of protein organization?

A

A) This enzyme has two independent polypeptide chains interacting non-covalently. In this case, they are identical chains.

B) It is describing the quaternary structure, which has two or more independent polypeptide chains that associate with one another to form a quaternary structure.

178
Q

There are collections of protein structure that fit between true secondary and true tertiary structure. What is the name of the collections of protein structure? Explain this type of structure.

A

Motifs occupy a position between secondary and tertiary. Motifs are particularly stable arrangements of secondary structure, including the connections between them. Motifs are found in a variety of proteins from across all organisms.

179
Q

What is the lowest level of protein structure? And B) How do scientists communicate information about this level?

A

The primary level is the order of amino acids covalently bonded together, including disulfide bonds, in a polypeptide chain. The primary sequence is written, for proteins, from N to C terminal using the one-letter or three-letter abbreviations.

180
Q

Define the term “active site.”

A

The active site is the spot on the enzyme where catalysis takes place. This area is often small when compared to the overall size of the protein. In fact, about 10 amino acids make up the active site.

181
Q

The pH of a solution of 2.5 x 10-5 M NaOH is:

A. 9.4

B. 2.5 x 10-5

C. 9.5

D. 9.0

E. 9.12

A

A

182
Q

Water is a unique molecule. Which of the following contributes to water’s unique place in the chemical world?
The geometry of the molecule
The polarity of the O-H bonds
The ability of water molecules to hydrogen bond
The bond angle of water
All of the answers are correct

A

All the answers are correct

183
Q

What factor contributes to the bent shape of a water molecule?

The dipole arrows in a water molecule
The unshared electron pairs on the oxygen atom
The electronegativity difference between hydrogen and oxygen
The unequal electron sharing between hydrogen and oxygen
None of the answers are correct

A

The unshared electron pairs on the oxygen atom

184
Q

The H+ concentration of a solution is 5.6 x 10-5 What is the pH?

  • 4.25
    1. 25
    2. 65
      - 9.75
    3. 75
A

4.25

185
Q

If the Ka of an acid is 2.67 x 10-5, what is the pKa?

  1. 45
  2. 25
  3. 26
  4. 67
  5. 57
A

4.57

186
Q

List the acids in INCREASING order of strength (weakest to strongest):

Nitrous acid (Ka = 4.0 x 10-4); acetic acid (Ka = 1.7 x 10-5); phosphoric acid (Ka = 7.3 x 10-3)

Nitrous acid, acetic acid, phosphoric acid
Acetic acid, nitrous acid, phosphoric acid
Phosphoric acid, nitrous acid, acetic acid
Acetic acid, phosphoric acid, nitrous acid
None of the above

A

acetic acid, nitrous acid, phosphoric acid

187
Q

Elemental bromine (Br2) is a liquid at room temperature. What is the dominant attractive force that exists between Br2 molecules in the liquid?

  Halogen forces 
  Dipole-dipole forces 
  Hydrogen bonds 
  Covalent bonds 
  London forces
A

London forces

188
Q

Which one of the following molecules can form a hydrogen bond?

A. HBr

B. HCl

C. NH3

D. CH4

E. H2

A

C

189
Q

A hydrogen bond can form between a hydrogen atom bonded to nitrogen, N–H, and ________.

  C 
  O 
  Cl 
  P 
  Br
A

Oxygen

190
Q

In a bond between P and Cl, there exists a difference in electronegativity resulting in partial positive and partial negative charges. If a dipole arrow were added to this structure, which way would the arrow point?

M2 Exam 11b.png

The arrow points from Br toward N
The arrow points from N toward Br
Two arrows; one pointed in each direction
There would not be a dipole arrow in this case.
None of the above

A

arrow points between N and Br

191
Q

The following reaction occurs in glues purchased from hardware stores. Customers use this product to glue plastic together.

Epoxy (l) + hardener (l) ⟶ Glue (s) + heat given off

What is the sign (+ or -) of the change in ΔG and ΔH?

A) ΔG is (+) and ΔH is (-)

B) ΔG is (-) and ΔH is (-)

C) ΔG is (-) and ΔH is (+)

D) ΔG is (+) and ΔH is (+)

E) None of the above

A

B

192
Q

Which of the following is the free-energy change of a reaction?

A) G

B) ΔS

C) ΔH

D) ΔG

E) All of the above

A

D

193
Q

Which of the following is the change in entropy of a reaction?

A) ΔG
B) ΔE
C) ΔH
D) ΔF
E) None of the above
A

E

194
Q

Which buffer system is used by the blood to maintain pH balance?

  Vinegar buffer system 
  Acetic acid buffer system 
  Bicarbonate buffer system 
  Water buffers system 
  Formic acid buffer system
A

Bicarbonate buffer system

195
Q
A buffer can neutralize only a certain amount of acid and base.  We say that this is its:
  Buffer limit 
  Buffer range 
  Buffer maintenance 
  Buffer capability 
  Buffer capacity
A

buffer capacity

196
Q
Is a pH of 8.36 acidic, neutral, or basic?
  Acidic 
  Neutral 
  Basic 
  Both Acidic and Basic 
  Both Neutral and Basic
A

Basic

197
Q

The “ion product” is equal to what value?

A. 1.0 x 10-14

B. 1.0 x 10-7

C. 2.1 x 10-7

D. 5.6 X 10-13

E. None of the abo

A

A

198
Q
n equilibrium constant expressions, the double brackets [ ] indicate:
  The ion product 
  Acid 
  Base 
  Concentration in molarity 
  The acid dissociation constant, Ka
A

concentration in molarity

199
Q

A pH = 5.0 indicates a concentration of OH- (in M) of __________.

A. 5

B. 10-5

C. 10-9

D. 10-1

E. 101

A

C

200
Q

Which of the following compounds would not be soluble in water?

A. NaCl

B. OH-

C. Glucose

D. Wax

E. All of the above would be soluble

A

D

201
Q

The oxygen in water has what type of hybridization?

A. sp

B. sp2

C. sp3

D. sp3d

E. All of the above

A

C

202
Q

Three identical molecules dissolve in water. Each molecule contains both a polar portion and nonpolar portion of structure. The three molecules interact in such a way that the nonpolar sections align. This is an example of the _________.

 Hydrophilic rule 
  Hydrophobic effect 
  Buffering capacity 
  Hydrogen bonding effect 
  All of the above
A

Hydrophobic effect

203
Q

How does the strength of a covalent bond compare to the strength of London Forces and hydrogen bonds? Briefly comment on these differences.

A

A typical covalent bond is around 400 kcal, while a London force is less than 1 kcal. So, a covalent bond is at least 400 times the size a London force.

The hydrogen bond strength is between 12 and 16 kcal, which makes the covalent bond about 40 times a hydrogen bond. Moreover, hydrogen bonds are the strongest non-covalent force, so this is significant.

204
Q

t cool temperatures, water vapor turns into liquid water releasing heat in the process. Fill in the missing blanks, below, regarding this process. Please identify your answers by writing “A.” then your answer, “B” then your answer, and so forth.

The free-energy change, ΔG, has a _____A______ value (choose “+” or “-“).

The enthalpy change, __B___ (fill in symbol), has a ___C_____ value (choose “+” or “-“).

The _____D______change, (ΔS), has a ______E_____ value (choose “+” or “-“).

A

A) “-“

B) ΔH

C) “-“

D) entropy

E) “-”

205
Q

A group of molecules forms a clathrate in water. What is a clathrate and why does it form?

A

The hydrophobic effect helps scientists explain how biological molecules form and interact. For instance, when molecules with both a nonpolar and polar regions dissolve in water, the nonpolar regions pack together. The packing of the nonpolar regions minimizes the interaction with water and the polar region interact with water, which in total is called the hydrophobic effect. The driving force behind this effect is the spontaneous drive of water to bind to itself through hydrogen bonds. To maximize the hydrogen bonds, water orders itself around the hydrophobic portion of the nonpolar regions in a cage structure also called a clathrate. In so doing, water can form bonds with itself and also permit the nonpolar regions to be dissolved.