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Final Last Ye Flashcards

1
Q

ANATOMY 1. Which of the following is wrong for the hypophysis? A. It has two major parts, neurohypophysis and adenohypophysis B. It lies within pituitary fossa C. Diaphragma sellae covers the hypophysis superiorly D. Superior and inferior hypophysial artery supply the hypophysis E. Vasopressin and oxytocin are secreted to neurohypophysis, via the portal system

A

E. Vasopressin and oxytocin are secreted to neurohypophysis, via the portal system

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2
Q

A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a large mass at her thyroid gland. Ultrasound examination reveals a benign tumor. Twenty-four hours following a partial thyroidectomy, in which the inferior thyroid artery was also ligated, the patient speaks with a hoarse voice and has difficulty in breathing on exertion. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the surgical procedure? A. Internal branch of superior laryngeal B. Ansa cervicalis C. Ansa subclavia D. Recurrent laryngeal E. External branch of superior laryngeal

A

Recurrent laryngeal

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3
Q

Middle suprarenal artery is the branch of which of the following artery? A. Inferior phrenic artery B. Renal artery, C.Abdominal aorta D. Celiac trunk E. Superior mesenteric artery

A

Abdominal aorta

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4
Q

3-month-old infant is under observation in the pediatric clinic. The patient has no thymus, congenital parathyroidism and thyroid hypoplasia. Abnormal development of which of the following pharyngeal pouches or arches will most likely produce these defects? A. First and second B. Second and third C. Third and fourth D. Fourth E. Fourth and sixth

A

C

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5
Q

Pregnant women who have begun labor but in whom this process is no longer progressing are often given an IV injection of X drug to stimulate uterine contractions and facilitate parturition. X drug consists of an hormone secreted in what endocrine tissue? A. Pars distalis B. Ovarian follicles C. Pars nervosa D. Placenta

A

Pars nervosa

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6
Q

Addison disease (or adrenal cortex insufficiency) is a disorder, usually autoimmune in origin, which can cause degeneration and cell loss in the adrenal glands. Fludrocortisone is a mineralocorticoid used to treat Addison patients. Response to this drug indicates that which region of the adrenal glands was involved,in the disease? A. Medulla B. Zona glomerulosa C. Zona reticularis D. Macula densa E. Zona fasciculate

A

Zona glomerulosa

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7
Q

40-year-old woman complains of recent changes in her bodily appearance, including upper truncal weight gain and moon facies. Endocrine studies reveal elevated serum levels of cortisol and corticotropin (ACTH). The patient is subsequently diagnosed with Cushing disease. ACTH is synthesized primarily by endocrine cells in which of the following anatomic locations? A. Adrenal cortex, zona fasciculata B. Adrenal cortex, zona glomerulosa C. Adrenal cortex, zona reticularis D. Anterior pituitary E. Neurohypophysis

A

Anterior pituitar

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8
Q

Secretion, chemical modification and storage, reuptake, and digestion of a protein occur in epithelial cells of what endocrine tissue? A. Neurohypophysis B. Adrenal medulla C. Adenohypophysis D. Thyroid gland E. Neuroendocrine cells in the duodenum

A

Thyroid gland

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9
Q

What is the name of the organ and the structure’s name that is showed by star? A. Pineal gland- Corpora arenacea B. Adrenal gland- zona fasciculata C. Thyroid gland- Colloid D. Parathyroid gland- Adipocyte E. Pituitary gland- Acidophilic cell

A

Thyroid gland- Colloid

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10
Q
  1. Which one of the following effects is wrong for the mode of action of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) in carbohydrate and fat metabolism? A. Activated by elevated [AMP] B. Activated by decreased [ATP] C. Activates the fatty acid synthesis and lipolysis in adipose tissue D. Activated by peptide hormones (leptin, adiponectin) produced in adipose tissue E. Activates fatty acid and glucose uptake and oxidation in heart and skeletal muscle
A

Activates the fatty acid synthesis and lipolysis in adipose tissue

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11
Q

Which one of the following steroids is made both by the adrenal glands and the gonads? A. Cortisol B. 11-deoxycortisol C. Aldosterone D. Estrogen E. Corticosterone

A

Estrogen

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12
Q

Under starvation conditions which of the following substances is the preferred source of fuel for brain tissue? A. Glucose B. Fatty acids C. Liver glycogen D. Acetone E. Acetoacetate (2 Acetyl-CoA)

A

Acetoacetate (2 Acetyl-CoA)

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13
Q

Which one of the following mineralocorticoids is the most potent one among all the others? A. 11-deoxycorticosterone B. 18-oxycortisol C. Aldosterone D. Corticosterone E. Cortisol

A

Aldosterone

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14
Q

Which organ is the site of synthesis of leptin? A. Heart B. Kidneys C. Pancreas D. Adipose tissue E. Gastrointestinal tract

A

Adipose tissue

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15
Q

Which one of the following substances is the precursor of most steroid hormones? A. Amino acids B. Cholesterol C. Glycoproteins D. Bile acids E. Cortisol

A

Cholesterol

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16
Q

Which statement is wrong for the function of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)? A. Production is regulated by the stimulatory action of TRH B. Production is regulated by the inhibition of free T4 C. Production is regulated by the inhibition of free T3 D. Uptake of iodide into thyroid follicular epithelium is stimulated E. Thyroglobulin (Tg) synthesis and secretion are inhibited

A

Thyroglobulin (Tg) synthesis and secretion are inhibited

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17
Q

Which one of the followings is one of the first target tissues of hypothalamic hormones? A. Adrenal cortex B. Testes C. Thyroid D. Anterior pituitary E. Ovary

A

D. Anterior pituitary

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18
Q

In untreated diabetes, when the insulin level is insufficient, which of the following events does not take place in extrahepatic tissues? A. Glucose cannot be taken up efficiently from the blood B. Levels of malonyl-CoA (the starting material for fatty acid synthesis in the liver) fall C. Inhibition of carnitine acyltransferase-1 occurs D. Fatty acids enter mitochondria to be degraded to acetyl-CoA E. Citric acid cycle intermediates have been drawn off for use as substrates in Gluconeogenesis

A

Inhibition of carnitine acyltransferase-1 occurs

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19
Q

Which of the following matchings is correct regarding the characteristics of Type I and Type Il diabetes? A. Type I diabetes- Inflammation activation by IL-1 beta stimulation B. Type Il diabetes- Development of antibodies against the beta cell enzyme glutamic acid decarboxylase C. Type Il diabetes- HLA DR3 or HLA DR4 association D. Type I diabetes- Decrease in the number and size of pancreatic islet cell from the first stages E. Type I diabetes- controllable with diet and/or hypoglycemic agents

A

D. Type I diabetes- Decrease in the number and size of pancreatic islet cell from the first stages

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the mechanism of polyphagia in diabetic patients? A. The loss of water and electrolytes stimulates osmoreceptors in the brain, thus polyphagia occurs, B. It causes an increase in oxidative stress in the cells with the decrease of glutathione in the cells. Polyphagia occurs for cellular damage repair. C. Gluconeogenesis increases with the depletion of glycogen stores. Polyphagia occurs due to negative energy balance. D. Polyphagia occurs when the renal threshold for blood sugar absorption increases. E. The increase in plasma LDL level stimulates the hunger center in the brain, short-term
A

C. Gluconeogenesis increases with the depletion of glycogen stores. Polyphagia occurs due to negative energy balance.

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a change in the kidneys caused by diabetes? A. Thickening of the capillary basement membrane B. Deposition of hyaline material in the arteriolar intima C. Diffuse mesangial sclerosis D. Ball-like deposits of a laminated matrix in the periphery of the glomerulus E. Deposition of immune complexes in the glomerular basement membrane
A

E. Deposition of immune complexes in the glomerular basement membrane

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22
Q
  1. From the history of a 36-year-old female patient, it was determined that she had stomach pain that did not respond to antacid drugs, and severe diarrhea two weeks before the onset of pain. In the upper gastrointestinal endoscopic examination, multiple superficial ulcers in the stomach and duodenum are detected, and in the abdominal tomography, a well-circumscribed solid mass of 1,5 cm in diameter is detected in the body of the pancreas. With these findings, what is your most likely diagnosis for a mass in the pancreas? A. Neuroblastoma B. Gastrinoma C. Insulinoma D. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma E. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm
A

B. Gastrinoma

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23
Q

Which of the following changes is likely to be seen in the adrenal gland cortex of a patient with Crooke’s hyaline change in the pituitary gland examination? A. Lipid-rich cells B. Spironolactone bodies C. Leydig cell hyperplasia D. Coagulative necrosis E. Chromaffin cell hyperplasia

A

A. Lipid-rich cells

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24
Q

A 64-year-old man with hypertension presented with a clinical history of intermittent abdominal pain for one year. It was determined in the clinical history that the patient had occasional complaints of palpitation, headache and sweating. He was found to have an elevated blood pressure of 170/90 and no palpable abdominal mass. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) imaging of the abdomen and pelvis were performed that showed mass measuring 5,5 cm in diameter arising from the left adrenal gland. Laboratory analysis showed an elevated plasma normetanephrine (NM) and metanephrine (MN). 24-hour urine showed elevated levels of NMN and MN. Which of the following is the expected change in the clinical finding of this patient after the surgical removal of the mass? A. Lengthening B. Decrease in body mass index C. Increase in sweating complaint D. Become normotensive E. Increased metanephrine in 24-hour urine

A

D. Become normotensive

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25
Q

the histomorphological examination of the mass removed from the thyroid gland of aI 44-year-old female patient, structures containing a central fibrovascular core surrounded by several rows of cuboidal cells were observed. The structures and changes observed above were noted in the nuclei of tumor cells (figure:) and 2) and between cells (figure:3). What is your probable diagnosis with these histomorphologiçal findings? A. Follicular adenoma B. Medullary carcinoma C. Follicular carcinoma D. Papillary carcinoma E. C cell hyperplasia

A
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26
Q

32-year-old female patient has mild fatigue and fever, neck pain, unilateral enlargement of the thyroid gland after an upper respiratory tract infection 15 days ago, independent of this infection. Laboratory examination reveals an increase in the amount of leukocytes and an increase in free T3 and free T4 levels, and no organ-specific antibodies are detected. If thyroid biopsy is taken at this stage in this case, which of the following is unlikely to be followed histomorphologically? A. Free colloid B. Deformed thyroid follicles C. Hurthle cells D. Neutrophil infiltration E. Foreign body type giant cells

A

C. Hurthle cells

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following causes an increased risk of fracture in a patient with hyperthyroidism? A. Increase in the number and size of mitochondria in bone cells B. Vasodilation in bone tissue C. Fatty change in bone cells D. Decreased synthesis of bone cells E. Decreased trabecular bone volume
A

E. Decreased trabecular bone volume

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is the main etiopathogenesis feature of endemic goiter cases? A. The negative effects of excessive sunlight on the thyroid gland in societies living in regions close to the equator B. Insufficient dietary iodine intake in some regions C. In the Nordic countries, water resources do not contain sufticient magnesium D. Prevalence of upper respiratory tract infection in regions south of the equator E. Insufficient gluten intake in far eastern countries
A

B. Insufficient dietary iodine intake in some regions

29
Q
  1. Which of the below diseases can be diagnosed by staining with growth hormone immunohistochemical staining? A. Corticotroph adenoma B. Prolactinoma C. Gonadotroph adenoma D. Thyrotroph adenoma E. Somatotroph adenoma
A

E. Somatotroph adenoma

30
Q
  1. Which one of the below features of obesity, is not associated with carcinogenesis? A. Elevated insulin-like growth factor-1 levels B. Increased estrogen hormone levels C. Low HDL-cholesterol levels D. Reduced adiponectin levels E. Proinflammatory state
A

C. Low HDL-cholesterol levels

31
Q
  1. Which of the below diseases is characterized by central obesity, glucose & lipid metabolism abnormalities, hypertension and systemic proinflammatory state? A. Metabolic syndrome B. Multiple endocrine neoplasia 2B C. Morbid obesity D. Pickwickian syndrome E. Multiple endocrine neoplasial
A

A. Metabolic syndrome

32
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism? A. Parathyroid carcinoma B. Thyroid papillary carcinoma C. Nodular primary hyperplasia of parathyroid gland D. Parathyroid adenoma E. Chief cell hyperplasia
A

D. Parathyroid adenoma

33
Q

Which of the below statements is correct for Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndromes (MEN)? A. In MEN- type 2A syndrome ganglioneuromas of mucosal surfaces is seen B. MEN-1 is caused by germ line mutation in the RET proto-oncogene C. Endocrine tumors of the pancreas are the leading cause of death in MEN typeZA D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a component of MEN type 2B E. Prolactin-secreting macroadenoma is a component of MEN 1

A

E. Prolactin-secreting macroadenoma is a component of MEN 1

34
Q

ENDOCRINOLOGY 34. What is wrong about Whipple’s triad? A. It’s a pathological condition that can be seen in insulinoma B. Low plasma glucose measured with a precise method C. Existance of hypoglycemia symptoms D. Relief of symptoms after glucose/dextrose administiration
E. Glucagonoma can cause Whipple’s triad

A

Glucagonoma can cause Whipple’s triad

35
Q

32-year-old woman complains difficulty of swallowing for the past month. The patient has also noted that her voice has been sounding different for the past 2 weeks. On physical exam there is a palpable, nontender nodule in the front of her neck that moves with swallowing. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy. Ultrasound of the neck shows a 1.9 cm nodule with microcalcifications. Risk factors include radiation exposure to the head and neck. Which one is wrong about this case? A. Histology of fine needle biopsy shows psammoma bodies (calcifications) B. Diagnosis of patient is papillary carcinoma C. Calcitonin level is necessary for follow up D. Total thyroidectomy is the main treatment choice E. Thyroglobulin follow up is necessary after surgery

A

C. Calcitonin level is necessary for follow up

36
Q

50 year old male who had a surgery history for thyroid cancer 2 months ago (total thyroidectomy.) begins to develop muscle cramps in his lower extremities and also begins to notice numbness around his mouth. In clinical workup he has Trousseau sign (forceful flexion of her wrist with abduction of the thumb when her blood pressure cuff was tightened) and Chvostek’s sign (tapping of the region anterior to the ears causes twitching of the perioral muscles) What is likely cause of this patient’s current symptoms and his laboratory finding? A. Hypoparathyroidism-hypercalcemia B. Hypoparathyroidism-hypocalcemia C. Hyperparathyroidism-hypercalcemia D. Hyperparathyroidism-hypocalcemia E. Hypoparathyroidism-hypermagnesemia

A

B. Hypoparathyroidism-hypocalcemia

37
Q

Which one is not the clinical finding of Cushing Syndrome? A. Bufalo hump B. Proximal myopahty C. Stria D. Weight loss E. Moon face

A

D. Weight loss

38
Q
  1. Which one is the most common reason of adrenal insufficiency? A. Chronic glucocorticoid excess B. Congenital isolated ACTH deficiency C. Adrenal infection D. Imparied steriodiogenesis E. Autoimmunity
A
  1. Which one is the most common reason of adrenal insufficiency? A. Chronic glucocorticoid excess B. Congenital isolated ACTH deficiency C. Adrenal infection D. Imparied steriodiogenesis E. Autoimmunity
39
Q
  1. Which one is the most common clinical finding of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)? A. Acne B. Irregular menstruation C. Obesity
    D. Infertility E. Acantosis nigricans
A

Acne

40
Q
  1. Which one is correct for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus? A. Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) >110 mg/dI B. Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) ≥125 mg/dL C. 2 h plasma glucose >200 mg/dL during an OGTT D. AIC>6.4% E. Random plasma glucose ≥199 mg/dL
A

C. 2 h plasma glucose >200 mg/dL during an OGTT

41
Q
  1. Which is wrong for diabetes mellitus? A. The most common infection sites are the skin and urinary tract in patients with diabetes mellitus B. Infections may precipitate metabolic derangements. C. The metabolic derangements of diabetes may facilitate infection. D. Minor local trauma in patients with diabetes-associated peripheral neuropathy may result in skin ulcers, which, in turn, lead to diabetic foot infections. E. Treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria is recommended in áll patients with diabetes Mellitus
A

. Treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria is recommended in áll patients with diabetes Mellitus

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common cause of invasive external otitis (Malignant otitis externa) in diabetic patients? A. Clostridium perfiringese B. Bacteroides fragilis C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Escherichia coli E. Coagulase negative staphylococci
A

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

43
Q
  1. A 56-year-old woman presented to the emergency room with tachycardia, shortness of breath, and chest pain. She has had shortness of breath and diarrhea for the last 2 days and was sweating and anxious. A relative reported that the patient had run out of methimazole 2 weeks earlier. A TSH measurement revealed a value of < 0.01 mIU/L (normal 0.4 4.0 mIU/L). The diagnosis of thyroid storm was made. Which of the following is a drug that is a useful adjuvant in the treatment of thyroid storm? A. Amiodarone B. Betamethasone C. Epinephrine D. Propranolol E. Radioactive iodine
A

Propranolol

44
Q

13-year-old boy with type 1 diabetes is brought to the hospital complaining of dizziness. Laboratory findings include severe hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis, and a blood pH of 7.15. (Following 2 questions) 44. Which of the following agents should be administered to achieve rapid control of the severe ketoacidosis in this diabetic boy? A. Regular insulin B. Glyburide C. Insulin glargine D. PH insulin suspension E. Tolbutamide

A
45
Q

24-year-old woman was found to have mild hyperthyroidism due to Graves’ disease. She appears to be in good health otherwise. (Following 2 questions) 46. In Graves’ disease, the cause of the hyperthyroidism is the production of an antibody that does which of the following? A. Activates the pituitary thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) receptor and stimulates TSH release B. Activates the thyroid gland TSH receptor and stimulates thyroid hormone synthesis and release C. Activates thyroid hormone receptors in peripheral tissues D. Binds to thyroid gland thyroglobulin and accelerates its proteolysis and the release of its supply of T4 and T3 E. Binds to thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) and displaces bound T4 and T3

A

B. Activates the thyroid gland TSH receptor and stimulates thyroid hormone synthesis and release

46
Q
  1. The decision is made to begin treatment with methimazole. Methimazole reduces serum concentration of free T3 primarily by which of the following mechanisms? A. Accelerating the peripheral metabolism of T3 B. Inhibiting the proteolysis of thyroid-binding globulin C. Preventing the addition of iodine to tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin D. Inhibiting the secretion of TSH E. Inhibiting the uptake of iodide by cells in the thyroid
A

Preventing the addition of iodine to tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin

47
Q

25-year-old woman presents with insomnia and fears she may have “something wrong with her heart.” She describes “her heart jumping out of her chest.” She feels healthy otherwise and reports she has lots of energy. Lab tests confirm hyperthyroidism. Which of the following is a drug that produces a permanent reduction in thyroid activity? A. Thiocyanate (SCN-)
B. Methimazole C. Propylthiouracil D.(Radioactive iodine) E. Thyroglobulin

A

D.(Radioactive iodine)

48
Q

A 62-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue, sluggishness, and weight gain. She needs to nap several times a day, which is unusual for her. She has been taking T4 for the past 15 years without significant problems regarding her energy level. Her recent history is significant for diagnosis of arrhythmia, and she is currently taking an antiarrhythmic drug. What is the most likely cause of her current condition? A. Amiodarone B. Lidocaine C.Procainamide D.Sotalol E. Verapamil

A

A. Amiodarone

49
Q
  1. Glucocorticoids have proved useful in the treatment of which of the following medical conditions? A. Essential hypertension B. Hyperprolactinemia C. Parkinson’s disease D. Chemotherapy-induced vomiting E. Type Il diabetes
A

D. Chemotherapy-induced vomiting

50
Q
  1. A 46-year-old male patient has Cushing’s syndrome due to an adrenal tumor. Which of the following drugs would be expected to reduce the signs and symptoms of this man’s disease? A. Ketoconazole B. Betamethasone C. Cortisol D. Fludrocortisone E. Triamcinolone
A

A. Ketoconazole

51
Q
  1. A patient presents with pain and stiffness in his wrists and knees. The stiffness is worse first thing in the morning. A blood test confirms rheumatoid arthritis. You advise a short course of steroids. Which one of the following is the most potent anti-inflammatory steroid? A. Cortisol B. Triamcinolone C. Fludrocortisone D. Prednisone E.Dexamethasone
A

E.Dexamethasone

52
Q
  1. A 56-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus had been maintained on a moderate daily dose of prednisone for 9 months. Her disease has finally gone into remission and she now wishes to gradually taper and then discontinue the prednisone. Gradual tapering of a glucocorticoid is required for recovery of which of the following? A. Depressed release of insulin from pancreatic B cells B. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal system C. Normal osteoblast function D.The control by vasopressin of water excretion E.Hematopoiesis in the bone marrow
A

B. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal system

53
Q
  1. Which of the following is both synthesized and stored in the hypothalamus? A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C. Luteinizing hormone (LH) D. Somatostatin E. Somatomedin
A

D. Somatostatin

54
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to occur in the early stages of type 2 diabetes mellitus? A. Increased insulin sensitivity B. Decreased hepatic glucose output C. Increased plasma levels of C-peptide D. Increased plasma B-hydroxybutyric acid E. Hypovolemia
A

C. Increased plasma levels of C-peptide

55
Q

Which is true about vasopressin? A. It is synthesized in the posterior pituitary gland B. It increases directly salt reabsorption in the collecting tubules and ducts C. It increases blood osmolality D. It increases urine osmolality E. It stimulates thirst

A

D. It increases urine osmolality

56
Q
  1. A 50-year-old man involved in an accident and brain hemorrhage occurred. Blood collection in the sella turcica compresses the portal vessels and disrupts the blood flow through the hypotalamus to anterior pituitary gland. Which of the following hormone may increase in this patient? A. TSH B. LH C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D. Prolactin E. Growth hormone (GH)
A

D. Prolactin

57
Q
  1. Which hormone is an example of neuroendocrine secretion? A. Oxytocin B. Aldosterone C. FSH D. Prolactin E. TSH
A

A. Oxytocin

58
Q
  1. Which of the following cannot occur in chronic cortisone administration? A. Decrease in ACTH secretion B. Hyperglycemia C. Increase in plasma C-peptide levels D. Increase in blood pressure E. Hypertrophy of the adrenal glands
A

E. Hypertrophy of the adrenal glands

59
Q
  1. Which of the following symptom cannot be seen at hypertyroidism? A. Tachycardia B. Increased appetite C. Somnolence D. Increased sweating E. Muscle tremor
A

C. Somnolence

60
Q
  1. Which hormone is not stored in its endocrine gland? A. Glucagon B. Insulin C. ADH D. Aldosterone E. T3
A

D. Aldosterone

61
Q

Which hormone’s receptor has enzymatic activity? A. Prolactin B. Glucagon C. Insulin D. ACTH E. Aldosterone

A

C. Insulin

62
Q

Which hormone is largely unbound to plasma proteins? A. Dihidroepiandrestenedion (DHEA) B. T4 C. Aldosterone D. ADH E. Cortisone

A

D. ADH

63
Q
  1. Vascular endothelia secrete chemicals acting on the neighboring cells via the extracellular matrix not the circulatory system. Which kind of regulation is that interaction? A. Neural B. Endocrine C. Neuroendocrine D. Paracrine E. Autocrine
A

D. Paracrine

64
Q
  1. Which change would be expected to occur with increased binding of a hormone to plasma proteins? A. Increase in plasma clearance of the hormone B. Decrease in half-life of the hormone C. Increase in hormone activity D. Increase in degree of negative feedback exerted by the hormone E. Increase in plasma reservoir for rapid replenishment of free hormone
A

E. Increase in plasma reservoir for rapid replenishment of free hormone

65
Q
  1. A 30-year-old woman is breastfeeding her infant. During suckling, which hormonal response is expected in the woman? A. Increased secretion of ADH from the supraoptic nuclei B. Increased secretion of ADH from the paraventricular nuclei C. Increased secretion of oxytocin from the paraventricular nuclei D. Decreased secretion of neurophysin E. Increased plasma levels of both oxytocin and ADH,
A

C. Increased secretion of oxytocin from the paraventricular nuclei

66
Q
  1. A chronic increase in the plasma concentration of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) would result in which of the following? A. An increased delivery of free T4 to target cells B. A decrease in plasma free T4 C. An increase in the conversion of free T4 to triiodothyronine (T3) in peripheral tissues D. An increase in TSH secretion E. No change in metabolic rate
A

E. No change in metabolic rate

67
Q
  1. A 40-year-old woman consumes a high-potassium diet for several weeks. Which hormonal change is most likely to occur? A. Increased secretion of DHEA B. Increased secretion of cortisol C. Increased secretion of aldosterone D. Increased secretion of ACTH E. Decreased secretion of CRH
A

C. Increased secretion of aldosterone

68
Q
  1. Which of the following enzyme deficiency is most likely in a female newborn with enlargement of the clitoris and complete labial fusion? A. 3-beta OH steroid dehydrogenase deficiency B. 21 Hydroxylase deficiency C. 11-beta hydroxvlase deficiency D. 17-alpha hydroxylase deficiency E. 20,22 desmolase deficiency
A

B. 21 Hydroxylase deficiency

69
Q
  1. Which of the following enzyme deficiency causes hypertension and female ambiguous genitale? A. 3-beta OH steroid dehydrogenase deficiency B. 21 Hydroxylase deficiency C. 1l-beta hydroxylase deficiency D. 17-alpha hydroxylase deficiency E. 20.22 desmolase deficiency
A

C. 1l-beta hydroxylase deficiency

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