Final Exam - Tuesday Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following features have been found in at least one of the nine genomic islands identified in Micavibrio? (Select all that apply)
    a) Heavy metal resistance genes
    b) Hemolysin protein genes
    c) Peptidoglycan binding protein genes
    d) Signal transduction pathway genes
A

a) Heavy metal resistance genes
b) Hemolysin protein genes
c) Peptidoglycan binding protein genes

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2
Q
  1. What is the difference between predator microbes such as Myxobacteria and Micavibrio?
A

Mycobacteria

  • Facultative predator
  • Use excreted hydrolytic enzymes to degrade prey cells
  • Hunts in large groups

Micavibrio

  • Obligate predator
  • “leeching” externally to the surface of the prey cell and releasing hydrolytic enzymes
  • Currently have only been proven to hunt one-on-one
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3
Q

(a) What experimental method was used to analyze the Micavibrio transcriptome,
(b) what 2 phases did this method identify, and
(c) what are some examples of genes which could be upregulated/downregulated during each phase?

A

a) RNA-Seq
b) Attack and attachment phases
c) Attack: chemotaxis, flagella, signal transduction Attachment: protein secretion, cell growth, cell division

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4
Q

W. pipientis typically infects

a) sperm and egg cells
b) ovaries and testes only
c) ovaries, testes, and eggs
d) ovaries, testes, eggs, and sperm
A

c) ovaries, testes, and eggs

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5
Q

2) Name one of the effects W. pipientis has on the reproduction of its host.

A
  • selectively kills males during larval stages
  • infected males develop as females
  • parthenogenesis
  • infected males cannot successfully mate with non-infected females or females infected with a different strain, affects chromosomes during first meiotic division
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6
Q

T/F: Both infected males and females can pass on the infection to their offspring.

A

False

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7
Q

How many phases of treatment are there for Melioidosis? Explain what occurs in each phase.

A

2

Intravenous (2 weeks)
Oral Antibiotics (3-6 months)
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8
Q
2. Burkholderia Pseudomallei is typically found in:
	A.  Woodsy areas
	B.  South America
	C.  Tropical Regions
	D.  Cattle
A

C. Tropical Regions

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9
Q
  1. Why is Melioidosis so hard to diagnose?
    A. The pathogen can’t be tested for
    B. B. pseudomallei have a long latency period
    C. There are many symptoms
    D. Symptoms mimic many other diseases
A

D. Symptoms mimic many other diseases

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10
Q

Which amino acid family is N. gonorrhoeae NOT a prototroph for?

a) Glutamate
b) Aromatics
c) Histidine
d) Aspartate

A

b) Aromatics

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Gonorrhea?
    a) Painful urination
    b) Vaginal or penile discharge
    c) Rash around the mouth
    d) Lower abdominal pain
A

c) Rash around the mouth

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12
Q
  1. N. gonorrhoeae is a
    a) Alpha-proteobacteria
    b) Beta-proteobacteria
    c) Gamma-proteobacteria
    d) Delta-proteobacteria
A

b) Beta-proteobacteria

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13
Q
What bioterrorism category is C. burnetii labeled as?
A
B
C
D
A

B

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14
Q

How many microbes does it take to establish an infection?

a) 60
b) 4
c) 10
d) 100

A

c) 10

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15
Q

What phylum is C. burnetii apart of?

A

gamma-proteobacteria.

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16
Q

Which below choice is not a mechanism of infection for F. tularensis?
A. Tick bite
B. Aerosolize and breath in F. Tularensis bacteria by running over a dead rabbit
C. Licking an F. Tularenis Ulcer on another human
D. Eating fully cooked rabbit meat

A

D. Eating fully cooked rabbit meat

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17
Q
F. tularensis is typically reservoir is:
	A.  Fresh water river, ponds, and lakes
	B.  Lagomorphs, rodents and deer
	C.  Humans
	D.  Ticks, mosquitos and deer flies
A

B. Lagomorphs, rodents and deer

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18
Q
F. Tularensis can survive only:
	A. when it is inside an organism
	B. for weeks in water, grassland, and haystacks
	C. one day outside a host
	D. in macrophages in the host organism
A

B. for weeks in water, grassland, and haystacks

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19
Q

What population does P. aeruginosa typically cause infection in?

A

Compromised hosts (animals, plants, and insects)

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20
Q
P. aeruginosa is found most commonly in 
A)Hospitals		
B)Soil and Water
C)Animals			
D)Plants
A

B) Soil and Water

21
Q
P. aeruginosa can use \_\_\_\_\_ in an anaerobic situation as a final e- acceptor
A)Nitrogen			
B)Sulfate
C)Nitrate				
D)fumarate
A

A) Nitrogen

22
Q

Of all the serovars of Salmonella enterica, which is known to cause the most disease in humans and animals?

a. Typhi
b. Enteritidis
c. Typhimurium
d. Choleraesius

A

c. Typhimurium

23
Q

Which classification of organism does S. enterica Typhimurium fall under?

a. Aerobe
b. Facultative anaerobe
c. Anaerobe

A

b. Facultative anaerobe

24
Q

How many genes have been associated as virulence factors in the S. enterica Typhimurium genome?

a. 12
b. 11
c. 10
d. 21

A

a. 12

25
Q
What color is the pigment produced by most strains of S. marcescens?
A) yellow
B) red/pink
C) blue
D) no pigment is produced
A

B) red/pink

26
Q
What is the name of the pigment produced by most strains of S. marcescens?
A) mitomycin
B) chaetochromin
C) burgdorferi
D) prodigiosin
A

D) prodigiosin

27
Q
You forgot to clean your bathroom and now there is pinkish red stuff growing. Which of the following species has likely infected your bathroom?
A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B) Serratia marcescens
C) Legionella pneumophila
D) Youneedto cleanmorea
A

B) Serratia marcescens

28
Q

What is the treatment for a Vibrio Cholerae infection?

A

rehydration

29
Q
Are Vibrio Cholerae motile?
A. no
B. yes, by gliding
C. yes, with one flagellum
D. yes, with pili
A

C. yes, with one flagellum

30
Q

What product makes Vibrio Cholerae pathogenic?
A. Infects Macrophages
B. Cholerae toxin
C. Overgrows the GI tract
D. Doesn’t have antigens recognizable to the innate immune system

A

B. Cholerae toxin

31
Q
Which of the following infections is caused by V. vulnificus?
A. Acute gastroenteritis  
B. Necrotizing wound infections
C. Invasive septicemia
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

32
Q

V. vulnificus is introduced into a human host through:
A. consumption of raw/undercooked shellfish
B. exposure of open wounds to contaminated water
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

C. Both A and B

33
Q
V. vulnificus is able to synthesize all but this amino acid:
A. Glycine
B. Methionine
C. Histidine
D. Proline
A

C. Histidine

34
Q

Which of these microbes causes the Bubonic Plague?

a) E. coli
b) Y. pestis
c) R. rickettsia
d) S. pyogenes

A

b) Y. pestis

35
Q

Yersinia pestis is an obligate pathogen. What does it mean to be an obligate pathogen?

A

it needs a suitable host to be able to complete it’s life-cycle to survive and thrive

36
Q

Yersinia pestis cannot:

a) Use glucose as an energy source
b) Generate energy via the TCA cycle
c) Fix nitrogen
d) Be transmitted by a flea

A

c) Fix nitrogen

37
Q

What are the two types of motility in M. xanthus?

A

Social (S-motility) and Adventurous (A-motility)

38
Q

What is the purpose of carotinoids produced by M. xanthus?

a) To aid in cell to cell communication
b) To protect the cell against photo-oxidative damage
c) To help the cells form fruiting bodies
d) Rotation of flagella

A

b) To protect the cell against photo-oxidative damage

39
Q

What is the name of the wave behavior seen in M. xanthus during hunting and fruiting body formation?

a) Surfing
b) Exploring
c) Rippling
d) Tracking

A

c) Rippling

40
Q

A. circinalis is capable of what type of motility?

a. It is stationary, and cannot move.
b. Flagellar swimming.
c. Gliding movement.
d. It twitches.

A

c. Gliding movement.

41
Q

Why is anatoxin-a concerning for humans?

a. It could affect the supply of fresh seafood.
b. It can enter drinking water and make us sick.
c. It doesn’t affect humans.
d. It could cause mutations in our nervous system.

A

b. It can enter drinking water and make us sick.

42
Q

What enzyme is present in the heterocyst of A. circinalis for nitrogen fixation?

a. NADH dehydrogenase
b. Cytochrome c Oxidase
c. Succinate dehydrogensase
d. Nitrogenase

A

d. Nitrogenase

43
Q

Bacillus anthracis is a non-motile bacterium but possesses genes for a flagella, why is this so?

A

flagella but point mutations and frameshifts in four key proteins cause it to be non functional making the bacterium non-motile.

44
Q
What gives B. anthracis its virulence factor?
A. LPS
B. Siderophores
C. Two plasmids
D. Pili to adhere to the cell
A

C. Two plasmids

45
Q
What species of the Bacillus family is an obligate pathogen?
	A. subtilis
	B. anthracis
	C. cereus
	D. muralis
A

B. anthracis

46
Q

D. radiodurans very aptly survives harsh environments without the formation of spores, including very high levels of radiation. Name three mechanisms by which it is able to resist radiation-associated cell death.

A
  • DNA repair
  • presence of carotenoids
  • High ratio of intracellular Mn(II)/Fe concentration
47
Q

Which of the following are DNA repair gene(s) included within the D. radiodurans genome?

a) MutH
b) RecB
c) UvrABCD
d) RecC

A

c) UvrABCD

48
Q

What is the maximum level of radiation D. radiodurans can resist with no viability loss?

a) 1,000 Gy
b) 5,000 Gy
c) 10,000 Gy
d) 15,000 Gy

A

b) 5,000 Gy