Final exam review Flashcards

1
Q

delta G

A

free energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

delta H

A

enthalpy
heat (K)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

delta S

A

entropy
disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

relationship between delta G and Keq

A

delta G = -RT(ln)Keq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

enthalpy is caused by

A

bonds breaking and forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

entropy represents

A

order vs disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

DG0

A

free energy located at the BOTTOM of the curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

if delta G is POSITIVE, do we have more products or reactants

A

reactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if delta G is NEGATIVE, do we have more products or reactants

A

products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

negative delta G

A

spont

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

positive delta G

A

non-spont

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ln of a number less than one is

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

moving delta G to the left of the curve

A

more negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

moving delta G to the right of the curve

A

more positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ln of 1

A

0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

energy =

A

heat + disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

delta G =

A

delta H - (T) delta S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

for delta G to be negative

A

S must be NEGATIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

negative delta H

A

exothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

negative delta S

A

increased order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

positive delta H
negative delta S

A

positive delta G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

reactions tend to occur in a way that dissipates energy and leads to an

A

increased order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

gibbs free energy equation

A

delta G = DG0 + RT(ln) ([C][D]/[A][B])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

henderson hasselbalch equation

A

pH = pKa + log ([conj base]/[weak acid])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
how to determine the pH of a STRONG acid from a given concentration
take the -log of the concentration
26
how to determine the pH of a STRONG base from a given concentration
find pOH: -log of concentration
27
how do you calculate [H+] from a given pH
[H+] = 10^-pH
28
[OH-] =
[OH-] = 10^(14-pH)
29
1 pH unit is a _____ fold difference
10
30
nucleotides vs nucleosides
nucleotides contain nitrogenous base, sugar, and phosphate group nucleosides contain nitrogenous base and sugar
31
hydrogen bonding between nucleotides
AT has 2 H bonds between them CG has 3 H bonds between them
32
complementary base-pairings and their relative strength
AT (DNA) AU (RNA) CG - strongest bc of 3 H bonds
33
approximate amount of DNA in a cell
6 billion base pairs
34
number of chromosomes per cell
23 pairs 46 total chromosomes
35
chromatin structure
base unit: nucleosome nucleosomes are 147 base pairs wrapped around histones
36
bacterial transcription
transcription and translation occur simultaneously in the cytoplasm
37
eukaryotic transcription occurs in the _____________ and translation occurs in the ____________
nucleus, cytoplasm
38
3 major modifications to most eukaryotic mRNA transcripts prior to translation
5’-capping, splicing of introns, polyA tails
39
purpose of the 5’ cap
methylated cap protects the transcript from being degraded
40
cis regulatory elements
promoters, enhancers, silencers regulate nearby genes on one chromosomal allele
41
trans regulatory elements
transcription factors, long noncoding RNAs regulate expression of distant genes on both alleles
42
prokaryotic operons vs eukaryotic operons
polycistronic - genomic (introns and exons) Exons = Expressed
43
transcription regulators in prokaryotes
activators
44
transcription regulators in eukaryotes
repressors
45
splice junctions
strongly conserved parts of eukaryotic genes border exon/intron junction and aid in the process of removing introns by RNA splicing
46
alternative splicing
exons from the same gene are joined in different combinations, leading to different mRNA transcripts
47
poly-A tail
long chain of adenine nucleotides increases stability and prevents degredation
48
purines vs pyrimidines
purines have two rings (AG) pyrimidines have one ring (TCU)
49
ribo vs deobyribo sugars
ribose sugars have an OH at C2 deoxyribo sugars have a H at C2
50
silent mutation
nucleotide change that does not affect the protein
51
missense mutation
single base pair substitution alters
52
nonsense mutation
sense codon is replaced with a stop codon
53
insertion and deletion mutations
insertion: adding one or more nucleotides to the gene deletion: removing one or more nucleotides from the gene
54
frame-shift mutations
caused by insertion of deletion that results in the remainder of the codon to be read differently
55
impact of wobble base pairing
alpha helix/beta sheet is disrupted
56
codon anticodon relationship
codons and anticodons bind together during translation (protein synthesis) codons are on mRNA, anticodons are tRNA
57
codons are ________ unit that ______________
3 nucleotide unit, codes for an amino acid
58
operator
regulatory sequence lying adjacent to the promoter
59
promoter
nucleotide sequence that binds to RNA polymerase
60
attenuator
results in the premature termination of transcription
61
attenuator
results in the premature termination of transcription
62
enhancer sites
increase transcription
63
ribonucleotides
phosphate group, ribose sugar, nucleobase (AGCU)
64
transcriptional repression vs depression
repression: impedes binding of RNA polymerase depression: causes conformational change
65
most transcriptional activators bind to
enhancers
66
transcription regulators in prokaryotes
activators
67
transcription regulators in eukaryotes
repressors
68
RNA polymerase 1
synthesis of rRNA genes (nucleolus)
69
RNA polymerase 2
synthesis of mRNA genes
70
RNA polymerase 3
synthesis of tRNA genes
71
DNA replication is ______, __________, and ________
semi-conservative, bidirectional, discontinuous
72
RNA replication is ________ and __________
unidirectional and continuous
73
start codon
AUG
74
termination codons
UGA, UAA, UAG
75
mRNA role in protein synthesis
carry coding sequences for protein synthesis
76
rRNA role in protein synthesis
hold the construction of protein amino acid sequences
77
tRNA role in protein synthesis
supply and configure the protein sequence coded on the mRNA
78
primary protein structure
amino acid chains peptide bonds
79
secondary protein structure
alpha helix and beta sheets hydrogen bonds
80
tertiary protein structure
3D folding structure disulfide bonds, hydrogen bonds, ionic bond aka side chain interactions
81
quaternary protein structure
proteins consisting of more than one amino acid chain hydrogen bonds and van der waal forces
82
amino acids in the body are what configuration
L
83
all amino acids except __________ are _________
glycine, chiral
84
Km
michaelis constant concentration at which 1/2 the active sites of enzymes are occupied by the substrate (1/2 of Vmax)
85
Kd
disassociation constant lower the Kd, higher substrate affinity
86
Kcat
first order rate constant turnover number
87
Vmax
maximum velocity rate of reaction when enzyme has the highest turnover
88
relationship between substrate concentration [S] and reaction velocity (v)
low [S], v is linearly proportional to S at high [S], v is independent of S
89
Ki
inhibitor constant binding affinity between the inhibitor and the enzyme
90
polar amino acids
serine threonine cysteine asparagine glutamine tyrosine
91
nonpolar amino acids
glycine alanine valine leucine isoleucine methionine phenylalanine tryptophan proline
92
aromatic amino acids
phenylalanine tryptophan tyrosine histidine*
93
"structural" amino acids
glycine proline
94
what is unique about glycine
not chiral no unique R-group, just "H"
95
what is unique about proline
side chain "loops back" and forms circle when it bonds with the NH2
96
peptide bonds between AA's are also known as
amide bonds
96
peptide bonds between AA's are also known as
amide bonds
97
amino acids that can form disulfide bonds contain a ______ group
thiol (SH) *cysteine*
98
D sugars
-OH on right side
99
L sugars
-OH on left side
100
alpha sugars
-OH is down
101
beta sugars
-OH is up
102
enzyme proteins are almost always __________ proteins
globular
103
substrates bind to specific
active sites
104
enzyme active sites often contain ________, _________, ________
weak acids (D, E), weak bases (R, K), nucleophiles
105
things that assist enzymes
enzyme cofactors
106
in metabolism, ____ is a waste product and ____ is the saved product
C, H
107
oxidation
gaining electrons
108
reduction
loss of electrons
109
spend ATP and utilize NADH to
make fatty acids
110
gradient is a way of ________, creates a ______ gradient without the use of ______
storing energy, proton, ATP
111
what type of transport requires ATP
active transport
112
what type of transport requires ATP
active transport
113
saturated fats
no double bonds
114
unsaturated fats
cis double bond (bent)
115
trans fats
trans double bond (straight)
116
phospholipids
lipid containing phosphate group glycerol backbone 2 fatty acid groups in cell membrane
117
sphingolipids
fatty acid derivatives cell membranes of NERVOUS tissue do NOT contain first fatty acid group
118
fatty acid tails
one is saturated, one is unsaturated with a cis double bond
119
impact of cholesterol
stiffens a specific region of fatty acid tail/reduces fluidity effects the ability of things to pass through
120
N form that can be incorporated into other biological molecules
NH4 and bioamines
121
in order for ammonia to use krebs cycle, it is added to
glutamic acid
122
how nitrogen gets incorporates into something that can leave the body
urea cycle
123
Ns from arginine end up in
urea
124
nitrogen needs to be converted into
ammonia