Final Exam (Exam 3 stuff) Flashcards

Functions: i.Sensory 1. Somatic sensory (Se) 2. Special sensory (SS) 3. Visceral sensory (SV) ii.Motor 1. Somatic/Branchial motor (Mo) 2. Parasympathetic motor (MP)

1
Q

Foramen Magnum

A
  • exit for spinal cord

- by far the biggest hole in skull (point of herniation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

External carotids feeds what?

A

-the face, skull, and meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pterion

A
  • weakest poing in skull
  • immediately overlies middle meningeal artery
  • bleeding outside meninges can cause epidural hematoma (EDH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Meninges (layers?)

A
  • pia mater
  • arachnoid mater
  • dura mater
  • spinal cord vs brain
    - in spinal cord, subarachnoid space is enlarged.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cranial arteries (location and cause of what?)

A
  • in subarachnoid space

- cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cranial Vasculature: Anterior circulation

A

Internal Carotid Artery (ICA)

splits into anterior and middle cerebral arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA)

A
  • provides blood supply to medial brain

- most noticeable function is sensory/motor for legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Middle cerebral artery (MCA)

A
  • Lenticulostriate branches feed basal ganglia and internal capsule
  • Distal branches feed sensory/motor to arms/face and many language areas (on dominant side, usually left)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cranial Vasculature: Posterior circulation

A

-Vertebral arteries (posterior cerebral artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Posterior Cerebral Artery (PCA)

A
  • visual cortex

- visual association areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cranial Vasculature: Veins

A
  • Dura mater sinuses
  • Cortical veins
  • Bridging veins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bridging veins cause what?

A

-cause subdural hematoma (SDH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Stroke terminology

A
  • Ischemic (blockage)

- Hemorrhagic (bleeding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hemorrhagic (ICH and SAH)

A
ICH = intracerebral hemorrhage
SAH = subarachnoid hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Blood Brain Barrier (BBB)

A

Passive::
1) tight junctions btwn endothelial cells
2) astrocyte foot processes
Active::
1) astrocytes pump chemical back into blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF):
Ventricular system
A

1) continuous circulation from inside ventricles down spinal cord
2) product of the inside of the original neural tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF):
production
A

1) Choroid plexus

2) Ependymal cells on inside of ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF):
Absorption
A

1) Arachnoid granulations

- pushes CSF back into dural sinuses (venous blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Monro-Kellie doctrine

A
  • 3 things in brain (blood, brain, and CSF)
  • an increase in the size of one (i.e., tumor) leads to a decrease in one of the others out the foramen magnum (i.e., blood or brain tissue)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cushing’s triad - response to increased ICP

A
  • Bradycardia (slow heart rate)
  • Hypertension (increase blood pressure)
  • Irregular breathing (hyperventilation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Herniation

A
  • final outcome of uncontrolled ICP

- brain herniates out foramen magnum, leading to compression of brain stem, and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes of increased ICP

A

1) Hydrocephalus
- clogged CSF circulation leading to backup in brain
- very dangerous
2) turmors
3) cerebral edema (from trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Brainstem divisions

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cranial nerve: Surface anatomy

A
CN 1-2 on underside of brain 
CN 3-4 around midbrain
CN 5 from side of pons
CN 6-8 from under pons
CN 9-12 in medulla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CN 1 - Olfactory Nerve

A

1) Function: Smell (Special sense)
2) Test: different scents
3) Pathways:
- olfactory bulb, olfactory cortex, Amygdala
4) clinical correlates:
- anosmia (loss of smell) in trauma
- Emotional link to scents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CN II - Optic Nerve

A

1) Function: vision (special sensory)
2) Test: Visual acuity
3) pathways
- lateral geniculate nucleus = conscious vision
- superior colliculus - coordinate eye movement
4) clinical correlates:
- pituitary/hypothalamus tumors affected by vision
- stroke localization (peripheral vs. central lesions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CN III - Oculomotor nerve

A

1) Func:
- motor for eye movement (Mo)
- eyelid retraction (Mo)
- pupil constriction (MP)
2) test
- move eye in cardinal directions. up down and in?
3) Palsy: “Down and out” eye is lateral and inferior facing
- Parasympathetic fibers are on outside of nerve, so benign vascular pathologies (like diabetes) tend to spare the pupil, while dangerous pathologies (like an aneurysm) tend to “blow” the pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CN IV - trochlear nerve

A

1) Func:
- motor to superior oblique (Mo) = down and inward
2) palsy: nasal upshoot - when eye moves medially, it is superiorly displaced
- bcuz it exits the back of midbrain and curls around brainstem it is commonly injured in trauma
- frequently found to be congenital, but missed for a long period of time bcuz it is easy to miss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CN V - trigeminal nerve

A

1) Function:
- cutaneous sensation to face (Se)
- muscles of mastication (Mo)
2) test
- light touch to lower face, cheeks, and forehead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CN VI - abducens

A

1) function
- motor to lateral rectus (Mo) = controls eye movement laterally
2) palsy: cross-eye = unable to move one eye laterally
- frequently happens congenitally
- bcuz 6th nerve exits below pons, it is very sensitive to brain displacement due to increased ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CN VII - facial nerve

A

1) function:
- motor to muscles of facial expression (Mo)
- parasympathetic to salivary glands (MP)
- tast from anterior 2/3rds of tongue (SV)
2) test
- symmetric smile, squeeze eyes shut, wrinkle forehead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CN VIII - vestibulocochlear nerve (auditory)

A

1) function:
- hearing (SS)
- vestibular sensation (SS)
2) Test
- Rinne, Weber, Tonotopy; tilt table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CN IX - glossopharyngeal nerve

A

1) function:
- palatal elevation (Mo)
- parotid salivary gland (MP)
- sensation in pharynx (Se)
- tast for posterior 1/3 of tongue (SV)
2) Test
- say “ahhh”, watch for palate elevation
3) palsy:
- impaired elevation of palate on that side, uvula deviates towards unaffected side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

CN X - vagus nerve

A

1) function:
- swallowing (Mo)
- larynx/voice (Mo)
- parasympathetic to body (MP)
- sensation from pharynx (Se)
2) test
- is their voice hoarse?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

CN XI - spinal accessory nerve

A

1) function:
- sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
2) test:
- turn head, shoulder shrug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

CN XII - hypoglossal nerve

A

1) function:
- tongue movement (Mo)
2) test:
- stick tongue straight out
3) palsy:
- tongue will deviate towards affected side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Tongue sensation (nerves)

A
Anterior = trigeminal 
posterior = glossopharyngeal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tongue taste (nerves)

A
anterior = facial 
posterior = glossopharyngeal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Tongue motor (nerves)

A

= hypoglossal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Eye anatomy

A

Retina
Pupil / iris
Cornea
Sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Lens and refractive properties

A
  • To form a clear image, light must converge on retina
  • Changes in focus (accommodation) performed by ciliary muscles stretching lens
  • Myopia, Hyperopia, Presbyopia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Myopia

A

(nearsighted)

- light focuses anterior to retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Hyperopia

A

(farsighted)

- light focuses posterior to retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Presbyopia

A
  • lens fails to relax, unable to focus on near objects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Retina surface anatomy

A
  • Blood vessels
  • Fovea (avascular, dense in high acuity cones)
  • Optic disc (blind spot)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Retina development

A

1) eye forms as direct extension of neural tube (optic vesicle)
2) optic vesicle folds into itself to form optic cup
- distal layer = neural retina
- proximal layer = pigmented epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Retina cellular structure (Layers from back of eye to front)

A

1) pigmented epithelium
2) Outer nuclear layer
3) outer plexiform layer
4) inner nuclear layer
5) inner plexiform layer
6) Ganglion cell layer
7) nerve fiber layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pigmented epithelium

A
  • Provides dark backdrop to reduce light scatter

- Involved in photoreceptor maintenance and pigment turnover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Outer nuclear layer

A

Photoreceptors (rods and cones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Photoreceptors: Rods

A
  • Low light - can respond to single photons
  • Slow adapting
  • Low acuity, highly convergent
  • No color content
  • Highly sensitive to motion
  • Located in periphery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Photoreceptors: Cones

A
  • Need more light, >100 photons
  • Fast adapting
  • High acuity, low convergence
  • Specialized for particular color
  • Located on fovea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Outer plexiform layer

A

Horizontal cells

- integrate across multiple photoreceptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Inner nuclear layer

A

Bipolar cells

-connects outer layer to ganglion layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

inner plexiform layer

A

Amacrine cells

  • located btwn bipolar and ganglion cells
  • integrates horizontally
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Ganglion cell layer

A

Ganglion cells

-final output cell of retina

56
Q

nerve fiber layer

A
  • axons from ganglion cells

- coalesce to form optic nerve

57
Q

Phototransduction

A

Before stimulation:

  • in the absence of light, cGMP is present and activates cation channels (depolarizes cell)
  • 11-cis retinal retinal is bound to an opsin

Stimulation:

  • light converts 11-cis retinal to all-trans after absorbing photon.
  • opsin activates transducin
  • transducin activates phospodiesterase (PDE), which cleaves cGMP
  • reduction in cGMP closes cation channels and hyperpolarizes cell

Resetting cycle:

  • opsin phosphorylated by opsin kinase and deactivated by protein arrestin
  • all-trans retinal converted back to 11-cis retinal through retinoid cycle in pigmented epithelium
58
Q

2 populations of ganglion cells:

- on-center vs off-center

A

On-center:

  • activated by light within their center
  • inhibited by light in their surrounding

Off-center:

  • inhibited by light within their center
  • activated by light in their surround
59
Q

Vision: Edge detection

A
  • Under diffuse lighting, there is equal activation/inhibition from the center/surround, and no net activation
  • If the ganglion cell field crosses an edge of light, there will be a difference in the center/surround leading to a net positive or negative response
  • Hermann grid illusion
60
Q

Vision: Light adaptation

A

-Ganglion cells respond only to differences in center/surround, and so are less sensitive to absolute light levels

61
Q

Color vision: Cones

A
  • Respond to different frequency ranges
  • Classified as Short (S), Medium (M), and Long (L) frequencies, roughly equivalent to the colors blue, green, red
  • M/L make up 90% of cones
62
Q

Color vision: color opponency

A
  • Based on differences in response of cones (not absolute activation)
  • Difference in S vs. M/L cones = blue/yellow
  • Difference in M vs. L cones = red/blue
63
Q

Color vision: deficits

A

usually a lack of M or L cones

64
Q

Central organization: Visual fields

A
  • The area that each eye sees can be subdivided into four quadrants
  • Each quadrant of space is seen partially by each eye
65
Q

Central organization: Optic chiasm

A
  • The optic nerves meet and some fibers cross, while others stay ipsilateral
  • The result is that all fibers from both eyes from one side of the visual field end up on the contralateral side of the brain
66
Q

Central organization: Higher processing

A
  • All of the central processing centers work with information from visual fields, not individual eyes
  • However, the information from each eye is still maintained separately in many cortical areas
  • Cortical arrangement is biased for foveal vision, similar to the homonculous of the motor/sensory system
67
Q

Central organization: Deficits

A

Anopsia: “visual field cut”

Scotomas: small spots of vision loss

Patterns of visual loss

 1. Monocular blindness
2. Bitemporal hemianopsia
 3. Homonymous hemianopsia
 4. Homonymous quadrantanopsia
 5. Hemianopsia with macular sparing
68
Q

Central visual pathways:

Primary visual pathway (retinogeniculostriate)

A
  • Projects to lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)

- Continues to Striate cortex (primary visual cortex; V1) by way of the optic radiations

69
Q

Central visual pathways: Light reflex

A
  • Projects to pretectum in midbrain

- Continues to Edinger-Westphal nucleus, which sends parasympathetic output through CN III (pupillary constriction)

70
Q

Central visual pathways: Eye Movement

A

-Projects to superior colliculus

71
Q

Central visual pathways: Circadian rhythm

A

-Projects to suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus

72
Q

Cortical processing: Striate cortex

A

Neurons sensitive to properties of groups of ganglion cells

 1. Edge orientation
 2. Direction of motion
 3. Spatial frequency
 4. Temporal frequency

Ocular dominance columns

 1. Paired columns of cells that represent individual inputs from each eye
 2. Differences imply perspective
73
Q

Cortical processing: Extrastriate regions

A
  • Motion
  • Color
  • Faces
74
Q

Cortical processing: Dorsal/Ventral streams

A
  • Dorsal: “where” spatial

- Ventral: “what” visual

75
Q

sound properties

A
Pressure waves through air
Frequency/wavelength
      i.	Fourier transform
Amplitude
Audible sounds
76
Q

What is the audible range of sounds for humans?

A
  • 20Hz to 20kHz

- High frequency range declines with age

77
Q

External ear (anatomy)

A
  • Pinna
  • External auditory meatus
  • Tympanic membrane
78
Q

External ear: Pinna

A

Filters sound to give cues to source location

79
Q

External ear: External auditory meatus

A

Amplifies low frequency sounds (~3 kHz)

80
Q

Middle ear (anatomy)

A
  • Ossicles
  • Muscles
  • Oval window
  • round window
81
Q

Ossicles of middle ear (func. and bones)

A

Funct: Transmits pressure waves from tympanic membrane to oval window

Bones:

  • Malleus
  • incus
  • stapes
82
Q

Muscles of middle ear

A
  • Tensor tympani
  • stapedius

***dampen the vibration of the ossicles to mute sound transmission

83
Q

Inner ear anatomy

A
  • cochlea

- labyrinth

84
Q

Cochlea

A
  • Coiled tube with 3 chambers, separated by membranes
  • Outer tubes are connected to one another, and start at the oval window, end at the round window
  • Basilar membrane
  • Organ of Corti
  • Hair cells
  • Ionic gradient
  • Cochlear amplifier
85
Q

Cochlea: Basilar membrane

A
  • Varies in width and stiffness
  • Base most sensitive to high frequencies
  • Tip most sensitive to low frequencies
86
Q

Cochlea: Organ of Corti

A
  • Layer of cells including hair cells on top of basilar membrane
  • Tectorial membrane on top
  • Hair cells send projections to spiral ganglion
87
Q

Cochlea: Hair cells

A
  • Inner hair cells - sound transmission
  • Outer hair cells - cochlear amplifier
  • Contain groups of cilia attached to the tectorial membrane
  • Deflection manually opens cation channels via tip links (very fast and sensitive to small deflections)
  • Also very sensitive to damage
88
Q

Which hair cells of the cochlea transmit sound?

A

inner hair cells

89
Q

Which hair cells of the cochlea amplify?

A

outer hair cells

90
Q

Ionic gradient (cochlea)

A
  • Inner chamber (containing tips of hair cells) very high in potassium
  • Outer chamber has normal extracellular concentrations (low in potassium)
  • Hair cells depolarize by opening K-channels into inner chamber
  • Hair cells repolarize by opening K-channels into outer chamber
  • Because it uses two different compartments, it does not need to reestablish a gradient, and can continuously depolarize
91
Q

Cochlear amplifier

A
  • Outer hair cells can produce vibrations at the dominant frequency to amplify incoming sounds
  • Can be used in otoacoustic emissions to test cochlear function
92
Q

Weber Test

A
  • bypasses air conduction

- tests for inequalities in sensorineuroconduction

93
Q

Rinne Test

A
  • Compares air vs bone conduction

- normally air > bone

94
Q

Vestibular System

A
  • Measures deviations in body/head movement relative to gravity
  • Integrates across multiple sensory modalities
  • Multiple reflex arcs make most functions fast and automatic
95
Q

Vestibular system: Labyrinth

A

a. Otolith organs

b. Semilunar canals

96
Q

Otolith organs of labyrinth

A
  • Utricle and saccule
  • Responsive to linear acceleration and static position
  • Structure
    1. Hair cells
    2. Gelatinous layer
    3. Otoconia - “stones”

-Divided in two by striola; cell response opposite to each other

97
Q

Which otolith organ does horizontal movement?

A

Utricle

98
Q

Which otolith organ does vertical movement?

A

Saccule

99
Q

Semilunar canals (labyrinth)

A

-Responsive to rotational acceleration

  • Hair cells
    1. Very similar to cochlear cells
    2. Shared fluid space with cochlea
    3. Responds to displacements from fluid currents
  • Cupula hair cells only depolarize in one direction
  • Leftward head rotation depolarizes the left semilunar canal, and hyperpolarizes the right
100
Q

Central vestibular pathways: Integrate information from?

A
  • Otolith organs / semilunar canals
  • Visual system
  • Cerebellum
  • Somatic sensory system
101
Q

Central vestibular pathways: Initial pathway

A
  • Scarpa’s ganglion
  • Vestibular nerve (CN VIII)
  • Vestibular nuclei in medulla
102
Q

Vestibulo-ocular reflex

A
  • Reflex ocular movements to oppose head movements

- Vestibular nucleus projects to contralateral abducens nucleus via the MLF

103
Q

Vestibulo-cervical reflex

A

-Keeps head upright when body is moving (or falling)

104
Q

Vestibulo-spinal reflex

A
  • Postural reflex to try to keep body upright

- Produces a general extensor tone in body

105
Q

Vestibular testing bedside

A
  • “Doll’s eyes” vestibulo-ocular reflex

- Cold calorics (generally only in comatose patients)

106
Q

Vestibular testing in clinic

A
  • Rotating chair

- Electronystagmography / Videonystagmography

107
Q

What is language?

A
  • Language is the manipulation of abstract symbols that map onto specific meanings
  • Language is uniquely human
  • Not merely communication or learned associations
  • It allows us to describe things that aren’t in front of us, or may not exist, and transmit that information efficiently through different modalities
108
Q

Characteristics of language

A
  • Lexicon
    i. Orthography (correct spelling)
    ii. Phonology (speech sounds)
  • Semantics (study of meaning)
  • Symbol manipulation
109
Q

Expressive aphasia

A

Non-fluent speech, choppy, slow

110
Q

Receptive aphasia

A
  • Paraphasias, use of incorrect words

- Comprehension deficit, not following commands

111
Q

Global aphasia

A
  • All basic language areas affected

- nothing

112
Q

conduction aphasia

A

-Independently can produce/understand speech, but problems coordinating in certain conditions

113
Q

Written language: (aphasia)

A

Alexia: impaired reading

Agraphia: impaired writing

114
Q

Language: Frontal regions

A
  • Broca’s area, inferior frontal gyrus
  • Involved in speech production
  • Damage leads to expressive aphasia
115
Q

Language: Temporal regions

A
  • Wernicke’s area, posterior superior temporal gyrus
  • Involved in language comprehension / meaning
  • Damage leads to receptive aphasia
  • Also contains regions for phonology (speech sounds)
  • Can cause categorical deficits
116
Q

Lateralization of language

A
  • Gradient, not absolute

- dominantly left in most people

117
Q

Language: Non-dominant functions

A
  • Prosody (rhythm, stress, and intonation of speech)
  • Non-verbal language
  • Music
118
Q

Language: Importance of connectivity

A

-Conduction aphasia

  • Corpus callosotomy
    1. Disconnects two hemispheres
    2. Stimuli presented only to non-dominant hemisphere cannot be named
119
Q

Mapping: Wada test

A
  • Test laterality by selectively anesthetizing one hemisphere
  • Invasive, unreliable, no evidence supporting conclusions
  • Other methods proven more predictive
120
Q

Mapping: functional imaging

A
  • Currently statistically the best method, non-invasive, relatively cheap
  • Not currently adopted widely
121
Q

Mapping: Electrocorticography

A
  • Direct stimulation of cortex in an awake patient

- Used mostly in surgery to guide resections

122
Q

Comparison to American Sign Language

A

a. History
b. Creole, mixtures of languages
c. Regional dialects
d. Grammar
e. Inflections

123
Q

Cognition: Principles of organization

A
  • Phrenology

- Localized vs. generalized

124
Q

Cognition: Neural networks (mathematical concept)

A
  • Non-linear mapping

- Learning phase, to behavioral production

125
Q

Cognition: Association cortex

A
  • Receives inputs that have already been processed by a primary cortex
  • Have many connections to other cortical areas, as well as inter-hemispheric connections
126
Q

Cognition: Association cortex - involved in???

A
  • Extracting complex patterns from sensory information (e.g., facial processing)
  • Mapping between senses (e.g., producing the correct pronunciation of a written word)
127
Q

Parietal lobe (specific functions)

A
  • Neglect
    1. Loss of attention
    2. Primarily associated with right-sided damage
  • Gerstmann’s syndrome (left-parietal deficit)
    1. Agraphia
    2. Acalculia
    3. Finger agnosia
    4. Left-right confusion
  • Balint’s syndrome
    1. Simultagnosia
    2. Optic ataxia
    3. Ocular apraxia
128
Q

-Gerstmann’s syndrome (left-parietal deficit)

A
  1. Agraphia
    1. Acalculia
    2. Finger agnosia
    3. Left-right confusion
129
Q

-Balint’s syndrome

Parietal lobe (specific functions

A
  1. Simultagnosia
    1. Optic ataxia
    2. Ocular apraxia
130
Q

Temporal lobe (function)

A

Object recognition

131
Q

Frontal lobe (function)

A

Working memory
1.Wisconsin Card Sorting Task

Personality

 1. Phineas Gage
2. Frontal lobotomies
132
Q

Frontal lobe deficits

A
  1. Inhibition (go-no-go) / appropriateness
  2. Perseveration
  3. Planning
  4. Disordered thinking
133
Q

Delirium

A

i. Acute confusional state
ii. Dominant components: attention, orientation
iii. Frequently reversible

134
Q

Dementia

A

Chronic cognitive deterioration

Dominant components: memory, cognition

Usually permanent

135
Q

Delirium / dementia testing

A
  • Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE)

- Montral Cognitive Assessment (MoCA; www.mocatest.org)