Final Exam Flashcards by Har Benkula

What is the biggest health advantage to feeding a horse from a hayrack or hay net?

a. Tend to consume more parasites
b. Tend to waste more hay
c. Tend to inhale more dust
d. Tend to consume more gravel

c. Tend to inhale more dust

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With respect to respiratory disease of swine, which is considered a herd disease?

a. Swine influenza
b. Swine Pneumonia
c. Atropic Rhinitis
d. Mycoplasma Pneumonia

a. Swine influenza

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Direct contact and fomite disease transmission prevention techniques include:

a. Maintaining good personal hygiene
b. Wearing personal protective equipment
c. Keeping equipment clean
d. All the Above

d. All the above

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In a horse > 10 years old, how often should their teeth be checked?

a. every 2 years
b. every 3 years
c. never
d. every year

d. every year

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Rabies transmission can occur via:

a. ingested
b. absorbed thru an opening in the skin
c. saliva introduced into open wound
d. all the above

d. all the above

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With respect to food safety which is a true statement?

a. Cook food to an internal temperature of 160 F
b. Eat cooked food promptly
c. Refrigerate leftovers within 2 hours after cooking
d. Store in shallow containers
e. All the above

e. All the above

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When checking for points on the molars of most horses, where will we expect to find them?

a. Mandibular molar - buccal side
b. Maxillary molar - buccal side
c. Maxillary molar - lingual side
d. Incisor - lingual side

b. Maxillary molar - buccal side

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When dealing with a horse with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) what do we need to reduce in their environment?

a. Sunlight
b. Stress
c. Dust
d. Humidity

c. Dust

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Which parasite is most often responsible for impaction of the gut in foals and yearlings?

a. Strongyles
b. Oxyuris
c. Bot larva (Gastrophilus)
d. Ascarids

d. Ascarids

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What symptom might we see with canine distemper but not canine parvo?

a. Bloody diarrhea
b. Leukopenia
c. CNS symptoms
d. Anorexia

c. CNS symptoms

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What are considered prevention strategies for choke in horses?

a. Correct teeth problems
b. Do not leave halters on horses in a pasture setting
c. Feed in age related groups
d. Feed dry hay cubes

a. Correct teeth problems

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With respect to the disease of parvo in dogs, which of the following is false.

a. Very stable virus in the environment
b. Virus can be shed in feces 3 weeks after recovery
c. Virus attacks rapidly dividing dividing cells of bone marrow and gut
d. None of the above

d. None of the above

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What is the most common cause of colic in horses?

a. Weather changes
b. Abrupt feed changes
c. Over exertion
d. None of the above

b. Abrupt feed changes

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Which of the following would be considered a famine transmission?

a. Brushes
b. Animal bedding
c. Needles
d. All the above

d. All the above

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Equine Cushing’s disease in horses may have signs/symptoms of which?

a. Hirsutism
b. Prone to sole abscesses
c. Prone to tendon laxity
d. All the above

d. All the above

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What is a clinical sign of Atropic Rhinitis not seen with other swine respiratory diseases?

a. Nasal deformity as disease progresses
b. Fever
c. Purulent mucous exudates
d. Sneezing and sniffling

a. Nasal deformity as disease progresses

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_____ causes oral erosions in humans can mimic FMD (foot and mouth disease)

Vasicular Stomatitis

This bacterium is a common food borne infection. Grows well in cold temps.

Listeria

Infective tissues associated with abortions of Sheep and cattle. C. burnettii

Q fever

Caused by a spirochete bacteria. Infected urine a common source of infection

Leptospirosis

Caused by a protozoan. Severe diarrhea in calves > 4 weeks of age

Giardia

Common food borne illness causing diarrhea and rarely kidney failure

E. coli

Caused by a prion pathogen

BSE (mad cow disease)

Protozoan caused. Diarrhea in calves < 3 weeks of age

Cryptosporidiosis

This disease can cause undulant fever in people

Brucellosis

Inhalation, cutaneous and intestinal forms of this disease

Anthrax

Skin disease of humans and animals. Red circular lesion in people.

Ringworm

This bacterium commonly associated with Reptiles and can cause disease in people

Salmonellosis

TB test used to eradicate this disease in Cattle.

Tuberculosis

What are two causes of ear infections in our companion animals?

Bacteria Yeast Mites

List a symptom of Leptospirosis bacterial disease in dogs, how is it transmitted, and a prevention strategy for this disease.

Vomiting Through excretions/ secretions general cleanliness practices -vaccines

With respect to swine raise in a CAFO operation: consider gestation and farrowing crates separately, list one advantage and one disadvantage EACH of this type of management tool in a swine operation.

Gestation crate - reduces disease risk - welfare concerns Farrowing - increase piglet survival - low sow mobility

List two considerations when moving form a CAFO type swine operation to a farm raised swine operation.

Sunburn - darker swine, shade | Disease management

Explain briefly the pathogenesis of rabies disease.

Ingested or through a lesion Goes to lymphoid tissue Into the blood stream CNS

List a different symptom each for cattle, horse, and wildlife that might get you thinking the particular animal may be infected with Rabies virus.

cattle - erratic behavior horse - disoriented wildlife - mouth foaming

Place (A) Dental Issue, (B) Colic, (C) Choke, (D) Cushings, or (E) Parasite deworming strategy for the following statements. a. Encysted I, 4 stage causing gastric mucosal issue and emergence from GI tract _____ b. Excessive salivation in water bucket, quidding _____ c. Buccal/lingual surfaces for sharp points _____ d. 90% of cases respond to medical therapy, 10% may require surgery _____ e. Intermittent extension flexion of the neck; often accomplished by excessive salivation and feed material coming out mouth and nose _____ f. Multiple symptoms seen; sole abscesses, tendon laxity, excessive hair growth, etc. _____ g. Use of Pergolide (dopamine agonist) medication given to manage this issue _____. h. Impactions in foals and yearlings - precipitated by anthelmintic treatment _____

a. B/E b. C c. A d. B e. C f. D g. D h. E/B

Place (A) Feline Panleukopenia (distemper) or (B) Feline Leukemia virus, next to the following statements: a. Vomiting/diarrhea _____ b. Caused by a Parvovirus _____ c. Persistently infected healthy appearing cats are the major reservoir _____ d. Virus can be transmitted vertically, (inutero, milk) _____ e. Good vaccine in cats may develop lifelong immunity _____ f. Test prior to vaccination _____

a. A b. A c. B d. B e. B f. B

Place (A) Canine Parvovirus or (B) Canine Distemper virus next to the following: a. Mucopurulent ocular discharge _____ b. Hyperkeratosis of pads and nose _____ c. Myocarditis _____ d. Old Dog Encephalopathy _____ e. Lethargy, vomiting, diarrhea (blood/mucous)

a. B b. B c. A d. B e. A

Use the following swine diseases to fill in the blanks A. Erysiphylotrix B. TGE (transmissible gastrointestinal enteritis) C. MMA (mastitis, metritis, agalactia) D. Atropic Rhinitis E. Swine Influenza a. This disease is one of the leading deterrents to swine production; multiple etiologies (causes) for this disease _____ b. Diamond lesions on skin: _____ c. One method of virus survival involves life cycle of swine lungworm _____ d. Causative agent of the disease is the bacteria, Bordetella bronchiseptica _____ e. Occurs in early stages of lactation; 12-72 hrs post farrowing; total lack of milk production: _____ f. A highly contagious, enteric disease of swine, characterized by vomiting, severe diarrhea, high morbidity and mortality in pigs under 2 weeks of age _____. g. Pigs to human transmission was demonstrated in 1970, 2009: _____

a. C b. A c. E d. D e. C f. B g. E

List 5 topics of animal welfare that is a concern or interest to you.

``` Animal handling Safe transportation Public education Overcrowding Facilities (Ventilation) ```