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Test 1 Review- Micro > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What does mucus contain to help control bacterial growth?

A

Sliminess - traps microbes
Lysozyme- breaks cell walls
Lactoferrin- binds iron that microbes need to grow
Decensins - poke holes in cell walls

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2
Q

Respiratory defenses:

A

First line- nasal hairs, cilia, mucus
Second- macrophages
Third- pathogen specific, secretory igA

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3
Q

Is normal biota gram positive or negative?

A

Gram positive- protects our environment

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4
Q

Examples of biota in respiratory tract?

A

S.pyogenes, H.influenzae, S. pneumonia, N.meningitidis, S.aureus

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5
Q

What is pharyngitis caused by?

A

Virus - when caused by bacteria it’s S.pyogenes (strepthroat)

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6
Q

If scarlet fever is left untreated what will happen?

A

The bacteria can access the blood (becoming systemic) and cause rheumatic fever (inflammation of joints and muscles)

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7
Q

Treatment for strep and scarlet fever?

A

Penicillin

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8
Q

What tests would u use for diagnosis of strep/scarlet fever?

A

Beta hemolytic, camp, catalase, bacatracians

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9
Q

What is epiglottis caused by?

A

Normal flora- H.influenza, S.pneumonia

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10
Q

What is the nickname for epiglottis?

A

“Strangler” disease - can’t breathe

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11
Q

What is diphtheria caused by?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria (club shape bacteria) NOT AN ENDOSPORE

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12
Q

What is translation?

A

Making chain of proteins

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13
Q

What do the toxins prevent in diphtheria?

A

They prevent translation by ribosomes.

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14
Q

Complications of diphtheria?

A

Suffocation, nerve destruction, heart arrhythmia (strangler disease) inflamed threat, forms polyps

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15
Q

How to treat diphtheria?

A

Penicillin and antitoxin

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16
Q

Otis externa

A

External - outside eardrum

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17
Q

Otis media

A

Middle - inside eardrum

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18
Q

What causes Acute Otitis media?

A

Mixed infection of viruses and bacteria (S.pneumonaie, H.influenzae)

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19
Q

How to treat Otis media?

A

Antibiotics, tympanic membrane tubes, watchful waiting

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20
Q

Vaccine for acute otitis media?

A

Prevnar, Hib

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21
Q

Swimmers ear is?

A

Otis externa - too much moisture breaks down membranes

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22
Q

Symptoms of Otis externa?

A

Itching and pain

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23
Q

What caused Sinusitis?

A

Viruses, bacteria, fungi, allergies

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24
Q

Treatment for sinusitis?

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotics for bacterial infection, antifungals or surgery for fungal infection

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25
Q

What causes the common cold?

A

Rhinovirus - airborne transmission, direct contact

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26
Q

Why no cure for the common cold?

A

Because there’s 200 different virus strains can cause common colds. Can’t take 200 vaccines.

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27
Q

What other virus can cause a cold

A

Adenovirus infections

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28
Q

lower respiratory tract diseases:

A

Influenza, pertussis, RSV Disease

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29
Q

What two spikes does the Flue contain?

A

Hemaggluetin helps the virus attach and penetrate host cells (H)

Neauraminidase helps release virus from the host cell after replication and assembly (N)

H1N1

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30
Q

Signs and symptoms of the flu:

A 
Begin in upper respiratory tract
Lower tract
Headache
Chills
Dry cough
Body aches
Fever
Stuffy nose
Sore throat
Extreme fatigue
Secondary infections
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31
Q

Types of flu:

A

Influenza A, B, C

A - most common, every year, circulates in animals
B- less common but still every year, only in humans, found in vaccine
C- causes a mild respiratory illness but not epidemic

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32
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

Slowing moving away from immune recognition
Produces most seasonal flu strains
Mutations of glycoproteins H, N genes

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33
Q

What is antigenic shift?

A

RNA exchange between diff viruses
Occurs during co-infection of a host cell
More likely to produce pandemic strains

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34
Q

How to diagnose influenza?

A

Symptoms, culture tests to identify virus subtype causing infections, rapid flu tests(Elisa)

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35
Q

How to prevent flu?

A

Vaccination

Inactivated seasonal (70-90% effective, pregnant people get this & people over 6 mos) or live attenuated seasonal (98-99% effective, age 5-49 can get this)

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36
Q

Cause of pertussis (whooping cough)

A

Bordatella pertussis - spread by respiratory droplets (gram -)

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37
Q

What do the toxins in pertussis do?

A

Paralyze ciliates cells in the respiratory tract = no mucus movement can lead to pneumonia

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38
Q

How to prevent pertussis?

A

DTaP vaccine, antibiotic tx, supportive measures

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39
Q

Stages of pertussis?

A

Catarrhal stage - runny nose, 1-2 weeks
Paroxysmal stage - severe coughing
Recovery phase - susceptible to other respiratory infections

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40
Q

What is the respiratory syncytial virus caused by?

A

RSV - infects the bronchioles and alveoli of the lungs causing cells to fuse together into syncytia

Children under 1

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41
Q

What is the virulence of RSV disease?

A

Giant cell formation (syncitia)

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42
Q

How to diagnose RSV?

A

Direct antigen testing

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43
Q

Prevention for RSV?

A

Antibody therapy, ribavirin

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44
Q

What causes TB?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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45
Q

Calcified white blood cells are called:

A

Granulomas

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46
Q

Signs and symptoms of TB

A

Easily infected but usually resistant to disease development
Contained in the lungs

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47
Q

Forms of TB:

A

Primary- initial infection, no symptoms

Secondary- severe symptoms, fever, anorexia, violet cough, fatigue, chest pain, night sweats

Disseminated/extrapulmonary- infection outside the lungs. Regional lymph nodes, kidneys, long bones, genital tract, brain = organ failure

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48
Q

What causes Bronchitis?

A

90% by viruses ; if bacterial it’ll be your normal flora
Begins as a URT infection
Getting flu vaccine prevents bronchitis

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49
Q

Sign of bronchitis:

A

Coughing up mucus

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50
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

Fluid in the lungs, usually after bronchitis

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51
Q

What causes pneumonia?

A

Bacteria: typical- S.pneumoniae
Atypical- Legionella sp, Mycoplasma pneumonia

Viruses: mainly VIRAL, Hantavirus, emerging viruses

Fungi: histoplasma copsulatum, Pneumocystis

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52
Q

Typical vs atypical pneumonia

A

Complaints: cough, fever, chest pain
S.pneumoniae(entire lung lobe, both lungs) H.influenzae (hospital acquired) S.aureus( hospital acquired)

Atypical: symptoms- cough, fever, headache, muscle pain
M.pneumoniae(causes atypical, called walking pneumonia, have no sensitivity to penicillin because it has no cell wall)

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53
Q

What causes Legionnaires disease?

A

Legionella pneumophila

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54
Q

How do u get legionnaires?

A

Breathing in or ingesting amoebas

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55
Q

How do u get Hantavirus?

A

Deer mice, transmitted airborne dust contaminated with rodent urine, feces, or saliva

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56
Q

What causes Histoplasmosis?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

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57
Q

How is histoplasmosis transmitted? (Summer flu)

A

By inhalation of soil contaminated with bat or bird feces. Common for hunters or farmers

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58
Q

Symptoms of histoplasmosis

A

Mild flu like symptoms

If you’re immunocompromised then it’ll be a TB like disease

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59
Q

What causes pneumocystis pneumonia (pcp) and what can it cause?

A

Caused by: pneumocystis jiroveci

Causes: lethal pneumonia

Mold grows on the lungs

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60
Q

What causes cavities?

A

S.mutans and S.sorbrinus - produce lots of acid

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61
Q

What is Rubulavirus?

A

Mumps virus - infectious parotitis.

Enlarged jaw tissues caused by swollen salivary glands

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62
Q

How is mumps spread?

A

Respiratory droplets, direct contact

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63
Q

What causes diarrhea?

A

Salmonella, shigella, ecoli, vibrio cholera, giardia

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64
Q

What is diarrhea?

A

3 or more loose stools in a 24 hour period

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65
Q

What causes salmonella?

A

Salmonella typhi (aka typhoid fever)

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66
Q

S. Typhi is transmitted by?

A

Flies, food, fingers, feces, fomites

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67
Q

Is salmonella acid resistant?

A

Yes - it passes thru the stomach to the small intestine, it causes ulcers, bleeding, pain

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68
Q

Characteristics of shigella?

A

Gram-negative Rods
Non motile
Non spore forming

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69
Q

What causes Shigellosis?

A

Shigella sonnei

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70
Q

How do you get shigella?

A

Contaminated food - eggs, veggies, shellfish, dairy

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71
Q

E.coli diarrheas causes various forms of:

A

Gastroenteritis

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72
Q

Transmission of e.coli?

A

Fecal- oral

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73
Q

Types of e.coli?

A

Enterotoxigenic E.Coli - infects GI tract and secretes a toxin that causes gastroenteritis (aka travelers diarrhea)

Enteropathogenic E.Coli - causes diarrhea in infants, where sanitation is lacking

E.Coli (EHEC) - shigella like toxin, gastroenteritis, fever, bloody diarrhea

Campylobacter- (subacute) ingested thru fecal oral, motile, fever, vomiting, headaches, watery diarrhea, abdominal pains - symptoms last longer than 2 weeks

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74
Q

What causes inflammation of the colon?

A

Clostridium difficile - extremely spore forming, mucus like diarrhea

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75
Q

What causes clostridium difficile?

A

Gram positive endospore forming rod

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76
Q

What causes cholera?

A

Vibrio cholerae- usually consumed with raw oysters and water

77
Q

Symptoms of cholera?

A

Diarrhea, thickened blood, shock, death, losing 1L of water per hour, rice water stool, short incubation period - outbreaks occur after natural disasters, war, refugee movements

78
Q

How is cholera treated?

A

Antibiotics and hydration

79
Q

What causes cryptosporidiosis?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum and C.hominis - intestinal protozoan

80
Q

How is crypto spread?

A

Contaminated water and physical contact

81
Q

Symptoms of crypto?

A

1-2 weeks of diarrhea, watery diarrhea, headaches, sweating, vomiting, abdominal cramps

82
Q

Rotavirus infections can be deadly for:

A

Children ( winter diarrhea)

83
Q

Transmission of rotavirus?

A

Contaminated food and water - invade small intestine

84
Q

Treatment of rotavirus?

A

Oral rehydration therapy, 2 vaccines

85
Q

Norovirus infections are common cause of:

A

No bacterial gastroenteritis in adults

86
Q

Transmission of norovirus?

A

Fecal-oral, direct contact person to person & infected objects (cruise ships)

87
Q

Symptoms of norovirus?

A

High contagious, dehydration, fever, vomiting

88
Q

Food poisoning / intoxication symptoms?

A

Cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, non-inflammatory, shared meals, short incubation

89
Q

What causes food poisoning? (Intoxication)

A

S.aureus, B.cereus, C.perfringens - these toxins come from shellfish, fish, mushrooms

90
Q

S.aureus food poisoning:

A

Toxins are consumed in protein rich foods such as meat, fish, dairy products - toxins are heat stable

Contaminated by boils or abscesses on handlers skin, thru sneezing

91
Q

Clostridium perfringens food poisoning:

A

Contaminated by meat, poultry, fish

92
Q

Bacillus cereus food poisoning:

A

Diarrhea, vomiting, eating contaminated grains

93
Q

Chronic diarrhea:

A

Lasting longer than 14 days - people with AIDS suffer with chronic diarrhea

94
Q

What causes chronic diarrhea?

A

Protozoans - spread fecal oral

95
Q

What is Giardiasis caused by?

A

Giardia intestinalis

96
Q

Transmission of Giardiasis?

A

Food or water contaminated with sewage containing cysts

97
Q

Symptoms of Giardiasis?

A

Appear after about 7 days: nausea, cramps, flatulence, diarrhea

98
Q

What causes Amoebiasis?

A

Entameoba histolytica

99
Q

Symptoms of amoebiasis?

A

Second leading cause of death from parasitic disease, enter thru food or water contaminated with feces - ingest a cyst & emerge in the intestines, loose stool, stomach cramps and pain, fever, bloody stools

100
Q

What causes Gastric ulcer?

A

Helicobacter pylori - contaminated food and water

101
Q

Symptoms of gastritis:

A

Sharp, burning pain from abdomen, bloody stools, vomiting

102
Q

Gastric ulcers:

A

Lesions in the mucosa of the stomach or in the uppermost portion of the small intestine (aka peptic ulcers) they worsen after eating a big meal

103
Q

What is hepatitis?

A

Inflammatory disease marked by necrosis of hepatocytes and a mononuclear response that swells the liver

104
Q

Symptoms of hepatitis:

A

Jaundice, confusion, fever

Acute- recover 3-4 months and immunity

Chronic- aggravated by drinking beer affecting your liver

105
Q

Two types of Hep affecting the GI tract?

A

Hep A, Hep E - transmitted by contaminated food or water from fences of an infected individual

Hep A- has a vaccine, not chronic, fecal oral
Hep E- is opportunistic- not chronic, fecal oral

106
Q

Bloodborne hep viruses:

A

Hep B - has vaccine, chronic, infected needle

Hep C - no vaccine, chronic, infected needle

107
Q

What do the virions consist of with Hep B & C?

A

A nucleocapsid surrounded by a core antigen

An envelope containing a surface antigen

108
Q

transmission of hep B & C?

A

Direct or indirect contact with bodily fluid

109
Q

Primary reason for liver transplants in the US?

A

Hep C - symptomless chronic infection no vaccine available

110
Q

Hep D & G are:

A

Cancerous types

111
Q

Helminths examples:

A

Roundworms, tapeworms

Nematodes, trematodes, cestodes

112
Q

How to diagnose parasitic worms?

A

Differential blood count, serological tests, history of travel

113
Q

What causes Pinworm disease

A

Enterobius vermocularis

114
Q

Symptoms of pinworm disease:

A

Infection of intestines leads to diarrhea and anal itching

Worms can die in a few weeks even without treatment

115
Q

Tapeworms:

A

Survive in the human intestines

116
Q

Beef and pork tapeworm are caused by?

A

Taenia saginata and T.solium - acquired by eating poorly cooked beef or pork

117
Q

Flatworms

A

Do not have a respiratory or circulatory structures or a digestive tract

118
Q

Schistosomiasis: liver disease

A

Suspected when liver is swelling

119
Q

What causes schistosomiasis?

A

Blood flukes Schistosoma Masonic or S. japonicum

120
Q

Symptoms of liver disease?

A

Hepatomegaly, liver disease, splenomegaly

121
Q

What is the main bacteria in the vagina?

A

Lactobacillus - produces an acid pH

122
Q

How do diagnose vaginosis?

A

Look at epithelial cells and if they are covered with bacteria that is abnormal (clue cell)

123
Q

Where is the normal micro biota in males and females?

A

Males- urethra

Females- urethra and vagina

124
Q

Causative agents for a UTI?

A

Normal biota of the GI tract

  • E.coli (80% of UTIs)
  • S. saprophyticus
  • Proteus mirabilis
125
Q

What are venereal diseases?

A

STDs - chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis (3 most common)

126
Q

Cause of gonorrhea?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

127
Q

Symptoms of gonorrhea?

A

Females- many are asymptomatic but can spread to Fallopian tubes causing; pelvic inflammatory disease, ectopic pregnancy

Males- tingling of penis, pain with urinating, penile discharge, swollen lymph nodes, painful testicles

128
Q

How is gonorrhea treated?

A

Cefriaxone

129
Q

How to diagnose gonorrhea?

A

Gram negative stain (appears as kidney bean shaped bacteria), Thayer Martin medium

130
Q

What causes chlamydia?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

131
Q

Symptoms of chlamydia:

A

Females- usually asymptomatic, can cause inflammation in Fallopian tubes(salpingitis), PID

Males- can cause sterility, inflammation in urethra, some discharge, can infect throats and anus causing inflammation

132
Q

Diagnosis and treatment for chlamydia?

A

Pap smear & treated with Azithromycin

133
Q

C.trachomatis cannot make its own ATP so it must:

A

Rely on host cell for energy (intracelluar parasite)

134
Q

2 phases of C. trachomatis?

A
  1. infectious elementary body phase
  2. Noninfectious reticulate body

Becomes infectious once the reticulate bodies become compact into elementary bodies and the cell bursts open to infect the next cell

135
Q

What causes yeast infections?

A

Candida albicans (part of normal flora)

136
Q

What is vulvovaginitis & symptoms?

A

Yeast infection (itching, burning, reddening, swelling, discharge)

137
Q

What is oral candidiasis and symptoms?

A

Yeast infection in oral cavity (white curd-like growth on the mucous membranes of the mouth)

Breast fed babies can get it from the nipple of the mom

138
Q

Vaginitis vs vaginosis?

A

Vaginitis- inflammation of vagina

Vaginosis- no inflammation

139
Q

How to diagnose yeast infection?

A

Gram stain - if there’s fungus then it’s a yeast infection

140
Q

What causes trichomoniasis?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis (protozoan)

Carried by prostitutes - sexual contact

141
Q

Symptoms of trichomoniasis?

A

Females- intense itching, burning, yellow green frothy discharge

Males-asymptomatic

142
Q

Ulcer diseases:

A

Syphilis, chancroid, genital herpes

143
Q

Clinical stages of syphilis?

A

Primary- lesion where the bacteria entered the body
secondary- involves fever, skin rash, swollen lymph nodes
tertiary- formation of humans that can cause weakening and bursting blood vessels, degeneration of spinal cord tissue, brain damage

144
Q

What causes syphilis?

A

Treponema palladium (turn, thread, pale)

145
Q

Treatment for syphilis?

A

Penicillin

146
Q

What is congenital syphilis?

A

Syphilis bacterium can pass from a pregnant woman’s circulation into the placenta and be carried throughout the fetal tissues

Inhibits fetal growth, mild defects, & miscarriage

147
Q

What causes hutchinsons teeth?

A

Congenital syphilis (looks like molars for the central teeth)

148
Q

Diagnose of syphilis?

A

Take blood and put it in a slide - if it glows pink then it’s syphilis

149
Q

What causes chancroid?

A

Haemophilis ducreyi

150
Q

How is chancroid transmitted?

A

Direct contact - sexually
Associated with prostitutes and poor hygiene
Uncircumcised men seem to be more commonly infected than circumcised men
People may be asymptomatic

151
Q

What causes genital herpes?

A

HSV-1 and HSV-2

152
Q

Cold sores are caused by?

A

HSV-1 ; after primary infection the virus become latent in sensory ganglia

Recurrence of cold sores occurs when viruses are deactivated and move to the epithelium

153
Q

What causes genital herpes?

A

HSV-2

154
Q

Symptoms for herpes?

A

Itching and throbbing in genital area, followed by blisters

155
Q

Treatment for herpes?

A

No cure, but the antivirals can shorten and decrease the number of outbreaks

156
Q

Infection of the eye with herpes is called:

A

Herpes keratitis - causes scarring of the cornea and blindness

157
Q

What happens if the child gets herpes from mother?

A

Child’s mental development can be delayed, blindness and seizures can occur, should deliver C-section

158
Q

Diagnoses of genital herpes?

A

Pap smear - cell is multi-nucleated

159
Q

What two STIs cause wart like growth?

A

Human papilloma virus and malluscum contagiosum

160
Q

What causes genital warts?

A

Human papilloma virus infection

161
Q

Symptoms of warts?

A

Outgrowth of tissue on the genitals
In females: occur on the vulva and in/around the vagina
In males: occurs on the penis and scrotum
In both sexes: warts can appear on the anus and the skin around the groin

Can cause cancer 10-15 years to develop

162
Q

Group B streptococcus “colonization” causes:

A

Neonatal disease

163
Q

How do u prevent the spread of group B strep from mother to fetus?

A

At 35-37 weeks should be treated with penicillin or ampicillin unless bacterium is found to be resistant in which erythromycin may be used

164
Q

Important properties of synthetic agents, antibiotics and semisynthetic drugs?

A

Synthetic agents are made in a pharmaceutical lab
Antibiotics are products of living microbes & found in nature
Semisynthetic drugs include synthetic and antibiotic elements

165
Q

What are broad spectrum drugs?

A

Affect many taxonomic groups

Ex) tetracycline

166
Q

What are narrow spectrum drugs?

A

Affect only a few pathogens

Ex) polymyxin

167
Q

Chemotherapeutic drug

A

Any chemical used in the treatment, relief of a disease

168
Q

Prophylaxis

A

Use of a drug to prevent imminent infection of a person at risk

169
Q

Antimicrobial chemotherapy

A

The use of chemotherapeutic drugs to control infection

170
Q

Before antimicrobial therapy can begin what 3 factors need to be determined?

A

The nature of the microbe causing the infection
The degree of the microbes susceptibility to various drugs
The overall medical condition of the patient

171
Q

How to identify the agent?

A

Collect specimens from the patient (body fluids, sputum, stool)

Gram stain

172
Q

What technique do u use for testing drug susceptibility?

A

Kirby-Bauer technique

  • surface of an agar plate is spread with bacteria
  • small discs containing a prepared amount of antibiotic are placed on the plate
  • zone of inhibition surrounding the discs is measured and compared with a standard for each drug
  • antibiogram provides data for drug selection
  • this method is less effective for anaerobic, fastidious, or slow growing bacteria
173
Q

What is minimum inhibitory concentration?

A

The smallest concentration (highest dilution) of drug that visibly inhibits growth

174
Q

Chemotherapeutic index:

A

The toxic (how much do I need to make it toxic to u) and therapeutic (how much do I need to kill the bacteria) doses are used to formulate it

175
Q

Antibiotics that work on Cell wall synthesis?

A

Penicillin - active against many gram positive and some gram negative bacteria
-they interfere with cell wall synthesis causing the cell to burst

176
Q

What antibiotic do u use for cell membrane?

A

Polymyxins -increase membrane permeability of gram negative rods, the resulting water uptake leads to cell death

Ex) neosporin

177
Q

What antibiotic affects protein synthesis?

A

Chloramphenicol- used against a wide variety of bacteria and some rickettsial and fungi

Infections like meningitis, cholera, typhoid, Rocky Mountain spotted fever

178
Q

What antibiotic affects protein synthesis?

A

Tetracycline - broad spectrum antibiotic that target the attatchment of tRNA to the 30S subunit

  • they have a benzene ring formation
  • they can destroy intestinal microbiota and cause staining of the teeth
179
Q

What antibiotic affects nucleus acid synthesis?

A

Rifampin - interferes with RNA synthesis

Effective against TB, leprosy, meningitis
Cause liver damage
Body secretions turn red/orange

180
Q

What antibiotic is affective against metabolism?

A

Sulfonamides - out compete folic acid components for binding sites in a bacterial enzyme
-acts as competitive inhibitor

181
Q

What antifungal is effective for cell wall?

A

Caspofungin

182
Q

What antifungal is effective for nucleic acid synthesis?

A

Flucytosine

183
Q

What antifungal inhibits mitosis?

A

Griseofulvin -used against ring worm and athletes foot

184
Q

What’s the goal of antiprotozoal agents?

A

Eradicate the parasite

185
Q

What are aminoquinolines?

A

Antimalarial drugs that accumulate in parasitized red blood cells -they interfere with the parasites ability to break down and digest hemoglobin

186
Q

What is sulfonamides?

A

Antiprotozoal- block folic acid synthesis

187
Q

What is nitroimidazoles?

A

Antiprotozoal - interfere with DNA synthesis, they are used to treat amebiasis, Giardiasis, and trichomoniasis

188
Q

4 ways bacteria can resist

A
  1. Alter metabolic pathway
  2. Antibiotic modification- destroy antibiotic
  3. Target modification - change the transport
  4. Target modification - change the make up of certain parts of the bacteria so the antibiotic won’t work

Test 1 Review- Micro (5 decks)

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