Final exam Flashcards

1
Q

main Ig in primary response

A

IgM

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2
Q

main Ig in secondary response

A

IgG

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3
Q

also known as incomplete or blocking antibodies

A

IgG

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4
Q

the predominant Ig type found in the Rh system

A

IgG

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5
Q

Landsteiners rule

A

Abs are present in plasma only when the corresponding Ag is not present on the RBCs

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6
Q

genotype

A

a persons genetic makeup

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7
Q

phenotype

A

persons blood type outward expression on blood cells

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8
Q

where are the antigens?

A

on the RBC

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9
Q

where are the antibodies?

A

in plasma/serum

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10
Q

what antibodies would you see in Group A?

A

B antibodies

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11
Q

what antibodies would you see in Group B?

A

A antibodies

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12
Q

what antibodies would you see in Group O?

A

A, B, AB antibodies

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13
Q

what antibodies would you see in group AB?

A

none

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14
Q

what are alloantibodies?

A

antibodies to someone else

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15
Q

what are autoantibodies?

A

antibodies to self antigens

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16
Q

the amount of H substance demonstrated on the cells in order of decreasing reactivity?

A

O

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17
Q

what do you find in the forward ABO typing?

A

antigens

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18
Q

what do you find in the reverse ABO typing?

A

antibodies

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19
Q

what is the purpose of preforming an adsorption?

A

used to bind Abs to red blood cells in order to remove them from plasma and better analyze the Abs that may remain

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20
Q

examples of factors influencing antigen-antibody rxs

A
incubation
ionic strength
proximity on antigen that sits on RBC memebrane
temp
pH
centrifugation
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21
Q

if 2 homozgous B adult have children, what blood type would their off spring be?

A

B

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22
Q

why dont labs perform reverse blood groups on newborn infants?

A

they have no developed antibodies

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23
Q

name to antisera used in and ABO/RH

A

Anti-D
Anti-A
Anti-B

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24
Q

Anti-A1 is ocassionally found in individuals of this blood group system

A

A2

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25
Q

what is one of the best ways to test a patient to see if they have a subgroup or variant of the A blood type?

A

plasma or serum A1 cells

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26
Q

2 types of AHG: what are they called and what is contained in each?

A

polyspecific- both anti-IgG and complement

monospecific- one or the other

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27
Q

the lectin from which plant has a specifity for anti-H?

A

ulex europeaus

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28
Q

what is the main purpose of washing red blood cells used for testing in an antiglobulin test?

A

to prevent neutrilization of AHG by globulins

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29
Q

the extract from what plant is used to distinguish type anti-A1 cell from other type A cells?

A

biflourus

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30
Q

the weakest agglutination would be see with anti-A with which of the following: A1B, A1, A3, O

A

A3

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31
Q

what is the difference between an IAT and a DAT and what do they each indicate?

A

IAT-invitro reaction outside the body

DAT- in vivo reaction inside the body coated by gamma and beta globulins

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32
Q

how can cold agglutinins be excluded in a crossmatch?

A

crossmatch prewarming

AC not to be warmed stay cold

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33
Q

what is the purpose of anti-A1 lectin?

A

to detect subgroups of A1 antigen

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34
Q

what is the purpose of anti-A,B antisera?

A

to detect subgroups of A weaker than A2

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35
Q

what type of test would demonstrate that group A or B fetal cells have been coated with maternal O antibodies?

A

DAT (Direct Coombs)

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36
Q

what type of antibodies does an antiglobulin test detect

A

incomplete or blocking abs

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37
Q

which rare blood type produces natural anti-H antibodies?

A

bombay

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38
Q

name a procedure you could perform in the blood bank to remove rouleaux formation

A

saline replacement

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39
Q

ABO and Rh antibodies are most often implicated in what serious condition that affects newborns and fetuses?

A

HDFN

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40
Q

what must be done to a donor unit to firmly establish that it is indeed Rh negative?

A

weak D

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41
Q

when is Rh immunoglobulin (Rhogam) given to Rh negative mothers?

A

28 weeks and withing 72 hours of birth

42
Q

what causes kernicterus in newborns?

A

build up of bilirubin in the brain

43
Q

what type of blood bank testing is used to detect the weak D?

A

IAT

44
Q

before testing, what must be done to all cord cells and why?

A

wash them to remove Whartons jelly

45
Q

what causes HDFN?

A

maternal cells lack antigen that fetal cells have. that is what causes sensitization.

46
Q

what substance do A blood group secretors secrete?

A

AH

47
Q

what substance do B blood group secretors secrete?

A

BH

48
Q

what substance do O blood group secretors secreet?

A

H

49
Q

what substance do AB blood group nonsecretors secrete?

A

nothing

50
Q

how must an individual inherit the Lewis, secretor, and H genes in order to secrete Le^b substance?

A

one dominant gene of each

Le, Se, HH or Hh

51
Q

you have a patient that has developed Lewis antibodies. What type of donor blood would you want to give them?

A

to patients with Le(a-b-)

52
Q

an individual genotypes as le,se,h. These genes are said to be ________ or _________.

A

recessive or amorphic

53
Q

what percentage of the caucasian population are secetors?

A

80%

54
Q

what are the components for testing in a major crossmatch? What is the purpose of this testing?

A

Donor cells and recipient plasma. Select blood products that will have acceptable survival and to insure the safety of the transfusion

55
Q

which antibodies can show up as cold agglutinins?

A

I M N P1 Lea Leb

56
Q

which antibodies belong to the kidd blood group system?

A

Jka Jkb

57
Q

which antibodies are know for showing dosage when reacting with heterozygous red cells?

A

Kidd, Duffy, M, N, S, Rh(other than D) Lutheran

58
Q

what antigen is known to be sex linked?

A

xga

59
Q

the i antigen is most prevelent in what type of population

A

babies

60
Q

which antibodies are most known for delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A

Kidd

61
Q

why is the transfusion of specific blood components preferable to use over whole blood?

A

many patients can effectively be treated once
less reactions making it safer
reduces risk of circulatory overload
wasteful

62
Q

name some the routine testing generally performed on donor blood

A

ABO/Rh
antibody screen
HIV, CMV, HEP and weak D

63
Q

what is autologous donations?

A

donating blood for you to use in the future

64
Q

what is directed blood donation?

A

donation for someone specific

65
Q

what is the advantage of autologous blood?

A

someone with bombay blood type

66
Q

what is emergency release?

A

uncrossmatched 0- blood is issued only when the order is accompanied by signed dr statement

67
Q

main components when seperating blood

A

RBCs packed red blood cells small plasma concentration
Plasma (FFP)
Cryo- insoluable portion of plasma that reamins when thawing from FFP
platelets- concentrated platelet with small plasma concentration

68
Q

normal temp and storage requirement for RBCs with CPDA1

A

1-6

35 days

69
Q

normal temp and storage for frozen RBCs

A

-65 to -120

10 years

70
Q

normal temp and storage for cryo

A

-18

1 year

71
Q

normal temp and storage for platelets

A

room temp for 5 days

72
Q

normal temp and storage for FFP

A

-18 or lower

1 year

73
Q

what is theraputic phlebotomy?

A

blood letting

74
Q

why is theraputic phlebotomy used?

A

to remove blood from a person to treat a condition

75
Q

name 2 conditions that may require theraputic phlebotomy

A

polycythemia vera

porphyrias

76
Q

how long should someone wait between whole blood donations?

A

8 weeks

77
Q

how often should a new sample be collected on a blood recipient when a series of transfusions are to administered over a period of time?

A

3 days

78
Q

when transfusing packed red cells, what is the total amount (plus or minus 10) that is routinely transfused?

A

280 mL

79
Q

why is there a storage limit of 21 days on CPD blood stored at 5 degrees?

A

75% viability is required post transfusion

80
Q

why would a person be permanently deferred from donating blood

A

AIDS
HEP
Drug abuse
men having sex with men

81
Q

what is plasmapheresis?

A

seperate plasma reinfuse RBCs

82
Q

2 acceptable ways to thaw FFP

A

water bath

FDA approved microwave

83
Q

what is the most common of all the transfusion rxs?

A

febrile rxs

allergic rxs

84
Q

what usually causes febrile rxs after transfusion?

A

leucocyte antibodies
antibody pirogens
platelet Abs

85
Q

which government agency is the regulatory agency providing licensure for blood banking reagents?

A

FDA

86
Q

expiration for packed red cells and the hermetic seal has been broken but the unit has been refrigerated

A

24 hours

87
Q

expiration for six units of platelets that have been pooled together in an open system

A

4 hours

88
Q

expiration of FFP that has been thawed and is being kept in the fridge

A

24 hours

89
Q

what is the temp limit for shipping packed red cells?

A

1-10 degrees C

90
Q

what does refractory mean and which blood component is it associated with?

A

unresponsive to platelet transfusion

91
Q

why are patient specimens kept in the lab after testing is completed and for how long?

A

makes it possible to retest original tests

7 days

92
Q

methods of good record keeping

A

use of indelible ink
single line through mistake then signed and dated
recording data in the correct log book

93
Q

what is the number one source of error in blood bank?

A

clerical errors

94
Q

blood component for factor VIII deficiency

A

cryo

95
Q

blood component for marked thrombocytopenia

A

platelets

96
Q

blood component for factor V deficiency

A

FFP

97
Q

blood component for exchange transfusion

A

whole blood - fresh

98
Q

blood component for severe burns

A

human serum albumin

99
Q

blood component for chronic anemia

A

packed red cells

100
Q

blood component for acute blood loss

A

whole blood

101
Q

blood component for hemophilia

A

cryo

102
Q

how long are records kept?

A

12 months