Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

which blood group system is associated with resistance to malaria?

A

duffy (fy^a, fy^b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which antibodies are considered cold agglutinins?

A

I M N P1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which autoantibody specificity is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria and what test is discussed in lecture is used to detect it?

A

autoanti-p

donath landsteiner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which antigens are destroyed by enzymes?

A

M N S fy^a fy^b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which antigens are enhanced by enzymes?

A

Ii Jk^a P1 Rh (not d) lewis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which procedure might help to distiguish between and anti-fy^a and an anti-Jk^a?

A

fiacin treated panel enhances Jk^a and destroys fy^a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which blood group is produced in the tissues?

A

Lewis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the McLeod phenotype?

A

absence of kx antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which of the antibodies from the other blood group systems discussed for this exam require the antiglobulin test (AHG) for in vitro detection?

A
Kell
Duffy
Kidd
MN (all phases)
Ss
Lutheran
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the rarest phenotype of the Lutheran system?

A

Lu (a- b-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which antigen X-linked?

A

xga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which antibody is often found in patients with infectious mono, lyphoproliferative disease, and cold agglutinins?

A

anti-i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which antibodies are known for causing delayed HTR

A

kidd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

fy (a-b-) is found primarily in what type of population?

A

African American

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which antigen is found primarily in south central and north american indians and asians?

A

Di^a (diego)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which blood group systems are known for showing dosage?

A

MNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the most common antibody seen in the BB besides ABO and Rh antibodies?

A

anti-K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which blood group antigen increases in strength as a newborn grows older?

A

anti-i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

can a patient with blood grous Ss be immunized by genotypes SS, Ss, or ss?

A

no, because they have both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

can a patient with blood grous Ss be immunized by genotypes SS, Ss, or ss?

A

no, because they have both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which antigens are actually WBC antigens that are expressed in variable degrees on red blood cells and can cause confusing reactions in serological tests?

A

bg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which antigens are well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, and generally saline reactive?

A

MN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

name 3 most common antibodies that most likely to react at 37 degrees C?

A

anti-D anti-E anti-K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the most practial manner for preventing transmission of malaria by blood transfusion?

A

dont accept blood from people who have been to malarial endemic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

list the reason a prospective donor might be permanently rejected for donation of blood products

A
AIDs
HEP
Men having sex with men
-IV drug users
-stroke
-tegason
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

can unused autologous be placed in the general supply and used for another patient other than who it was intended for?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

list the reasons a prospective donor might be temporarily deffered and for how long

A
  • given birth within the last 6 weeks
  • jail
  • vaccines
  • fever
  • STD
  • lyme disease
  • acutane
  • transfusion
28
Q

can unused autologous be placed in the general supply and used for another patient other than who it was intended for?

A

no

29
Q

what are the two terms used to refer to AHG that contains both anti-complement and anti-IgG?

A

polyspecific or broad spectrum

30
Q

a transfusion that replaces approximately a patients blood volume within a 24 hour period is called what kind of transfusion?

A

massive transfusion

31
Q

when a physician signs an order for uncrossmatched blood and accepts full responsibility for the transfusion of suck products this is referred to as what?

A

emergency release

32
Q

why are homozygous cells used for “ruling out”?

A

incase your dealing with an antibody that shows dosage

33
Q

why should a patients serum/plasma for compatibility testing be stored?

A

concerns with original testing. having to redo the test

transfusion reaction..HTR

34
Q

leukocyte antibodies are usually responsible for what type of transfusion reaction?

A

febrile

35
Q

which blood bank test detects in vitro sensitization?

A

IAT

36
Q

how is the shelf life for blood determined?

A

has to have 70% viability after transfusion

37
Q

what is the purpose of the albumin/liss portion of an antibody screen or crossmatch?

A

to help detect IgG

38
Q

a positive DAT would give you what kind of information on the patient?

A

RBCs are coated with gamma and or beta globulins

39
Q

a patient that has had multiple transfusions is most likely to have what type of transfusion reaction?

A

febrile

40
Q

what doe CPDA stand for

A

citrate, phosphate, dextrose, adinine

41
Q

what is the shelf life of a unit of blood with CPDA-1 as the anticoagulant?

A

35 days

42
Q

incomplete anitbodies are ususally Ig?

A

IgG

43
Q

how often should a new recipient sample be collected if a series of transfusions are to be administered over a period of several days?

A

3 days

44
Q

incomplete anitbodies are ususally Ig?

A

IgG

45
Q

what does it mean to perform a major crossmatch?

A

recipient plasma with donor cells

46
Q

cells are “washed” how many times in an antibody screen?

A

3

47
Q

what is the purpose of “washing” cells?

A

to prevent neutrilization of AHG by globulins

48
Q

what is therapeutic phlebotomy and why is it used?

A

remove blood from patient with a certain condition

49
Q

give 2 diseases or conditions where therapeutic phlebotomy may be used?

A

polycythemia vera, porphyrias, hemocromitosis

50
Q

what type of transfusion is it when a recipient serves as her/his own donor?

A

autologous

51
Q

what is the 3 in 3 out rule? why is it used?

A

pick three negative and 3 positive

used to confirm identity of a specific antibody

52
Q

why is an antibody screen done?

A

to detect certain antibodies

53
Q

when is an antibody screen done?

A

prior to tranfusing

54
Q

what are the stages of an antibody screen?

A

IM
37
AHG
check cells

55
Q

what happens if the antibody screen is positive?

A

run a panel

56
Q

why is there a control in an antibody screen?

A

control detects whether or not its in vivo

57
Q

what does TRALI stand for?

A

transfusion related acute lung injury

58
Q

what is TRALI?

A

reaction to leukocyte antibodies in plasma that cause the plasma to leak into the lungs.
*leading cause of transfusion related deaths.

59
Q

what is a directed or specific donation?

A

intended for a specific recipient

60
Q

anti-Dia

A

diego

61
Q

Anti-Sc2

A

Sienna

62
Q

Anti Xga

A

xg

63
Q

Anti-Ge3

A

gerbich

64
Q

Anti-Ch3

A

chido/rodgers

65
Q

Anti-Ge3

A

gerbich

66
Q

if you do an antibody panel and all cells are positive, including the control, what should be the first thing you should think of may be causing the problem?

A

warm or cold auto antibody

67
Q

what is the preferred storage temp for RBCs?

A

1-6 degrees C