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Immunohematology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best temp range for cold agglutinins to react?

A

0-4 degrees

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2
Q

3 examples of infections that may cause cold agglutinins to develop

A

mycoplasma pneumonia
primary a typical pneumonia
infectious mononucleosis

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3
Q

the process in which a hypersensitive animal is given several very small subcutaneous injections of Ag at closely spaced intervals and may then be able to tolerate an ordinarily shocking dose without severe reactions

A

desensitization

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4
Q

what is Grave’s disease?

A

Hyperthyroidism with increased T 3 and increased T4 or decreased/a scent TSH

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5
Q

in a hemagglutinations inhibition test agglutination occurs with no Ag is + or = test

A

agglutination = neg test

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6
Q

in a hemagglutinations inhibition test with no agglutination and a presence of Ag is a = or + test

A

no agglutination = pos test

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7
Q

Within which organ is it thought that potentially self-reactive lymphocytes are removed?

A

thymis

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8
Q

the Nichols strain of T. pallidum is used in what type of testing?

A

FTA-ABS

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9
Q

When do serum tests for syphilis usually become reactive?

A

between first and third week following appearance of primary lesion

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10
Q

In secondary syphilis would the serological test performed be =, +, or not perfomered at this stage?

A

test would be +

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11
Q

How long after syphilis treatment does it take for a test to become NR?

A

NR 12 months after treatment

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12
Q

The secondary stage of syphilis occurs how many weeks after the appearance of the primary chancre?

A

6-8 weeks after first chancre

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13
Q

3 pharmacologically active mediators of anapylaxis

A

histamine
tryptase
chimase
neutrophil/chemotactic factor

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14
Q

In the latent stage of syphilis it is usually noncontagious..T/F

A

T

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15
Q

P24 is a viral Ag that is the first to be detected in which potentially deadly virus?

A

HIV

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16
Q

3 means of transmission of HIV

A

body fluids
sexual activity
mother of fetus

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17
Q

needles that dispense Ag for the VDRL test mush be calibrated to TD how much?

A

1/60 mL

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18
Q

how often should a VDRL needle be QC’d?

A

each batch

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19
Q

T. pallidum crosses the placenta in which week of gestation?

A

18th week

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20
Q

What does the FTA-ABS test identify in the pts serum?

A

treponemal Ab

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21
Q

what does the flourescein labeled antihuman globulin do the interpreting the FTA-ABS test?

A

anti-human globulin makes the Ag-Ab reaction visible

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22
Q

What is “labeled” in the direct flourescent Ab test?

A

known Ab

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23
Q

The serum is inactivated to destroy complement in the VDRL or the RPR?

A

VDRL

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24
Q

A flat bottomed bottle is required for VDRL or RPR?

A

RPR

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25
Q

A modified VDRL Ag is used in wht type of testing?

A

RPR- has addition of charcoal particles

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26
Q

synonyms for type B viral hepatitis

A

HBV
Hep B
serum hepatitis B
viral hep

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27
Q

what is a chancre?

A

lesion that develops in primary syphilis

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28
Q

in order to properly perform the RPR test the rotator speed should be what?

A

100 rpm

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29
Q

why do you get false neg results with postzone reactions?

A

Ag exceeds the Ab quanity

no lattice forms

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30
Q

the Ab to tissue lipids

A

reagin

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31
Q

why would you get a false neg results with a prozone reaction?

A

Ab exceeds the Ag

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32
Q

optimal portions of Ag and Ab are reached. Stable lattice structures are formed and precipitate out.

A

zone of equivalence

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33
Q

What is tannic acid used for in serologic testing?

A

allows proteins to complex with RBCs as Ag carriers

converts hemolytic reactions to agglutination reactions

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34
Q

reaction caused by injection of theraputic foreign serum usually made from horse or cow.

A

serum sickness

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35
Q

Western blot test vs. ELISA test

A

ELISA is a screening test since it tests HIV 1&2 together

WB uses Ab to individual Ag for specific identification making it confirmatory

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36
Q

Why is cholesterol added to the Ag that is used in teh flocculation test for syphilis?

A

cholesterol is the absorption center for tissue lipids

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37
Q

substance that causes particles to coagulate to form a thickened mass.

A

agglutinin

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38
Q

Treating a pregnant woman does not cure the fetus T/F

A

F

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39
Q

congenital, primary and secondary syphilis are best treated by repeated doses of penicillin T/F

A

F

40
Q

treatment does not alter any tissue damage that has already occured T/F

A

T

41
Q

it is necessary to get repeated blood tests for 5 years following treatment T/F

A

F

42
Q

tertiary syphilis cannot be treated T/F

A

F

43
Q

loss of self tolerance results in what type of disease?

A

autoimmune

44
Q

Ags that are closely related in structure that can cause false + results

A

cross reactivity

45
Q

the presence of anti-double stranded DNA can distinguish RA from what other autoimmune disease?

A

SLE (lupus)

46
Q

recent exposure to group A hemolytic strep can be detected when there are high or steadily increasing concentrations of what in a pts serum?

A

ASO (anit-streptolysin-O)

47
Q

severe systemic allergic reaction that results when the organs involved are primarily blood vessels and smooth muscles of the circulatory system

A

anaphylaxis

48
Q

transplant of tissue from one species to another

A

xenograft

49
Q

what is xenograft aka?

A

heterograft

50
Q

transplanting from one individual to a genetically indentical person of the same species is what?

A

homograft/allograft

51
Q

hypersensitive reaction caused by direct contact of a substance to the skin

A

contact dermatitis

52
Q

3 things that can cause contact dermatitis

A

metals
drugs
plants

53
Q

which type of test is most often widely used to detect HIV?

A

ELISA for screening

WB for confirmatory

54
Q

of Hep C, Hep G, and Hep B which is most virulent?

A

Hep C

55
Q

Why is Hep C more dangerous than Hep B?

A

85% of cases convert to chronic hep versus 10% with Heb B

56
Q

what is the first Ag to appear in the serum of a person infected with HBV?

A

Hep B surface Ag

57
Q

how is Hep A trasmitted?

A

oral-fecal

58
Q

type IV hypersensitivity is the only type that involves what?

A

T-cells

59
Q

testing for the p24 Ag would be useful as a screening test for blood products T/F

A

F

60
Q

how long does it take for an individual to develop HIV Ab after exposure to HIV

A

6-12 weeks

61
Q

What antibody appears in the serum of individuals that have recovered from Hep B or who have recieved the Hep B vaccination?

A

Hep B surface Ab

62
Q

which form of hep is responsible for the most post-transfusion reactions?

A

Hep C

63
Q

If a patient has an immune response to his/her own IgG, they would most likely have a + or = RA test?

A

+

64
Q

which set of Ag would be represented on a + WB

A

Gp41

Gp120

65
Q

Is the Ag in a precipitation reaction soulable or insoulable?

A

must be soluable

66
Q

What does ANA stand for?

A

Antinuclear Ab

67
Q

how is testing for ANA useful?

A

found in >95% of SLE pts.

68
Q

what does HLA stand for?

A

human leukocyte Ag

69
Q

Why is HLA important?

A

most important immunological barrier to the survivial of transplanted organs and tissues

70
Q

which hep virus requires HBV infection?

A

Hep D

71
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission for EBV and infectious mono?

A

intimate contact with salivary secrections from infected individual

72
Q

what percentage of lymphs would you expect to see on a blood smear in EBV and infectious mono pts?

A

10% atypical

> 50% will be lymphs

73
Q

which malignancy has been associated with EBV?

A

hodgkins lymphoma

74
Q

which virus have most people been exposed to by their elderly years?

A

CMV

75
Q

ex. of antiretroviral drug therapies

A
  • nucleoside analouge reverse trhascriptase inhibitors
  • nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  • fusion inhibitors
  • protease inhibitors
  • coreceptor inhibitors
76
Q

how do antiretroviral drug therapies work?

A

supress virus’s replication

77
Q

which cells are the main target ofr the HIV virus and why?

A

helper T-cells because the high # of CD4 Ag

78
Q

a method used to determine the progression of the HIV virus and how is it done?

A

CD4 T-cell enumeration

flow cytometry

79
Q

shingles is essentially a re-emergence of what virus?

A

chicken pox

80
Q

regarding HIV trasmission, which specimens are not considered infectious unless visibly bloody?

A

saliva, sweat, tears, urine, feces, vomitus

81
Q

in the HIV virus, what is reverse transcriptase responsible for doing?

A

produces complementary DNA from the viral RNA

82
Q

the gene that codes the enzymes necessary for the HIV replication?

A

Pol gene

83
Q

explain latency period of HIV infection

A

decrease in viremia
symptoms subtle or abscent
gradual determination of immune system

84
Q

what is the median length of time the latency period in HIV can last?

A

10 years

85
Q

symptoms of primary infection in HIV are similar to symptoms from what other virus?

A

mono

86
Q

advantages of chemiluminescent assay

A

great sensitivity
stable reagents and relatively nontoxic
inexpensive
fast turn around time

87
Q

disadvantages of chemiluminescent assay

A
  • false results possible from lack of precision in injection of the hydrogen peroxide
  • urine and plasma may cause quenching of the light emission
88
Q

describe the methodolgy of turbidimetry

A

measure of the cloudiness of a solution. measures the reduction in light intensity due to reflection, absorption, or scatter

89
Q

describe nephlometry

A

measures the light that is scattered at a particular angle from the incident beas as it passes through a suspension.

90
Q

Ab that is RF belongs to which Ig class?

A

IgM

91
Q

what is the test anti-CCP

A

cyclic citrillunated peptides

92
Q

what is the anit-CCP test used for?

A

lead marker for RA, much more specific than RF

93
Q

what are the causitive agents for Hep.

A

radiation
chemicals
viruses
disease processes

94
Q

what does VDRL stand for?

A

venereal disease research laboratory

95
Q

what does RPR stand for?

A

rapid plasma reagin

Immunohematology (5 decks)

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