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Spinal Anatomy II > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the generic parts of a spinal nerve?

A
  • ventral and dorsal nerve rootlets
  • ventral and dorsal nerve roots
  • dorsal nerve root ganglion
  • mixed spinal nerve
  • ventral and dorsal primary nerve rami or divisions
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2
Q

What is the name given to the dendrite of a primary sensory neuron?

A

peripheral sensory process

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3
Q

What parts of the peripheral nerve system will contain peripheral sensory proceses?

A
  • mixed spinal nerve
  • ventral primary ramus/division
  • dorsal primary ramus/division
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4
Q

What parts of the peripheral nerve system will contain central sensory processes?

A
  • dorsal nerve root

- dorsal nerve rootlets

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5
Q

What are the ultimate target cells of the somatic efferent pathways?

A

skeletal muscle

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6
Q

What are the ultimate target cells of the visceral efferent pathways?

A
  • smooth muscle
  • cardiac muscle
  • glandular tissue
  • some unique specialized cell types
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7
Q

What cord levels will contain somatic efferent neurons?

A

cord levels C1-Co1

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8
Q

What skeletal muscles are specifically innervated via dorsal primary rami/divisions?

A
  • splenius
  • erector spinae
  • transversospinalis
  • suboccipital
  • interspinalis
  • intertransversarii
  • levator costarum
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9
Q

What skeletal muscle is innervated via both ventral primary rami/divisions and dorsal primary rami/divisions?

A

the intertransversarii

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10
Q

Skeletal muscle located on the dorsal side of the extremities will be innervated by which spinal ramus or division branches?

A

ventral primary ramus/division branches

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11
Q

What are the subdivisions of the visceral division of the peripheral nerve system?

A
  • sympathetic
  • parasympathetic
  • enteric
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12
Q

What is the location for the enteric nerve system?

A

along the gastrointestinal tract and organ system

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13
Q

What is the location of the myenteric plexus of Auerbach?

A

between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers along the entire gut

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14
Q

What function is primarily emphasized for the myenteric plexus of Auerbach?

A

peristaltic activity along the gastrointestinal tract

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15
Q

What is the location of the submucosal plexus of Meissner?

A

between the circular muscle layer and the muscularis mucosa layer of the gut

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16
Q

Which enteric plexus lies between the circular muscle layer and the muscularis mucosa layer of the gut?

A

submucosal plexus of Meissner

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17
Q

What function is primarily emphasized for the submucosal plexus of Meissner?

A

influence on the process of secretion/absorption of the gut

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18
Q

What locations of the gastrointestinal tract are most influenced by parasympathetics?

A

the most proximal and distal parts of the gastrointestinal tract

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19
Q

The superior cervical ganglion is the result of fusion of which paravertebral ganglia?

A

C1-C4 paravertebral ganglia

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20
Q

The middle cervical ganglion is the result of fusion of which paravertebral ganglia?

A

C5, C6 paravertebral ganglia

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21
Q

The inferior cervical ganglion is the result of fusion of which paravertebral ganglia?

A

C7-C8 paravertebral ganglia

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22
Q

The stellate ganglion is the result of fusion of which paravertebral ganglia?

A

C7, C8, T1 paravertebral ganglia

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23
Q

The stellate ganglion will communicate with which spinal nerves?

A

ventral primary rami of C7, C8, and T1 spinal nerves

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24
Q

Which sympathetic ganglia are located in front of the vertebral body?

A

prevertebral sympathetic ganglia

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25
Q

What are the names of the most consistent prevertebral ganglia?

A
  • celiac ganglion
  • superior mesenteric ganglion
  • inferior mesenteric ganglion
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26
Q

Which of the prevertebral nerve plexuses are more likely to contain secondary sympathetic neuron cell bodies?

A
  • cardiac plexus
  • pulmonary plexus
  • celiac plexus
  • inferior hypogastric (pelvic) plexus
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27
Q

How are the remaining nerve plexuses named?

A

according to the name of the blood vessel they accompany

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28
Q

Based on the target cell innervated, what are the classifications given to postganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers?

A
  • vasomotor fiber
  • pilomotor fiber
  • sudomotor fiber
  • secretomotor fiber
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29
Q

What is the target of postganglionic sympathetic pilomotor fibers?

A

smooth muscle of hair follicles; the erector pili muscle

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30
Q

What is the target of postganglionic sympathetic sudomotor fibers?

A

specialized cells of sudorific glands or sweat glands

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31
Q

How are white fibers classified and to what is their color due?

A

preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers which are myelinated

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32
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers will bundle together to form what structure which attaches to the paravertebral sympathetic ganglion?

A

white ramus communicans

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33
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers will bundle together to form what structure which attaches to the paravertebral sympathetic ganglion?

A

gray ramus communicans

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34
Q

What forms the sympathetic trunk or sympathetic chain?

A
  • interganglionic rami communicans

- paravertebral sympathetic ganglia

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35
Q

What does the splanchnic nerve unite?

A

paravertebral sympathetic ganglia to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglion

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36
Q

What rami will communicate with the paravertebral ganglia?

A
  • white rami communicans
  • gray rami communicans
  • interganglionic rami communicans
  • splanchnic nerves
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37
Q

What rami or nerves will communicate with prevertebral ganglia?

A
  • splanchnic nerves

- nerves to the target organs (gastric nerve)

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38
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers will pass through what neuronal structures to enter a paravertebral ganglion?

A
  • lateral horn
  • ventral horn
  • white matter of the cord
  • ventral nerve rootlet
  • ventral nerve root
  • mixed spinal nerve
  • ventral primary ramus
  • white ramus communicans
  • paravertebral ganglion of origin
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39
Q

What is the termination of the horizontal sympathetic neuronal pathway?

A
  • smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the parietal wall of the thorax and upper abdomen
  • territory roughly corresponding to the T1-T12, L1-L2 dermatomes
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40
Q

What is the termination of the ascending sympathetic neuronal pathway?

A

smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the head, neck, and upper extremity

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41
Q

In the ascending pathway, what is the location of synapse of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber?

A

in a paravertebral ganglion higher than the paravertebral ganglion of origin

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42
Q

List, in order, the pathway of the postganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber of the ascending pathway which synapses on an erector pili muscle on the back of the upper extremity.

A
  • paravertebral ganglion of synapse
  • gray ramus communicans
  • ventral primary ramus
  • synapse on erector pili muscle
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43
Q

What is the termination of the descending sympathetic neuronal pathway?

A

smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the parietal wall of the lower abdomen, pelvis and lower extremity

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44
Q

In the descending pathway, what is the location of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber?

A

in a paravertebral ganglion lower than the paravertebral ganglion of origin

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45
Q

Upper and lower extremities are innervated with sympathetics exclusively derived from which ramus or division?

A

ventral primary ramus

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46
Q

In the splanchnic pathway, what is the location of synapse of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber?

A

in a prevertebral ganglion or prevertebral plexus

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47
Q

What is the cord level origin of the sympathetic neuronal pathway to the vertebral artery?

A

upper thoracic spinal cord levels

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48
Q

Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the pathway to the vertebral artery?

A

inferior cervical ganglion

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49
Q

What is the cord level origin of the sympathetic neuronal pathway to the head?

A

upper thoracic spinal cord levels T1-T2 typically

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50
Q

Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the pathway to the head?

A

superior cervical ganglion

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51
Q

What is the cord level origin of the sympathetic neuronal pathway to the heart?

A

thoracic spinal cord levels T1-T4, T5

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52
Q

Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the pathway to the heart?

A

1) paravertebral ganglia of origin from T1-T4, T5
2) any cervical paravertebral ganglion
3) the cardiac plexus

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53
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers may become incorporated in what neuronal structures after the paravertebral ganglion of origin in the pathway to the heart?

A

cardiac splanchnic nerves

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54
Q

What is the embryonic derivative of the adrenal gland?

A
  • the adrenal cortex is derived from mesoderm

- the adrenal medulla is derived from neural ectoderm

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55
Q

What cell population of the adrenal medulla represents neural ectoderm?

A

chromaffin cells

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56
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers in the pathway to the adrenal gland will be incorporated in what neuronal structures?

A
  • the sympathetic pathway to the paravertebral ganglion of origin
  • then into lesser splanchnic
  • least splanchnic
  • lumbar splanchnic nerves
  • finally in the adrenal nerve to the adrenal gland
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57
Q

Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the adrenal gland pathway?

A

chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla

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58
Q

Primary parasympathetic efferent neurons will be associated with which spinal nerves?

A

spinal nerves S2-S4

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59
Q

What is the location for a spinal nerve secondary parasympathetic efferent neuron?

A

typically an intramural ganglion or neural plexus

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60
Q

Which splanchnic nerves contain preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?

A

nervi erigentes or pelvic splanchnic nerves

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61
Q

What is the location of the intramural parasympathetic ganglion?

A

on or in the wall of the target organ

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62
Q

Do spinal nerves typically contain postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?

A

no

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63
Q

What is the name of the largest medullary feeder artery?

A

the artery of Adamkiewicz or the arteria radicalis magna anterior

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64
Q

What are the characteristics of the Artery of Adamkiewicz?

A
  • it is predominantly found on the left side
  • anterior medullary feeder
  • located in the T9/T10 intervertebral foramen
  • primary vascular supply to the lumbar enlargement
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65
Q

What will the intervertebral veins drain into?

A

the external vertebral venous plexus or Batson’s plexus

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66
Q

What is a unique histological feature of the veins of the vertebral column?

A

they appear to lack valves

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67
Q

What are the specific attachment sites for a cervical spinal nerve?

A
  • sulcus for the ventral primary ramus on the costotransverse bar
  • vertebral artery
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68
Q

What forms the lumbosacral tunnel?

A
  • lumbosacral ligament
  • transverse process of L5
  • sacral ala
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69
Q

What condition is the result of encroahment on the L5 spinal nerve?

A

the far out syndrome

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70
Q

What ligament may contribute to the loss of size in the lumbar intervertebral foramen?

A

the transforaminal ligament

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71
Q

What is more likely the cause of nerve irritation at the sacral intervertebral foramen?

A

the tilt or position of the entire sacrum relative to the pelvis

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72
Q

What are some examples of destructive lesions of the vertebral body?

A
  • tuberculosis
  • hemangiomas
  • osteoporosis
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73
Q

What may reduce the impact of intervertebral disc loss of integrity on the intervertebral foramen in the cervical and thoracic spine?

A
  • the joint of Luschka in the cervicals

- the costocentral joint in the thoracics

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74
Q

What are examples of acquired alterations of the spinal curves identified in class?

A
  • obesity
  • pregnancy
  • use of backpacks
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75
Q

What specific types of nerve fibers may be associated with spinal nerves?

A
  • somatic efferent fibers
  • preganglionic visceral, involuntary or autonomic efferent fibers
  • postganglionic visceral, involuntary or autonomic efferent fibers
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76
Q

Identify the common ligaments of the vertebral column.

A
  • anterior longitudinal ligament
  • intervertebral disc
  • posterior longitudinal ligament
  • ligamentum flavum
  • capsular ligament
  • interspinous ligament
  • ligamentum nuchae
  • supraspinous ligament
  • intertransverse ligament
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77
Q

What is the reason that nine common ligaments are identified but only eight will be attached at any specific vertebral couple?

A

the ligamentum nuchae and supraspinous ligaments attach to the spinous tubercles, but only one of these will be identified at a single vertebral couple

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78
Q

What is the cervical nucleus pulposus composed of?

A

fibrocartilage

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79
Q

What is the consequence of non-aggregated glycosaminoglycans in the lumbar nucleus pulposus?

A

the nucleus pulposus will loose water under deformation conditions

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80
Q

What cell is associated with the nucleus pulposus until about age eleven?

A

notochord cells

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81
Q

Which type of collagen is dominant in the nucleus pulposus?

A

collagen type II

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82
Q

What is unusual about the cervical annulus fibrosus?

A

it lacks any lamellar or layered organization

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83
Q

What is the organization of the lumbar annulus fibrosus?

A

it has 12-14 concentric cylindrical lamellae

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84
Q

Which type of collagen is dominant in the annulus fibrosus?

A

collagen type I

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85
Q

What is the organizational pattern for collagen fibers in the annulus fibrosus?

A

they are parallel with one another in a single lamellus and angled

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86
Q

What is the organization of collagen fibers between lamellae?

A

collagen fibers will be angle in the opposite direction such that a spiral - counterspiral organization is observed

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87
Q

What is the cartilage end plate derived from?

A

the epiphyseal plate

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88
Q

What is the principal type of collagen fiber within the cartilage end plate?

A

the type II collagen fiber

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89
Q

What is the direction of collagen fibers within the cartilage end plate?

A

collagen fibers are aligned anterior to posterior

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90
Q

What are the types of receptor endings in the intervertebral disc?

A

nociceptors and proprioceptors

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91
Q

What is the relationship between size of the intervertebral disc and receptor endings?

A

the larger the disc, the greater the variety of receptor endings

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92
Q

What are the sources of innervation of the intervertebral disc?

A
  • sinu-vertebral nerve (sinus vertebral nerve, recurrent meningeal nerve)
  • fibers from the ventral primary ramus
  • fibers from the white ramus communicans
  • fibers from the paradiscal ramus communicans
  • fibers from the gray ramus communicans
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93
Q

What is the name given to the white ramus communicans which becomes embedded within the annulus fibrosus of the intervertebral disc?

A

the paradiscal ramus communicans

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94
Q

What neural plexus is formed, in part, by fibers from the paradiscal ramus communicans?

A

the lateral neural plexus of the vertebral column

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95
Q

What are the divisions of the embryonic somite?

A
  • sclerotome
  • myotome
  • dermatome
96
Q

What part of the somite will form the vertebral column?

A

the sclerotome

97
Q

What structure is formed following migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord?

A

the perichordal blastema

98
Q

What is formed within the perichordal blastema between the sclerotomites?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner

99
Q

What does the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner becomes?

A

the perichordal disc

100
Q

What structure forms following migration and subsequent mixing of the sclerotomites?

A

the vertebral blastema

101
Q

What part of the intervertebral disc will the notochord form?

A

the nucleus pulposus

102
Q

What part of the intervertebral disc will the perichordal disc form?

A

the annulus fibrosus

103
Q

What is the earliest indicator of the position of the adult intervertebral disc?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner

104
Q

What is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?

A

it brakes or limits dorsi-flexion or hyperextension of the vertebral column

105
Q

What was ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region identified as?

A

Forestier’s Disease

106
Q

What is ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region now identified as?

A

Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis or DISH

107
Q

Newer research suggests what regional variation in the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A
  • prominent in the cervicals
  • occasional in the thoracics
  • rare in the lumbars
108
Q

What is the function of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

it brakes or limits flexion of the vertebral column

109
Q

Where is ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly identified?

A

the cervical spine with an 80% incidence

110
Q

What is the gender, age, and ethnic bias associated with ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

it is greater in males over 50 and has a higher incidence in the Japanese

111
Q

What is the acronym for ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

OPLL

112
Q

At one time ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament was an example of what condition?

A

Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis or DISH

113
Q

What is the name given to the ligamentum flavum based on appearance and histology?

A

it is a yellow elastic ligament

114
Q

What is now thought to be a major function of the ligamentum flavum?

A

it is an early prime factor in extension of the vertebral column

115
Q

What is the relationship between the capsular ligament and mobility?

A

the more lax/loose the capsular ligament is, the greater the motion of the joint

116
Q

If the zygapophyseal capsular ligament is not significantly involved in restricting motion what is its function?

A

it is probably involved in proprioceptive feedback to the muscles stabilizing the vertebral couple during movement

117
Q

What is now thought to be a major function of the interspinous ligament?

A

it is more likely a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

118
Q

What is the name given to the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

the funicular layer or part

119
Q

What is the name given to the deep layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

the lamellar layer or part

120
Q

What are the attachment sites for the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A
  • the external occipital protuberance
  • external occipital crest
  • spinous tubercle of C7
121
Q

What is the histological make-up of human ligamentum nuchae?

A

it is a yellow elastic ligament, but has more collagen fibers than in quadrupeds

122
Q

What is the termination level inferiorly for the supraspinous ligament according to current literature?

A
  • primarily at L4 (73%);

- between L4 and L5 (5%)

123
Q

Where is the supraspinous ligament said to be best developed?

A

in the lumbar spine

124
Q

What is now thought to be a major function of the supraspinous ligament?

A

it is a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

125
Q

What forms the ventral slip of the intertransverse ligament in the lumbar spine?

A
  • A membranous partition from the vertebral body covers the intervertebral foramen and extends back to the transverse process to from a ventral slip.
  • It is penetrated by the contents of the intervertebral foramen.
126
Q

What forms the dorsal slip of the intertransverse ligament in the lumbar spine?

A

A thick partition extends from the lamina and articular processes and extends laterally to blend with the ventral slip to form a septum separating the anterior muscles from the posterior muscles of the body wall

127
Q

What are the attachment sites of the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament?

A
  • arcuate rim of the posterior arch of C1
  • superior articular process of the lateral mass of C1
  • posterior margin of the foramen magnum of the occipital bone
128
Q

What amount of flexion-extension is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

about twenty-five degrees

129
Q

What amount of axial rotation is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

about three to eight degrees one side axial rotation

130
Q

What amount of lateral bending is accomodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

about five degrees

131
Q

What is the ADI?

A
  • the Atlanto-Dental Interspace

- a radiographic distance between the surfaces of the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint

132
Q

What is the ADI of children compared with that of adults?

A
  • about 4.5mm in children;

- a range of 2-3mm or about 2.5mm in adults

133
Q

What are the degrees of movement facilitated at the atlanto-axial joint?

A
  • about 20 degrees flexion-extension
  • 40 degrees one side axial rotation
  • 5 degrees of lateral bending
134
Q

The occiput-C1-C2 joint complex accounts for what percent of all cervical axial rotation?

A

about 60%

135
Q

What ligament attaches to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum and the tip of the odontoid process of C2?

A

the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament

136
Q

What is the embryonic derivative of the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament?

A

the notochord

137
Q

What is the function of the alar ligament?

A

together they function to resist axial rotation

138
Q

What ligament attaches to the posterior part of the inferior epiphyseal rim and vertebral body of C2 and the anterior rim of the foramen magnum?

A

the membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane

139
Q

What are the layers of the membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane?

A

a superficial layer and deep layer are identified

140
Q

List, in order, the ligaments in a midsagittal plane from the dura mater at the level of the medulla oblongata to the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint.

A
  • the membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane
  • the cruciate ligament
  • the capsular ligament of the posterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint
  • the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament
141
Q

An intra-articular ligament will be identified with which ribs?

A

ribs 2-9

142
Q

Which vertebrae will have a synovial (diarthrosis) arthrodia costotransverse joint?

A

typically T1-T10

143
Q

At what rib will the superior costotransverse ligament be absent?

A

the first rib

144
Q

What ligaments will attach to the collum of the twelfth rib?

A
  • the superior costotransverse ligament from T11

- the lumbocostal ligament from L1

145
Q

Which vertebrae will have an attachment for the inferior costotransverse ligament?

A

T1 - T11

146
Q

Which ribs will have an attachment for the inferior costotransverse ligament?

A

rib 1 - rib 11

147
Q

Which vertebrae will have an attachment for the lateral costotransverse ligament?

A

T1 - T11

148
Q

Which ribs will have an attachment for the lateral costotransverse ligament?

A

rib 1 - rib 11

149
Q

What muscle is intimately attached to the superior iliolumbar ligament?

A

quadratus lumborum

150
Q

Which of the current ligament from the iliolumbar ligament complex represents the iliolumbar ligament of classical descriptions?

A

the superior iliolumbar ligament

151
Q

Which ligament from the iliolumbar ligament complex represents the lumbosacral ligament of classical descriptions?

A

the inferior iliolumbar ligament

152
Q

What is the auricular surface of the ilium composed of?

A

articular cartilage, interspersed with fibrocartilage

153
Q

What does ankylosis mean?

A

a condition of fibrous adhesion occurs within the joint

154
Q

What is the age and surface bias associated with degenerative arthrosis of the sacro-iliac joint?

A

age 40, the iliac auricular surface

155
Q

What is the age and gender bias associated with ankylosis of the sacro-iliac joint?

A
  • age 50

- male bias particularly in African American males

156
Q

What is the age and gender bias associated with ossification of the anterior sacro-iliac ligament?

A
  • age 40

- male bias

157
Q

Which is the strongest of the sacro-iliac ligaments?

A

the interosseous sacro-iliac ligament

158
Q

What passes between the layers of the interosseous sacro-iliac ligament?

A

dorsal rami from the sacral spinal nerves

159
Q

What is formed by the continuation of the sacrotuberous ligament along the ischial ramus?

A

the falciform process

160
Q

What separates the greater sciatic and lesser sciatic foramina?

A

the sacrospinous ligament

161
Q

What is the function of the sacro-ischial ligaments?

A
  • they oppose the upward tilt of the sacral apex and;

- resist the rotation of sacrum between the innominate bones

162
Q

What ligaments are present at the second sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A
  • the capsular ligament
  • anterior and posterior sternochondral radiate ligaments
  • intra-articular ligament
163
Q

Which of the sternocostal or sternochondral ligaments is unique to the second sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

the intra-articular ligament

164
Q

What are the joint surfaces of the fifth - tenth interchondral joints?

A

the costal cartilages of the fifth - tenth ribs

165
Q

What is the classification of the sixth through the ninth interchondral joints?

A

synovial (diarthrosis) arthrodia

166
Q

What is the classification of the fifth - sixth or ninth - tenth interchondral joint?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

167
Q

Which costal cartilages fail to form a joint at their sternal end?

A

the eleventh and twelfth costal cartilages

168
Q

What points on the skull are used to measure the skull size?

A
  • the nasion
  • vertex
  • inion
  • gnathion
169
Q

What points on the skull are used to measure cranial vault capacity?

A
  • the nasion
  • vertex
  • inion
170
Q

What constitutes the bony floor of the anterior cranial fossa?

A
  • orbital plates of frontal bone
  • crista galli
  • cribriform plate of ethmoid
171
Q

What bony feature is prominent in the median plane of the middle cranial fossa?

A

sella turcica

172
Q

What are the parts of the sella turcica?

A

-anterior clinoid processes
-sphenoidal jugum
-posterior clinoid process
-dorsum sella
-hypophysial fossa
(…of sphenoid bone)

173
Q

What is unique about the ophthalmic artery and veins?

A
  • unlike other artery-vein combinations they will not share the same opening
  • the ophthalmic artery is in the optic canal
  • ophthalmic veins are in the superior orbital fissure
174
Q

What will the foramen spinosum communicate with?

A

the middle cranial fossa and the infratemporal region

175
Q

What are the contents of the foramen spinosum?

A

the nervus spinosus from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve and the middle meningeal artery

176
Q

What cranial nerves are represented in the middle cranial fossa?

A
  • cranial nerve II (optic)
  • CN III (oculomotor)
  • CN IV (trochlear)
  • CN Va (ophthalmic division of the trigeminal)
  • CN Vb (maxillary division of the trigeminal)
  • CN Vc (mandibular division of the trigeminal)
  • CN VI (abducent)
  • CN VII (greater/superficial petrosal nerve of the facial)
  • CN IX (lesser petrosal nerve of the glossopharyngeal)
177
Q

What forms the roof of the posterior cranial fossa?

A

the tentorium cerebelli

178
Q

What part of the central nerve system occupies the posterior cranial fossa?

A
  • cerebellum
  • pons
  • medulla oblongata
179
Q

What bony feature is prominent in the median plane of the posterior cranial fossa?

A

the clivus or basilar part of the occipital bone

180
Q

What is the third layer of the scalp associated with?

A

muscular component of the scalp

181
Q

What is the fourth layer of the scalp?

A

loose connective tissue layer

182
Q

What is the fifth layer of the scalp?

A

pericranium

183
Q

Which muscles lack any attachment to bone?

A
  • orbicularis oris
  • procerus
  • risorius
184
Q

What is the source of innervation for all muscles of facial expression?

A

facial nerve branches

185
Q

Which divisions of the trigeminal nerve receive sensory information from the face?

A

all 3 divisions:

  • ophthalmic nerve
  • maxillary nerve
  • mandibular nerve
186
Q

What opening(s) are located along the superior wall of the orbit?

A

optic canal

187
Q

What are the contents of the optic canal?

A
  • optic nerve

- ophthalmic artery

188
Q

What is the name given to the medial wall of the orbit?

A

lamina papyracea

189
Q

What opening(s) are located along the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

superior orbital fissure

190
Q

What opening(s) are located along the inferior wall of the orbit?

A

inferior orbital fissure

191
Q

What are the layers of the eyelid?

A
  • skin
  • orbicularis oculi muscle
  • tarsal plate/tarsus
  • palpebral conjunctiva
192
Q

What are the names given to the modified sebaceous glands of the palpebra?

A
  • tarsal gland or Meibomian gland

- ciliary gland

193
Q

Sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A
  • vasoconstriction of blood vessels
  • limited availability of water to secretory units
  • more viscous or thicker product formed in glandular lumen
194
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation of targets in the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A
  • vasodilation of blood vessels
  • increased availability of water to secretory units
  • thinner or more watery product
  • constriction of myoepithelial cells leading to release of product from secretory lumen into duct system
195
Q

What are the names of the layers of the eyeball?

A
  • fibrous tunic
  • uveal tract
  • retina
196
Q

What are the parts of the vascular tunic of the eyeball?

A
  • iris
  • ciliary body
  • choroid
  • pupil
197
Q

What is the location of the anterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

between the cornea and iris

198
Q

What is the location of the posterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

between the iris and lens

199
Q

What is contained in the anterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

aqueous humor

200
Q

What is contained in the posterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

aqueous humor

201
Q

What is the name given to the chamber behind the lens?

A

vitreous chamber

202
Q

What is the location of the vitreous chamber?

A
  • behind the lens

- in front of the retina

203
Q

What fills the vitreous chamber?

A

vitreous body

204
Q

What are the common characteristics in origin and insertion of all rectus extraocular muscles?

A
  • they all originate from a common annular tendon in the orbit
  • they all insert into the sclera in front of the coronal equator of the eyeball
205
Q

What is the common characteristic regarding the insertion of both oblique extraocular muscles?

A

both insert onto sclera on the lateral margin of the eyeball behind the coronal equator

206
Q

Which extraocular muscles insert behind the coronal equator of the eyeball?

A
  • superior oblique

- inferior oblique

207
Q

<p>What is the source of innervation of the specific intrinsic eye muscles?</p>

A

<p>-parasympathetic fibers from oculomotor nerve - ciliaris -sphincter pupillae sympathetic fibers from internal carotid artery plexus - dilator pupillae</p>

208
Q

What is the name of the palpable posterior projection of the eminentia concha of the auricle?

A

ponticulus

209
Q

Which branches of the external carotid artery supply the auricle?

A

OPS arteries:

  • occipital
  • posterior auricular
  • superficial temporal
210
Q

Skin lining the external acoustic meatus contains what modified sebaceous glands?

A

ceruminous glands

211
Q

Vascularization of the external acoustic meatus is derived from which branch(es) of the external carotid artery?

A

PIS arteries:

  • posterior auricular
  • internal maxillary
  • superficial temporal
212
Q

What muscle will the parotid gland duct/Stensen’s duct penetrate?

A

the buccinator

213
Q

What part of the oral cavity will the parotid gland duct/Stensen’s duct open into?

A

the buccal vestibule

214
Q

What tooth will the parotid gland duct/Stensen’s duct open near?

A

the second maxillary molar

215
Q

What vein is formed within the parotid gland?

A

the retromandibular vein

216
Q

What are the branches of the facial nerve plexus formed within the parotid gland?

A
  • temporal
  • zygomatic
  • buccal
  • marginal mandibular
  • cervical
217
Q

What branch of the facial nerve penetrates the parotid gland, but is not given off within it?

A

the chorda tympani nerve

218
Q

Other than vascular effect, what will parasympathetic innervation cause in the parotid gland?

A

stimulate myoepithelial cells to squeeze the glandular units and mediate release of saliva into the duct system

219
Q

What are the contents of the infratemporal region?

A
  • medial and lateral pterygoid muscles
  • internal maxillary artery and branches
  • pterygoid venous plexus
  • internal maxillary vein
  • branches of the trigeminal and facial nerves
  • otic ganglion
220
Q

What does the lateral/temporomandibular ligament represent?

A

a thickening of the fibrous capsule of the temporomandibular joint

221
Q

What are the attachment sites of the sphenomandibular ligament?

A

the spine of the sphenoid bone to the lingula of the mandible

222
Q

What muscles act to retract the mandible or pull the chin back?

A

temporalis

223
Q

What muscles act during the action of grinding on the temporomandibular joint?

A
  • ipsilateral temporalis
  • contralateral medial and lateral pterygoids
  • both masseters
224
Q

What openings are associated with the pterygopalatine region?

A
  • inferior orbital fissure
  • pterygomaxillary fissure
  • sphenopalatine foramen
  • foramen rotundum
225
Q

Which ganglion is located within the pterygopalatine region?

A

sphenopalatine, pterygopalatine or Meckel’s ganglion

226
Q

What are the names of the larger pieces of cartilage forming the nose?

A
  • septal cartilage
  • lateral nasal cartilage
  • major alar cartilage
227
Q

Which of the larger nasal cartilages lacks any attachment to bone?

A

the major alar cartilage

228
Q

What is the name given to the junction between the skin and the red region of the lip?

A

the vermilion border

229
Q

What is the name given to the red region of the human lip?

A

the vermilion zone

230
Q

What is the name given to the median depression of the upper lip?

A

the philtrum

231
Q

What are the names given to the fatty deposits within the cheek?

A
  • corpus adiposum
  • Bichat’s fat plug
  • buccal fat plug
  • suctorial fat pad of infants
232
Q

What is the name given to the part of the mucous membrane of the lip or cheek attaching to the maxilla or to the mandible?

A

the gingiva proper

233
Q

What forms the anterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoideus

234
Q

What forms the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

the anterior border of the trapezius

235
Q

What forms the inferior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

the middle third of the clavicle

236
Q

What cutaneous or superficial branches arise from the cervical nerve plexus?

A
  • lesser occipital nerve (ventral primary ramus of C2)
  • greater auricular nerve (ventral primary rami of C2, C3)
  • transverse cervical nerve (ventral primary rami of C2, C3)
  • supraclavicular nerve (ventral primary rami of C3, C4)
237
Q

What muscle subdivides the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

the inferior belly of the omohyoid

Spinal Anatomy II (9 decks)

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