Exam Three Flashcards
1
Q
Lumbar spondylolysis has not been reported in what groups of individuals?
A
- fetuses
- newborns
- rarely in children under five years old
- patients who have never walked
- in non-erect spines
2
Q
What does lumbar spondylolysis appear to be related to?
A
the uniquely human upright stance or erect posture
3
Q
What is the gender bias and locational bias associated with lumbar spondylolysis?
A
- men at L5/S1
- women at L4/L5
4
Q
What characteristics are associated with cervical spondylolysis?
A
- rare
- congenital
- gender biased toward men
- most common at C6
- linked to spondylolisthesis and spina bifida
5
Q
What characteristics are associated with sacral spondylolysis?
A
- rare in the general population
- within typical percents in the native Alaskan (Inuit) population
- seems to be acquired
- gender biased toward men
- most common at S1 and linked to activities as kayaking and harpooning
6
Q
What are the types/classifications of spondylolisthesis?
A
- Type I spondylolisthesis (dysplastic spondylolisthesis, congenital spondylolisthesis)
- Type II spondylolisthesis (isthmic spondylolisthesis)
- Type III spondylolisthesis (degenerative spondylolisthesis)
- Type IV spondylolisthesis (traumatic spondylolisthesis)
- Type V spondylolisthesis (pathologic spondylolisthesis)
7
Q
What gender bias, locational bias, and spinal canal dimensions are associated with type II spondylolisthesis?
A
- isthmic spondylolisthesis is common in men
- located at the L5/S1 level
- demonstrates an increase in sagittal diameter of the spinal canal
8
Q
What is the gender bias, locational bias, and spinal canal dimension changes often associated with type III spondylolisthesis?
A
- degenerative spondylolisthesis is more common in women
- particularly at L4/:5
- demonstrates no change in sagittal diameter of the spinal canal
9
Q
What causes type IV spondylolisthesis?
A
fracture of the neural arch components
10
Q
Is there a gender, locational, or age bias associated with the type IV spondylolisthesis?
A
no
11
Q
What are the cause(s) associated with type V spondylolisthesis?
A
bone diseases such as Paget disease or osteogenesis imperfecta
12
Q
What muscles may attach to the median sacral crest?
A
- latissimus dorsi
- iliocostalis lumborum
- longissimus thoracis
13
Q
What features may be identified along the intermediate sacral crest?
A
- the mammillary process of S1
- sacral cornu of S5
14
Q
What features may be identified along the lateral sacral crest?
A
- S1 transverse tubercle
- sacral tuberosity of S2
- transverse tubercles of S3, S4 and S5
15
Q
What muscles may attach to the transverse process of sacrum?
A
- multifidis
- iliocostalis lumborum
16
Q
What feature does the anterior surface of the superior epiphyseal rim of S1 form?
A
the sacral promontory
17
Q
The continuation of the anterior longitudinal ligament below S3 forms what ligament?
A
the anterior sacrococcygeal ligament
18
Q
The continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament below S3 forms what ligament?
A
the deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament
19
Q
What ligament is attached to the sacral hiatus?
A
the superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament
20
Q
What joint classifications are typically present at sacrum?
A
- fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis
- cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis
- synovial (diarthrosis) arthrodia
21
Q
What is the homolog for the posterior longitudinal ligament at S5?
A
deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament
22
Q
What is the homolog for the anterior longitudinal ligament at S5?
A
anterior sacrococcygeal ligament
23
Q
What is the homolog for the ligamentum flavum at S5?
A
superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament
24
Q
What is the direction of the coccygeal curve?
A
posterior and kyphotic
25
What is the major motion and range of motion for coccyx?
- flexion-extension
| - 5-20 degrees
26
How many coccygeal nerves are present in the adult?
typically only one pair of coccygeal nerves remain in the adult
27
What forms the coccygeal nerve plexus?
S4, S5 and Co1 nerves
28
What is the coccygeal glomus or coccygeal body?
an enlarged encapsulated arteriovenous anastomosis located near the last segment of coccyx
29
What joint classifications are present for coccyx?
- cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis
| - fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis
30
What forms the inferior boundary for the spinal canal?
the union of the superficial posterior and deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligaments
31
What does the suffix "ization" refer to?
in the process of becoming like
32
What is/are the characteristic(s) of occipitalization of C1?
the atlas may be partially or completely fused to the occiput
33
What is another way of implying occipitalization of C1?
atlas assimilation
34
What is the incidence of occipitalization of C1?
0.1% - 0.8%
35
When do the centers of ossification for the odontoid process first appear?
during the last trimester in utero
36
What joint is formed between the odontoid process ossification centers and the centrum of C2?
the subdental synchondrosis
37
What is the classification of the joint formed between the C2 odontoid process and centrum?
amphiarthrosis synchondrosis
38
Ossification between the odontoid process and centrum joint of C2 first appears at what age?
4 years old
39
What is an os odontoideum?
a persistence beyond age 7 of the joint formed between the centrum and odontoid process centers of ossification
40
What is the name given to the condition in which the joint formed between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 persists beyond age 7?
os odontoideum
41
What is the name given to the joint between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 which is still evident beyond age 7?
persistent subdental synchondrosis
42
What is the name given to the joint formed between the tip of the dens and the odontoid process centers of ossification?
tip of dens synchondrosis
43
At what age will the tip of the dens fuse with the odontoid process?
before age 12
44
If the joint formed between the tip of the dens and odontoid process centers of ossification persists beyond age 12, what is the condition called?
terminal ossicle
45
What is a basilar impression?
persistence of the nonunion of the basilar and condylar parts of the chondrocranium such that the cartilage deforms due to the weight of the brain
46
What is a basilar invagination?
the upper cervical spine appears to be invaginated into the skull on x-ray analysis
47
What is the incidence of rib-related changes following dorsalization of C7?
from one-half to two and one-half percent of the population
48
Do patients typically present with symptoms specific for dorsalization of C7?
no, they are typically asymptomatic
49
What is the gender bias suggested in dorsalization of C7?
female
50
What alteration in C7 facet orientation may accompany dorsalization?
- the superior articular facet of C7 may change from BUM to that of a typical thoracic facet (BUL)
- the inferior articular facet is unchanged
51
What percent of the population may demonstrate thoracic-like features at C7?
up to 46%
52
What rib-related changes may accompany cervicalization of T1?
the first rib may decrease in mean relative length or become absent
53
What is the incidence of cervicalization of T1 in the population?
up to 28% of the population
54
What is the incidence of lumbar ribs in the population?
over 7% of the population demonstrates lumbar ribs
55
What is the characteristic of lumbarization of S1?
- the failure of synostosis between S1 and S2
| - squaring of the vertebral body of S1 and flaring of the sacral ala
56
Which segment demonstrates the greatest morphological variation along the spine?
L5
57
What is the incidence of variation within the sacrococcygeal region in the population?
up to 14%
58
What is the characteristic of sacralization of Co1?
the premature fusion of Co1 to the sacrum
59
What is the traditional time of appearance of the cervical curve said to be?
during the last trimester in utero
60
What is the time during which the "adult" cervical curve is said to appear?
within the first year after birth
61
What developmental events are indicated in the formation of the adult cervical curve?
- centers for vision and equilibrium will appear in the brain
- musculature attaching the skull, cervical region, and upper thorax together develops
- the head is held upright
- the intervertebral disc height becomes greater anterior than posterior
62
What is the name given to the integration of visual and motor pathways associated with holding the head erect?
the righting reflex
63
What is the time of appearance of the lumbar curve?
between 12 and 18 months after birth
64
What infant activities are associated with the developmental of the lumbar curve?
crawling and walking
65
What developmental events are indicated in the formation of the adult lumbar curve?
- crawling will cause the abdomen to put tension on the lumbar region and pulls it forward
- muscle development is promoted to compensate for the swayback of the lumbars
- intervertebral height will become greater anterior compared to posterior
- walking will further promote muscle and intervertebral disc development
66
What is the time of appearance of the lateral curves?
they appear after 6 years old
67
What is the relationship between curve direction and handedness?
a right handed person has a high probability for a right thoracic, left lumbar curve combination
68
What is the definition of lordosis?
a forward bending condition
69
What is the definition of kyphosis?
a humpback or hunchback condition
70
What is the definition of scoliosis?
a warped or crooked condition
71
What clinical examples of abnormal curvatures along the vertebral column were stressed in class?
- military neck
- humpback or hunchback
- swayback
72
What is military neck?
a decreased anterior curve in the cervical region, a straight neck
73
What are the curve classifications for military neck?
a kyphosis or hypolordotic curve
74
What are the curve classifications for humpback or hunchback?
a kyphosis or hyperkyphotic curve
75
What are the curve classifications for swayback?
a lordosis or hyperlordotic curve
76
What are the classifications of scoliosis according to the Scoliosis Research Society?
- magnitude
- location
- direction
- etiology
- structural/non-structural
77
What is the incidence of idiopathic scoliosis in the population?
1%-4% of the population
78
Identify the curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of infantile idiopathic scoliosis.
left thoracic, male, less than 1% incidence
79
Identify the curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of juvenile idiopathic scoliosis.
right thoracic, females over 6 years old, 12%-21% incidence
80
The trapezius is innervated by what nerve?
the spinal accessory nerve
81
The latissimus dorsi is innervated by what nerve?
the thoracodorsal nerve
82
Splenius cervicis will attach to what locations on the spine?
- lateral mass of C1
| - posterior tubercle and transverse process on C1-C4
83
What is the insertion for the iliocostalis lumborum pars lumborum?
iliac crest of the innominate bone
84
Which subdivision of the iliocostalis muscle appears to have a reversal of origin-insertion?
iliocostalis lumborum pars lumborum
85
What osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the iliocostalis thoracis?
none
86
Which subdivision of the iliocostalis primarily originates and inserts on ribs?
iliocostalis thoracis
87
What osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the iliocostalis cervicis?
none
88
Which erector spinae muscle is attached to the accessory process?
longissimus thoracis
89
What is the insertion for the longissimus thoracis pars lumborum?
posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) of the innominate bone
90
Which subdivision of the longissimus muscle appears to have a reversal of origin-insertion?
longissimus thoracis pars lumborum
91
Which erector spinae muscles attach to cervical articular processes?
- longissimus cervicis
| - longissimus capitis
92
How many vertebrae can be attached to a single segment by transversospinalis muscles?
as many as nine vertebrae
93
What segment will represent the lowest attachment site for the semispinalis thoracis?
T12
94
What osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the semispinalis capitis?
- transverse tubercles of C7, T1-T6 or T7
| - articular processes of C4-C6
95
The semispinalis capitis and spinalis capitis may fuse to form what muscle?
biventer cervicis
96
Which transversospinalis muscle attaches to articular and mammillary processes along the spine?
multifidis
97
What osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the multifidis cervicis?
articular process of C4-C7
98
Which subdivision of multifidis may demonstrate a reversal of origin-insertion?
multifidis lumborum
99
What is the proposed function of the suboccipital muscle group?
postural stabilizers of the atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial joints
100
Based on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the interspinalis?
- acts as a proprioceptive transducer in conjunction with intertransversarii to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine
- maintain appropriate posture
101
Which of the cervical intertransversarii is innervated by dorsal rami of cervical spinal nerves?
- posterior medial belly
| - cervical intertransversarii
102
What is the origin of the medial belly of the lumbar intertransversarii?
- accessory process of transverse process L1-L4
| - mammillary process of superior articular L1-L4
103
Which of the lumbar intertransversarii is innervated by dorsal rami of lumbar spinal nerves?
- medial belly
| - lumbar intertransversarii
104
Based on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the intertransversarii?
- acts as a proprioceptive transducer in conjunction with interspinalis to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine
- maintain appropriate posture
105
What is the origin of the rectus capitis anterior?
- lateral mass of C1
| - costal element of the transverse process of C1
106
What is the insertion of the anterior scalene?
ridge and anterior scalene tubercle of the first rib
107
What is the insertion of the middle scalene?
between the tubercle and groove for the subclavian artery on the first rib
108
What is the insertion of the posterior scalene?
outer surface of second rib
109
What are the possible locations of bipolar neurons?
- the nasal olfactory epithelium
- the retina
- the vestibular or Scarpa's ganglion
- the cochlear or spiral ganglion
110
What are the possible locations of pseudounipolar neurons?
any sensory ganglion other than those of the eighth cranial nerve
111
What are the examples of multipolar neurons?
- stellate neurons, the motor neurons of the brain and spinal cord
- pyramidal neurons of the cerebral cortex
- projection neurons or Golgi type I Purkinje cells of the cerebellar cortex
- local circuit neurons or Golgi type II granule cells of the cerebral and cerebellar cortex
- neurons of the motor ganglia
112
Where is the primary sensory neuron of a typical sensory pathway located?
in a sensory ganglion
113
Which projection from the primary sensory neuron conveys an impulse from a receptor ending to the perikaryon?
the peripheral sensory process
114
Which projection from the primary sensory neuron conveys an impulse from the perikaryon to the secondary sensory neuron?
the central sensory process
115
What is the morphology of most motor or efferent neurons associated with the peripheral nerve system?
multipolar
116
What is the generic location for primary motor neurons in the brain?
nucleus or origin
117
What is the generic location for primary motor neurons in the spinal cord?
ventral horn or lateral horn
118
What do chemoreceptors monitor?
- hypoxia or decreased oxygen levels
- hypercapnia or increased carbon dioxide levels
- elevated hydrogen ions, an indication of circulating blood pH
119
What is the site or location for chemoreceptors?
a glomus or body
120
What are the types and examples of exteroceptors?
(a) general or cutaneous sense organs such as free nerve endings, encapsulated endings and epidermal endings
(b) special sense receptors for olfaction, vision, hearing and taste
121
What are the examples of proprioceptors?
- Golgi tendon organs
- neuromuscular spindles
- Pacinian corpuscles
- inner ear receptors for equilibrium and specialized receptors in joints
122
What are the examples of epidermal nerve endings?
- Palisade nerve endings
- Merkel cell endings
- Ruffini corpuscles or Ruffini nerve endings
123
What is the example of tactile corpuscles?
Meissner's corpuscles
124
Which type of encapsulated nerve ending is sensitive to vibration?
lamellated corpuscles or Pacinian corpuscles
125
What is the example of the neurotendinous nerve ending?
Golgi tendon organs
126
Contrast the sensory ganglion with the motor ganglion.
- sensory ganglia contain primary sensory neuron cell bodies and lack synapses
- motor ganglia contain secondary motor neuron cell bodies and always demonstrate synapses
127
Muscles derived from somites are innervated by which cranial nerves?
- cranial nerve III/oculomotor nerve
- cranial nerve IV/trochlear nerve
- cranial nerve VI/abducens nerve
- cranial nerve XII/hypoglossal nerve
128
Muscles derived from branchial or pharyngeal arches are innervated by which cranial nerves?
- cranial nerve V/trigeminal nerve
- cranial nerve VII/facial nerve
- cranial nerve IX/glossopharyngeal nerve
- cranial nerve X/vagus nerve
- cranial nerve XI/spinal accessory nerve
129
What peripheral nerves contain visceral efferent pathways at their origin?
- cranial nerve III/oculomotor nerve
- cranial nerve VII/facial nerve
- cranial nerve IX/glossopharyngeal nerve
- cranial nerve X/vagus nerve
- as well as spinal nerves T1-T12, L1, L2 and S2-S4
130
Identify the type of motor pathway associated with each type of muscle.
- somatic and branchial motor pathways terminate on skeletal muscle
- autonomic/involuntary/visceral pathways terminate on smooth and cardiac muscle
131
What types of efferent neurons form nuclei of origin in the brain?
- somatic neurons
- branchial neurons
- primary parasympathetic neurons
132
Will sympathetic efferent neurons be located in the brain?
no
133
What are the parts of a primary sensory neuron?
- receptor ending
- peripheral sensory process
- pseudounipolar cell body
- central sensory process
- synaptic ending
134
What is the location of a secondary sensory neuron?
a nucleus of termination
135
What are the four classifications of afferent neurons?
- somatic afferent
- visceral afferent
- special visceral afferent
- special sensory
136
What do somatic afferents monitor?
- pain
- temperature
- light touch
- propioception
137
What do visceral afferents monitor?
- baroreception
- chemoreception
- sensation from viscera
138
What do special visceral afferents monitor?
- olfaction
| - taste
139
What do special sensory afferents monitor?
- vision
- hearing
- equilibrium
140
Cranial nerve I is an example of which classification of sensory pathway?
special visceral afferent
141
What is the site for the detection of smell?
the olfactory mucosa of the nasal cavity
142
What is the morphological classification of the primary sensory neuron of the first cranial nerve?
bipolar neuron
143
What do central processes of the first cranial nerve bundle together to form?
fila olfactoria
144
What forms the traditional or classic first cranial nerve?
the olfactory bulb and olfactory tract
145
What is the exit site for the first cranial nerve?
cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
146
Secondary afferent neuron cell bodies of the first cranial nerve are primarily located in what structure?
olfactory bulb
147
What is the location for synapse between primary and secondary afferent neurons of the first cranial nerve?
olfactory glomerulus's
148
What is the name of the traditional secondary afferent neuron of the first cranial nerve?
mitral cell
149
Axons of secondary afferent neurons of the first cranial nerve form the ______.
olfactory tract
150
Cranial nerve II is an example of which classification of sensory pathway?
special sensory
151
What is the function of the rod photoreceptor cell?
provide vision in dim light conditions
152
What is the function of the cone photoreceptor cell?
provide vision in bright light conditions and mediate color vision
153
What is the most numerous photoreceptor cell?
rod cell
154
What is the primary afferent neuron of the second cranial nerve?
bipolar cell
155
What is the secondary sensory neuron of the second cranial nerve?
ganglion cell
156
In what location will the axons of the secondary afferent neuron leave the eyeball?
- optic disc
- papilla of the optic nerve
- optic nerve head
- blind spot of the retina
157
What forms the optic nerve?
axons of ganglion cells
158
What is the exit site for the second cranial nerve?
optic canal of the sphenoid bone
159
What occurs at the optic chiasma?
some of the axons of the optic nerve decussate to the contralateral optic tract
160
What part of the visual pathway connects the optic chiasma to the brain?
the optic tract
161
What is the location for tertiary neurons of the visual pathway?
lateral geniculate nucleus
162
Axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus will synpase in what specific location?
primary visual cortex, calcarine sulcus of the occipital lobe of the cerebrum
163
At its apparent origin cranial nerve III conveys which classifications of neural pathways?
- somatic efferent pathway
| - visceral efferent pathway
164
What is the somatic efferent nucleus of origin for the third cranial nerve?
oculomotor nuclear complex
165
Which extrinsic muscle/s of the eye is/are innervated by the third cranial nerve?
- medial rectus
- inferior rectus
- superior rectus
- inferior oblique
166
Which non-ocular muscle is innervated by the third cranial nerve?
levator palpebrae superioris muscle of the eyelid
167
What is the location of the apparent origin of the third cranial nerve?
the midbrain
168
From which cranial fossa will the third cranial nerve exit the cranial vault?
middle cranial fossa
169
What is the exit from the cranial vault for the third cranial nerve?
superior orbital fissure
170
Visceral efferent fibers conveyed in the third cranial nerve originate from which nucleus?
accessory oculomotor nucleus of Edinger/Westphal
171
What is the location of synapse for preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers of the third cranial nerve?
ciliary ganglion
172
Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers of the third cranial nerve are carried in which nerve?
short ciliary nerve
173
Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers of the third cranial nerve synapse in what targets?
- sphincter pupillae
| - ciliaris intrinsic eye muscles
174
Peripheral sensory processes conveyed in the third cranial nerve travel to pseudounipolar sensory neuron cell bodies located in which ganglion?
Gasserian/semilunar/trigeminal ganglion
175
Typically, primary afferent neurons of the third cranial nerve located in the semilunar ganglion, Gasserian ganglion or trigeminal ganglion will synapse in what nucleus?
spinal trigeminal nucleus
176
In the somatic afferent pathway of cranial nerve III, neurons within the mesencephalic nucleus may synapse at what locations?
oculomotor nuclear complex or spinal trigeminal nucleus
177
At its apparent origin cranial nerve IV conveys which classification of neural pathways?
somatic efferent pathway
178
What is the location for multipolar somatic efferent neurons of the fourth cranial nerve
trochlear motor nucleus
179
Somatic efferent fibers from the left nucleus of the fourth cranial nerve will have an apparent origin from which side?
right side
180
What are the two unique features of the fourth cranial nerve?
- it is the only cranial nerve with an apparent origin from the dorsal surface of the brain
- it is the only cranial efferent nerve to decussate within the midbrain from its nucleus
181
The right fourth cranial will innervate which side target muscle?
the right side muscle
182
The fourth cranial nerve exits the cranial vault by way of which opening?
superior orbital fissure; sphenoid bone
183
Somatic efferent fibers from the fourth cranial nerve will innervate which muscle(s)?
superior oblique extrinsic muscle of the eye
184
Which of the cranial nuclei of termination contain primary afferent neurons?
mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
185
In the somatic afferent pathway of cranial nerve IV, neurons within the mesencephalic nucleus may synapse at what locations?
trochlear motor nucleus or spinal trigeminal nucleus
186
The fifth cranial nerve is functionally referred to as the ______.
great sensory nerve of the face
187
The fifth cranial nerve arises from what part of the brain?
the pons
188
Identify each branch of the fifth cranial nerve arising from its' ganglion.
- ophthalmic nerve
- maxillary nerve
- mandibular nerve
189
Central sensory processes carried in the fifth cranial nerve synapse with secondary sensory neuron cell bodies in what location?
- mainly in the principal sensory nucleus
| - some in the trigeminal spinal nucleus
190
Branchial efferent fibers arise from multipolar neurons in what nucleus?
trigeminal motor nucleus
191
What muscles are innervated by branchial efferent fibers conveyed in the fifth cranial nerve?
- temporalis
- masseter
- medial pterygoid
- lateral pterygoid
- mylohyoid
- anterior belly of the digastric
- tensor tympani
- tensor veli palatini
192
What is the classification of the mandibular division of the cranial nerve V based on function?
mixed cranial nerve
193
At its apparent origin cranial nerve VI conveys which classification of neural pathways?
somatic efferent pathway
194
What is the name of the sixth cranial nerve?
abducent nerve or abducens nerve
195
What is the site of the apparent origin of the sixth cranial nerve from the brain?
the pons
196
The sixth cranial nerve exits the middle cranial fossa via what opening?
superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid bone
197
The sixth cranial nerve will innervate what target organ(s)?
lateral rectus extrinsic muscle of the eye
198
Peripheral sensory processes conveyed in the sixth cranial nerve will communicate with which cranial nerve branch?
ophthalmic division of trigeminal
199
In the somatic afferent pathway of cranial nerve VI, neurons within the mesencephalic nucleus may synapse at what locations?
abducent/abducens motor nucleus or spinal trigeminal nucleus
200
Because of its function, the seventh cranial nerve is often called the _______.
great motor nerve of the face
201
What classifications of fibers are conveyed at the apparent origin of the seventh cranial nerve?
- branchial efferent
- visceral efferent
- somatic afferent
- special visceral afferent
202
What is the name of the location for multipolar branchial efferent neurons of cranial nerve VII?
facial motor nucleus
203
What is the opening through which the seventh cranial nerve exits the cranial vault?
interal acoustic meatus of the temporal bone
204
What is the name of the afferent ganglion for the seventh cranial nerve?
geniculate ganglion, genicular ganglion
205
Most of the seventh cranial nerve will exit the skull via what opening?
the stylomastoid foramen
206
Into what region of the head will the stylomastoid foramen open?
the parotid region
207
Branchial efferent fibers carried in the seventh cranial nerve will innervate what muscles?
- muscles of facial expression
- muscles of the scalp and auricle
- the buccinator
- platysma
- stapedius
- stylohyoid
- posterior belly of the digastric
208
Which visceral efferent pathway is conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve?
a parasympathetic motor pathway
209
What will the parasympathetic efferent pathways of the seventh cranial nerve supply?
the lacrimal, submandibular, sublingual, lingual and mucosal glands
210
Visceral efferent fibers conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve originate from which nucleus?
superior salivatory nucleus
211
Preganglionic visceral efferent fibers of cranial nerve VII will exit the pons in what nerve?
- nerve intermedius
- nerve of Wrisberg
- sensory root of facial nerve
212
Which immediate branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?
greater petrosal or greater superficial petrosal nerve
213
Which branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic parasympathetic fibers into the pterygopalatine ganglion?
vidian nerve or nerve of the pterygoid canal
214
The continuation of the great petrosal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa by what opening?
vidian canal or pterygoid canal of the sphenoid bone
215
The vidian canal opens into what region of the head?
- the pterygopalatine region
| - sphenopalatine region
216
What are the names of the ganglion of synapse in the efferent pathway to the lacrimal gland?
- pterygopalatine ganglion
- sphenopalatine ganglion
- Meckel's ganglion
217
Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the pterygopalatine, sphenopalatine or Meckel's ganglion will become incorporated in which cranial nerve branch?
maxillary nerve of the trigeminal
218
The maxillary division of the cranial nerve V exits the pterygopalatine region via what opening?
the inferior orbital fissure
219
What bones converge to form the inferior orbital fissure?
- sphenoid
- maxillary
- palatine
- zygomatic
220
The parasympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland will involve branches from which cranial nerves?
- facial
| - trigeminal
221
What immediate branch of the maxillary nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?
zygomatic nerve
222
What branch of the zygomatic nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?
zygomaticotemporal nerve
223
The zygomaticotemporal nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland through a communication with which branch of the fifth cranial nerve?
ophthalmic nerve
224
Which ophthalmic nerve branch will contain postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?
lacrimal nerve
225
Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the ophthalmic nerve will innervate which gland?
lacrimal gland
226
What is the nucleus of origin for the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers carried in the seventh cranial nerve for the submandibular and sublingual glands?
superior salivatory nucleus
227
Preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the seventh cranial nerve to the submandibular and sublingual glands will exit the pons in what nerve?
- nervus intermedius
- nerve of Wrisberg
- sensory root of facial nerve
228
Which immediate branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic efferent fibers to the submandibular and sublingual glands?
chorda tympani nerve
229
The chorda tympani nerve exits the temporal bone via which opening?
the petrotympanic fissure of the temporal bone
230
The petrotympanic fissure will communicate between what two locations?
the middle cranial fossa and the intratemporal region
231
The lingual nerve is a branch of which nerve?
the mandibular division of the trigeminal
232
Which branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal will convey preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the submandibular and sublingual glands?
the lingual nerve
233
Preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers will synapse in which ganglion along the pathway to the sublingual gland?
submandibular ganglion
234
Peripheral sensory processes from receptors around the ear and mastoid region are conveyed to the seventh cranial nerve from what other cranial nerve?
vagus
235
Peripheral sensory processes from receptors around the ear and mastoid region are conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve to what ganglion?
genicular ganglion or geniculate ganglion
236
Central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons in the geniculate ganglion enter the pons in what nerve?
nervus intermedius, nerve of Wrisberg, sensory root of the facial nerve
237
What is the nucleus of termination for central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons in the geniculate gnaglion associated with information from the mastoid region and auricle?
the spinal trigeminal nucleus
238
In general, somatic afferent pathways typically terminate on which nucleus?
the spinal trigeminal nuclues
239
What is the classification of sensory fibers associated with taste?
special visceral afferent fibers
240
Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors located on the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in which branch of the fifth cranial nerve?
lingual nerve, mandibular division
241
Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors located on the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in which branch of the seventh cranial nerve?
chorda tympani
242
Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors located on the anterior two thirds of the tongue conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve will enter the skull in what opening?
petrotympani fissure
243
Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors in the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve to what ganglion?
genicular ganglion or geniculate ganglion
244
Central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons associated with taste in the geniculate ganglion enter the pons in what nerve?
nervus intermedius, nerve of Wrisberg, sensory root of the facial nerve
245
What is the nucleus of termination for central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons in the geniculate ganglion which are associated with taste?
gustatory nucleus of the nucleus solitarius
246
What type of fiber is present in the eight cranial nerve?
special sensory
247
What is the name given to the osseous spaces of the temporal bone associated with equilibrium and hearing?
bony labyrinth
248
What fluid separates the membranous labyrinth from the bony labyrinth?
perilymph
249
What fluid is present within the membranous labyrinth?
endolymph
250
What is the name given to spiral appearance of the organ for hearing?
cochlea
251
What makes up the vestibular apparatus?
- the saccule
- the utricle
- the semicircular ducts
252
How is sound or position converted into a neural impulse?
endolymph is displaced and alters the membrane of a specialized receptor cell
253
What are the specialized receptor cells for equilibrium called?
hair cells
254
In what elevations of each part of the vestibular apparatus will receptor cells be identified?
- the macula of the saccule
- the macula of the utricle
- the crista ampullaris of the ampullae of the semicircular ducts
255
What is unique to the receptor cells associated with equilibrium?
stereocilia and a single kinocilium
256
Peripheral sensory processes associated with equilibrium arise from what neurons?
bipolar neurons
257
What is the location of the primary afferent neuron associated with equilibrium?
Scarpa's ganglion or the vestibular ganglion
258
Central sensory processes from bipolar sensory neurons located in Scarpa's ganglion aggregate together to form what nerve?
the vestibular nerve
259
Central sensory processes of primary afferent neurons associated with equilibrium will enter what part of the brain?
the pons
260
Central sensory processes of primary afferent neurons associated with equilibrium will terminate on secondary afferent neurons in what location?
the vestibular nuclear complex
261
What are the specialized receptor cells for hearing called?
hair cells
262
Receptor cells associated with hearing are located in what structure?
the organ of Corti in the cochlear duct or scala media
263
What is the unique feature of receptor cells associated with hearing?
stereocilia
264
Peripheral sensory processes associated with hearing arise from what neurons?
type I bipolar neurons
265
What is the location of the primary afferent neuron associated with hearing?
the spiral ganglion or cochlear ganglion
266
Central sensory processes from bipolar sensory neurons located in the spiral ganglion aggregate together to form waht nerve?
the cochlear nerve
267
Central sensory processes of primary afferent neurons associated with hearing have an apparent origin from what part of the brain?
the pons
268
Central sensory processes of primary afferent neurons associated with hearing will terminate on secondary afferent neurons in what location?
the cochlear nucleui
269
What is the name of the ninth cranial nerve?
glossopharyngeal nerve
270
The ninth cranial has an apparent origin from what part of the brain?
the medulla oblongata
271
The ninth cranial nerve exits which cranial fossa via what opening?
posterior cranial fossa; jugular foramen
272
What is the visceral efferent nucleus of origin for the ninth cranial nerve?
inferior salivatory nucleus
273
Preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers are observed in what primary branch of the ninth cranial nerve?
tympanic nerve or nerve of Jacobson
274
The tympani nerve arises from what part of the ninth cranial nerve?
the inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion or petrosal ganglion
275
Within the temporal bone, preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers of the ninth cranial nerve will ultimately form what nerve?
the lesser (superficial) petrosal nerve
276
The lesser (superficial) petrosal nerve will exit which cranial fossa via what opening(s)?
- middle cranial fossa; foramen ovale
- the innominate canaliculus of Arnold
- or the sphenopetrosal suture
277
The lesser (superficial) petrosal nerve will emerge from the middle cranial fossa to enter what region of the head?
the infratemporal region
278
Preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the ninth cranial nerve will synapse in which ganglion?
otic ganglion or Arnold's ganglion
279
Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the otic or Arnold's ganglion will communicate with what other cranial nerve branch?
the auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal
280
The parasympathetic pathway from the ninth cranial nerve will innervate what target?
parotid gland
281
Which cranial nerve pathway will leave the skull to enter the neck, leave the neck to enter the temporal bone, leave the temporal bone to enter the middle cranial fossa and finally leave the middle cranial fossa to enter the infratemporal region?
glossopharyngeal nerve pathway to the parotid gland
282
What cranial nerves are involved in the parasympathetic pathway to the parotid gland?
glossopharyngeal nerve and trigeminal nerve
