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Spinal Anatomy II > Exam Three > Flashcards

Exam Three Flashcards

1
Q

Lumbar spondylolysis has not been reported in what groups of individuals?

A
  • fetuses
  • newborns
  • rarely in children under five years old
  • patients who have never walked
  • in non-erect spines
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2
Q

What does lumbar spondylolysis appear to be related to?

A

the uniquely human upright stance or erect posture

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3
Q

What is the gender bias and locational bias associated with lumbar spondylolysis?

A
  • men at L5/S1

- women at L4/L5

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4
Q

What characteristics are associated with cervical spondylolysis?

A
  • rare
  • congenital
  • gender biased toward men
  • most common at C6
  • linked to spondylolisthesis and spina bifida
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5
Q

What characteristics are associated with sacral spondylolysis?

A
  • rare in the general population
  • within typical percents in the native Alaskan (Inuit) population
  • seems to be acquired
  • gender biased toward men
  • most common at S1 and linked to activities as kayaking and harpooning
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6
Q

What are the types/classifications of spondylolisthesis?

A
  • Type I spondylolisthesis (dysplastic spondylolisthesis, congenital spondylolisthesis)
  • Type II spondylolisthesis (isthmic spondylolisthesis)
  • Type III spondylolisthesis (degenerative spondylolisthesis)
  • Type IV spondylolisthesis (traumatic spondylolisthesis)
  • Type V spondylolisthesis (pathologic spondylolisthesis)
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7
Q

What gender bias, locational bias, and spinal canal dimensions are associated with type II spondylolisthesis?

A
  • isthmic spondylolisthesis is common in men
  • located at the L5/S1 level
  • demonstrates an increase in sagittal diameter of the spinal canal
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8
Q

What is the gender bias, locational bias, and spinal canal dimension changes often associated with type III spondylolisthesis?

A
  • degenerative spondylolisthesis is more common in women
  • particularly at L4/:5
  • demonstrates no change in sagittal diameter of the spinal canal
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9
Q

What causes type IV spondylolisthesis?

A

fracture of the neural arch components

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10
Q

Is there a gender, locational, or age bias associated with the type IV spondylolisthesis?

A

no

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11
Q

What are the cause(s) associated with type V spondylolisthesis?

A

bone diseases such as Paget disease or osteogenesis imperfecta

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12
Q

What muscles may attach to the median sacral crest?

A
  • latissimus dorsi
  • iliocostalis lumborum
  • longissimus thoracis
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13
Q

What features may be identified along the intermediate sacral crest?

A
  • the mammillary process of S1

- sacral cornu of S5

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14
Q

What features may be identified along the lateral sacral crest?

A
  • S1 transverse tubercle
  • sacral tuberosity of S2
  • transverse tubercles of S3, S4 and S5
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15
Q

What muscles may attach to the transverse process of sacrum?

A
  • multifidis

- iliocostalis lumborum

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16
Q

What feature does the anterior surface of the superior epiphyseal rim of S1 form?

A

the sacral promontory

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17
Q

The continuation of the anterior longitudinal ligament below S3 forms what ligament?

A

the anterior sacrococcygeal ligament

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18
Q

The continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament below S3 forms what ligament?

A

the deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

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19
Q

What ligament is attached to the sacral hiatus?

A

the superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

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20
Q

What joint classifications are typically present at sacrum?

A
  • fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis
  • cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis
  • synovial (diarthrosis) arthrodia
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21
Q

What is the homolog for the posterior longitudinal ligament at S5?

A

deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

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22
Q

What is the homolog for the anterior longitudinal ligament at S5?

A

anterior sacrococcygeal ligament

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23
Q

What is the homolog for the ligamentum flavum at S5?

A

superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

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24
Q

What is the direction of the coccygeal curve?

A

posterior and kyphotic

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25
Q

What is the major motion and range of motion for coccyx?

A
  • flexion-extension

- 5-20 degrees

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26
Q

How many coccygeal nerves are present in the adult?

A

typically only one pair of coccygeal nerves remain in the adult

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27
Q

What forms the coccygeal nerve plexus?

A

S4, S5 and Co1 nerves

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28
Q

What is the coccygeal glomus or coccygeal body?

A

an enlarged encapsulated arteriovenous anastomosis located near the last segment of coccyx

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29
Q

What joint classifications are present for coccyx?

A
  • cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

- fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

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30
Q

What forms the inferior boundary for the spinal canal?

A

the union of the superficial posterior and deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligaments

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31
Q

What does the suffix “ization” refer to?

A

in the process of becoming like

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32
Q

What is/are the characteristic(s) of occipitalization of C1?

A

the atlas may be partially or completely fused to the occiput

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33
Q

What is another way of implying occipitalization of C1?

A

atlas assimilation

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34
Q

What is the incidence of occipitalization of C1?

A

0.1% - 0.8%

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35
Q

When do the centers of ossification for the odontoid process first appear?

A

during the last trimester in utero

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36
Q

What joint is formed between the odontoid process ossification centers and the centrum of C2?

A

the subdental synchondrosis

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37
Q

What is the classification of the joint formed between the C2 odontoid process and centrum?

A

amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

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38
Q

Ossification between the odontoid process and centrum joint of C2 first appears at what age?

A

4 years old

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39
Q

What is an os odontoideum?

A

a persistence beyond age 7 of the joint formed between the centrum and odontoid process centers of ossification

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40
Q

What is the name given to the condition in which the joint formed between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 persists beyond age 7?

A

os odontoideum

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41
Q

What is the name given to the joint between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 which is still evident beyond age 7?

A

persistent subdental synchondrosis

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42
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between the tip of the dens and the odontoid process centers of ossification?

A

tip of dens synchondrosis

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43
Q

At what age will the tip of the dens fuse with the odontoid process?

A

before age 12

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44
Q

If the joint formed between the tip of the dens and odontoid process centers of ossification persists beyond age 12, what is the condition called?

A

terminal ossicle

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45
Q

What is a basilar impression?

A

persistence of the nonunion of the basilar and condylar parts of the chondrocranium such that the cartilage deforms due to the weight of the brain

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46
Q

What is a basilar invagination?

A

the upper cervical spine appears to be invaginated into the skull on x-ray analysis

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47
Q

What is the incidence of rib-related changes following dorsalization of C7?

A

from one-half to two and one-half percent of the population

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48
Q

Do patients typically present with symptoms specific for dorsalization of C7?

A

no, they are typically asymptomatic

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49
Q

What is the gender bias suggested in dorsalization of C7?

A

female

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50
Q

What alteration in C7 facet orientation may accompany dorsalization?

A
  • the superior articular facet of C7 may change from BUM to that of a typical thoracic facet (BUL)
  • the inferior articular facet is unchanged
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51
Q

What percent of the population may demonstrate thoracic-like features at C7?

A

up to 46%

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52
Q

What rib-related changes may accompany cervicalization of T1?

A

the first rib may decrease in mean relative length or become absent

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53
Q

What is the incidence of cervicalization of T1 in the population?

A

up to 28% of the population

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54
Q

What is the incidence of lumbar ribs in the population?

A

over 7% of the population demonstrates lumbar ribs

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55
Q

What is the characteristic of lumbarization of S1?

A
  • the failure of synostosis between S1 and S2

- squaring of the vertebral body of S1 and flaring of the sacral ala

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56
Q

Which segment demonstrates the greatest morphological variation along the spine?

A

L5

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57
Q

What is the incidence of variation within the sacrococcygeal region in the population?

A

up to 14%

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58
Q

What is the characteristic of sacralization of Co1?

A

the premature fusion of Co1 to the sacrum

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59
Q

What is the traditional time of appearance of the cervical curve said to be?

A

during the last trimester in utero

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60
Q

What is the time during which the “adult” cervical curve is said to appear?

A

within the first year after birth

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61
Q

What developmental events are indicated in the formation of the adult cervical curve?

A
  • centers for vision and equilibrium will appear in the brain
  • musculature attaching the skull, cervical region, and upper thorax together develops
  • the head is held upright
  • the intervertebral disc height becomes greater anterior than posterior
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62
Q

What is the name given to the integration of visual and motor pathways associated with holding the head erect?

A

the righting reflex

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63
Q

What is the time of appearance of the lumbar curve?

A

between 12 and 18 months after birth

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64
Q

What infant activities are associated with the developmental of the lumbar curve?

A

crawling and walking

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65
Q

What developmental events are indicated in the formation of the adult lumbar curve?

A
  • crawling will cause the abdomen to put tension on the lumbar region and pulls it forward
  • muscle development is promoted to compensate for the swayback of the lumbars
  • intervertebral height will become greater anterior compared to posterior
  • walking will further promote muscle and intervertebral disc development
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66
Q

What is the time of appearance of the lateral curves?

A

they appear after 6 years old

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67
Q

What is the relationship between curve direction and handedness?

A

a right handed person has a high probability for a right thoracic, left lumbar curve combination

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68
Q

What is the definition of lordosis?

A

a forward bending condition

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69
Q

What is the definition of kyphosis?

A

a humpback or hunchback condition

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70
Q

What is the definition of scoliosis?

A

a warped or crooked condition

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71
Q

What clinical examples of abnormal curvatures along the vertebral column were stressed in class?

A
  • military neck
  • humpback or hunchback
  • swayback
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72
Q

What is military neck?

A

a decreased anterior curve in the cervical region, a straight neck

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73
Q

What are the curve classifications for military neck?

A

a kyphosis or hypolordotic curve

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74
Q

What are the curve classifications for humpback or hunchback?

A

a kyphosis or hyperkyphotic curve

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75
Q

What are the curve classifications for swayback?

A

a lordosis or hyperlordotic curve

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76
Q

What are the classifications of scoliosis according to the Scoliosis Research Society?

A
  • magnitude
  • location
  • direction
  • etiology
  • structural/non-structural
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77
Q

What is the incidence of idiopathic scoliosis in the population?

A

1%-4% of the population

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78
Q

Identify the curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of infantile idiopathic scoliosis.

A

left thoracic, male, less than 1% incidence

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79
Q

Identify the curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of juvenile idiopathic scoliosis.

A

right thoracic, females over 6 years old, 12%-21% incidence

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80
Q

The trapezius is innervated by what nerve?

A

the spinal accessory nerve

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81
Q

The latissimus dorsi is innervated by what nerve?

A

the thoracodorsal nerve

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82
Q

Splenius cervicis will attach to what locations on the spine?

A
  • lateral mass of C1

- posterior tubercle and transverse process on C1-C4

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83
Q

What is the insertion for the iliocostalis lumborum pars lumborum?

A

iliac crest of the innominate bone

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84
Q

Which subdivision of the iliocostalis muscle appears to have a reversal of origin-insertion?

A

iliocostalis lumborum pars lumborum

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85
Q

What osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the iliocostalis thoracis?

A

none

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86
Q

Which subdivision of the iliocostalis primarily originates and inserts on ribs?

A

iliocostalis thoracis

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87
Q

What osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the iliocostalis cervicis?

A

none

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88
Q

Which erector spinae muscle is attached to the accessory process?

A

longissimus thoracis

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89
Q

What is the insertion for the longissimus thoracis pars lumborum?

A

posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) of the innominate bone

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90
Q

Which subdivision of the longissimus muscle appears to have a reversal of origin-insertion?

A

longissimus thoracis pars lumborum

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91
Q

Which erector spinae muscles attach to cervical articular processes?

A
  • longissimus cervicis

- longissimus capitis

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92
Q

How many vertebrae can be attached to a single segment by transversospinalis muscles?

A

as many as nine vertebrae

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93
Q

What segment will represent the lowest attachment site for the semispinalis thoracis?

A

T12

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94
Q

What osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the semispinalis capitis?

A
  • transverse tubercles of C7, T1-T6 or T7

- articular processes of C4-C6

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95
Q

The semispinalis capitis and spinalis capitis may fuse to form what muscle?

A

biventer cervicis

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96
Q

Which transversospinalis muscle attaches to articular and mammillary processes along the spine?

A

multifidis

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97
Q

What osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the multifidis cervicis?

A

articular process of C4-C7

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98
Q

Which subdivision of multifidis may demonstrate a reversal of origin-insertion?

A

multifidis lumborum

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99
Q

What is the proposed function of the suboccipital muscle group?

A

postural stabilizers of the atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial joints

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100
Q

Based on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the interspinalis?

A
  • acts as a proprioceptive transducer in conjunction with intertransversarii to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine
  • maintain appropriate posture
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101
Q

Which of the cervical intertransversarii is innervated by dorsal rami of cervical spinal nerves?

A
  • posterior medial belly

- cervical intertransversarii

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102
Q

What is the origin of the medial belly of the lumbar intertransversarii?

A
  • accessory process of transverse process L1-L4

- mammillary process of superior articular L1-L4

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103
Q

Which of the lumbar intertransversarii is innervated by dorsal rami of lumbar spinal nerves?

A
  • medial belly

- lumbar intertransversarii

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104
Q

Based on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the intertransversarii?

A
  • acts as a proprioceptive transducer in conjunction with interspinalis to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine
  • maintain appropriate posture
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105
Q

What is the origin of the rectus capitis anterior?

A
  • lateral mass of C1

- costal element of the transverse process of C1

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106
Q

What is the insertion of the anterior scalene?

A

ridge and anterior scalene tubercle of the first rib

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107
Q

What is the insertion of the middle scalene?

A

between the tubercle and groove for the subclavian artery on the first rib

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108
Q

What is the insertion of the posterior scalene?

A

outer surface of second rib

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109
Q

What are the possible locations of bipolar neurons?

A
  • the nasal olfactory epithelium
  • the retina
  • the vestibular or Scarpa’s ganglion
  • the cochlear or spiral ganglion
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110
Q

What are the possible locations of pseudounipolar neurons?

A

any sensory ganglion other than those of the eighth cranial nerve

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111
Q

What are the examples of multipolar neurons?

A
  • stellate neurons, the motor neurons of the brain and spinal cord
  • pyramidal neurons of the cerebral cortex
  • projection neurons or Golgi type I Purkinje cells of the cerebellar cortex
  • local circuit neurons or Golgi type II granule cells of the cerebral and cerebellar cortex
  • neurons of the motor ganglia
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112
Q

Where is the primary sensory neuron of a typical sensory pathway located?

A

in a sensory ganglion

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113
Q

Which projection from the primary sensory neuron conveys an impulse from a receptor ending to the perikaryon?

A

the peripheral sensory process

114
Q

Which projection from the primary sensory neuron conveys an impulse from the perikaryon to the secondary sensory neuron?

A

the central sensory process

115
Q

What is the morphology of most motor or efferent neurons associated with the peripheral nerve system?

A

multipolar

116
Q

What is the generic location for primary motor neurons in the brain?

A

nucleus or origin

117
Q

What is the generic location for primary motor neurons in the spinal cord?

A

ventral horn or lateral horn

118
Q

What do chemoreceptors monitor?

A
  • hypoxia or decreased oxygen levels
  • hypercapnia or increased carbon dioxide levels
  • elevated hydrogen ions, an indication of circulating blood pH
119
Q

What is the site or location for chemoreceptors?

A

a glomus or body

120
Q

What are the types and examples of exteroceptors?

A

(a) general or cutaneous sense organs such as free nerve endings, encapsulated endings and epidermal endings
(b) special sense receptors for olfaction, vision, hearing and taste

121
Q

What are the examples of proprioceptors?

A
  • Golgi tendon organs
  • neuromuscular spindles
  • Pacinian corpuscles
  • inner ear receptors for equilibrium and specialized receptors in joints
122
Q

What are the examples of epidermal nerve endings?

A
  • Palisade nerve endings
  • Merkel cell endings
  • Ruffini corpuscles or Ruffini nerve endings
123
Q

What is the example of tactile corpuscles?

A

Meissner’s corpuscles

124
Q

Which type of encapsulated nerve ending is sensitive to vibration?

A

lamellated corpuscles or Pacinian corpuscles

125
Q

What is the example of the neurotendinous nerve ending?

A

Golgi tendon organs

126
Q

Contrast the sensory ganglion with the motor ganglion.

A
  • sensory ganglia contain primary sensory neuron cell bodies and lack synapses
  • motor ganglia contain secondary motor neuron cell bodies and always demonstrate synapses
127
Q

Muscles derived from somites are innervated by which cranial nerves?

A
  • cranial nerve III/oculomotor nerve
  • cranial nerve IV/trochlear nerve
  • cranial nerve VI/abducens nerve
  • cranial nerve XII/hypoglossal nerve
128
Q

Muscles derived from branchial or pharyngeal arches are innervated by which cranial nerves?

A
  • cranial nerve V/trigeminal nerve
  • cranial nerve VII/facial nerve
  • cranial nerve IX/glossopharyngeal nerve
  • cranial nerve X/vagus nerve
  • cranial nerve XI/spinal accessory nerve
129
Q

What peripheral nerves contain visceral efferent pathways at their origin?

A
  • cranial nerve III/oculomotor nerve
  • cranial nerve VII/facial nerve
  • cranial nerve IX/glossopharyngeal nerve
  • cranial nerve X/vagus nerve
  • as well as spinal nerves T1-T12, L1, L2 and S2-S4
130
Q

Identify the type of motor pathway associated with each type of muscle.

A
  • somatic and branchial motor pathways terminate on skeletal muscle
  • autonomic/involuntary/visceral pathways terminate on smooth and cardiac muscle
131
Q

What types of efferent neurons form nuclei of origin in the brain?

A
  • somatic neurons
  • branchial neurons
  • primary parasympathetic neurons
132
Q

Will sympathetic efferent neurons be located in the brain?

A

no

133
Q

What are the parts of a primary sensory neuron?

A
  • receptor ending
  • peripheral sensory process
  • pseudounipolar cell body
  • central sensory process
  • synaptic ending
134
Q

What is the location of a secondary sensory neuron?

A

a nucleus of termination

135
Q

What are the four classifications of afferent neurons?

A
  • somatic afferent
  • visceral afferent
  • special visceral afferent
  • special sensory
136
Q

What do somatic afferents monitor?

A
  • pain
  • temperature
  • light touch
  • propioception
137
Q

What do visceral afferents monitor?

A
  • baroreception
  • chemoreception
  • sensation from viscera
138
Q

What do special visceral afferents monitor?

A
  • olfaction

- taste

139
Q

What do special sensory afferents monitor?

A
  • vision
  • hearing
  • equilibrium
140
Q

Cranial nerve I is an example of which classification of sensory pathway?

A

special visceral afferent

141
Q

What is the site for the detection of smell?

A

the olfactory mucosa of the nasal cavity

142
Q

What is the morphological classification of the primary sensory neuron of the first cranial nerve?

A

bipolar neuron

143
Q

What do central processes of the first cranial nerve bundle together to form?

A

fila olfactoria

144
Q

What forms the traditional or classic first cranial nerve?

A

the olfactory bulb and olfactory tract

145
Q

What is the exit site for the first cranial nerve?

A

cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

146
Q

Secondary afferent neuron cell bodies of the first cranial nerve are primarily located in what structure?

A

olfactory bulb

147
Q

What is the location for synapse between primary and secondary afferent neurons of the first cranial nerve?

A

olfactory glomerulus’s

148
Q

What is the name of the traditional secondary afferent neuron of the first cranial nerve?

A

mitral cell

149
Q

Axons of secondary afferent neurons of the first cranial nerve form the ______.

A

olfactory tract

150
Q

Cranial nerve II is an example of which classification of sensory pathway?

A

special sensory

151
Q

What is the function of the rod photoreceptor cell?

A

provide vision in dim light conditions

152
Q

What is the function of the cone photoreceptor cell?

A

provide vision in bright light conditions and mediate color vision

153
Q

What is the most numerous photoreceptor cell?

A

rod cell

154
Q

What is the primary afferent neuron of the second cranial nerve?

A

bipolar cell

155
Q

What is the secondary sensory neuron of the second cranial nerve?

A

ganglion cell

156
Q

In what location will the axons of the secondary afferent neuron leave the eyeball?

A
  • optic disc
  • papilla of the optic nerve
  • optic nerve head
  • blind spot of the retina
157
Q

What forms the optic nerve?

A

axons of ganglion cells

158
Q

What is the exit site for the second cranial nerve?

A

optic canal of the sphenoid bone

159
Q

What occurs at the optic chiasma?

A

some of the axons of the optic nerve decussate to the contralateral optic tract

160
Q

What part of the visual pathway connects the optic chiasma to the brain?

A

the optic tract

161
Q

What is the location for tertiary neurons of the visual pathway?

A

lateral geniculate nucleus

162
Q

Axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus will synpase in what specific location?

A

primary visual cortex, calcarine sulcus of the occipital lobe of the cerebrum

163
Q

At its apparent origin cranial nerve III conveys which classifications of neural pathways?

A
  • somatic efferent pathway

- visceral efferent pathway

164
Q

What is the somatic efferent nucleus of origin for the third cranial nerve?

A

oculomotor nuclear complex

165
Q

Which extrinsic muscle/s of the eye is/are innervated by the third cranial nerve?

A
  • medial rectus
  • inferior rectus
  • superior rectus
  • inferior oblique
166
Q

Which non-ocular muscle is innervated by the third cranial nerve?

A

levator palpebrae superioris muscle of the eyelid

167
Q

What is the location of the apparent origin of the third cranial nerve?

A

the midbrain

168
Q

From which cranial fossa will the third cranial nerve exit the cranial vault?

A

middle cranial fossa

169
Q

What is the exit from the cranial vault for the third cranial nerve?

A

superior orbital fissure

170
Q

Visceral efferent fibers conveyed in the third cranial nerve originate from which nucleus?

A

accessory oculomotor nucleus of Edinger/Westphal

171
Q

What is the location of synapse for preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers of the third cranial nerve?

A

ciliary ganglion

172
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers of the third cranial nerve are carried in which nerve?

A

short ciliary nerve

173
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers of the third cranial nerve synapse in what targets?

A
  • sphincter pupillae

- ciliaris intrinsic eye muscles

174
Q

Peripheral sensory processes conveyed in the third cranial nerve travel to pseudounipolar sensory neuron cell bodies located in which ganglion?

A

Gasserian/semilunar/trigeminal ganglion

175
Q

Typically, primary afferent neurons of the third cranial nerve located in the semilunar ganglion, Gasserian ganglion or trigeminal ganglion will synapse in what nucleus?

A

spinal trigeminal nucleus

176
Q

In the somatic afferent pathway of cranial nerve III, neurons within the mesencephalic nucleus may synapse at what locations?

A

oculomotor nuclear complex or spinal trigeminal nucleus

177
Q

At its apparent origin cranial nerve IV conveys which classification of neural pathways?

A

somatic efferent pathway

178
Q

What is the location for multipolar somatic efferent neurons of the fourth cranial nerve

A

trochlear motor nucleus

179
Q

Somatic efferent fibers from the left nucleus of the fourth cranial nerve will have an apparent origin from which side?

A

right side

180
Q

What are the two unique features of the fourth cranial nerve?

A
  • it is the only cranial nerve with an apparent origin from the dorsal surface of the brain
  • it is the only cranial efferent nerve to decussate within the midbrain from its nucleus
181
Q

The right fourth cranial will innervate which side target muscle?

A

the right side muscle

182
Q

The fourth cranial nerve exits the cranial vault by way of which opening?

A

superior orbital fissure; sphenoid bone

183
Q

Somatic efferent fibers from the fourth cranial nerve will innervate which muscle(s)?

A

superior oblique extrinsic muscle of the eye

184
Q

Which of the cranial nuclei of termination contain primary afferent neurons?

A

mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve

185
Q

In the somatic afferent pathway of cranial nerve IV, neurons within the mesencephalic nucleus may synapse at what locations?

A

trochlear motor nucleus or spinal trigeminal nucleus

186
Q

The fifth cranial nerve is functionally referred to as the ______.

A

great sensory nerve of the face

187
Q

The fifth cranial nerve arises from what part of the brain?

A

the pons

188
Q

Identify each branch of the fifth cranial nerve arising from its’ ganglion.

A
  • ophthalmic nerve
  • maxillary nerve
  • mandibular nerve
189
Q

Central sensory processes carried in the fifth cranial nerve synapse with secondary sensory neuron cell bodies in what location?

A
  • mainly in the principal sensory nucleus

- some in the trigeminal spinal nucleus

190
Q

Branchial efferent fibers arise from multipolar neurons in what nucleus?

A

trigeminal motor nucleus

191
Q

What muscles are innervated by branchial efferent fibers conveyed in the fifth cranial nerve?

A
  • temporalis
  • masseter
  • medial pterygoid
  • lateral pterygoid
  • mylohyoid
  • anterior belly of the digastric
  • tensor tympani
  • tensor veli palatini
192
Q

What is the classification of the mandibular division of the cranial nerve V based on function?

A

mixed cranial nerve

193
Q

At its apparent origin cranial nerve VI conveys which classification of neural pathways?

A

somatic efferent pathway

194
Q

What is the name of the sixth cranial nerve?

A

abducent nerve or abducens nerve

195
Q

What is the site of the apparent origin of the sixth cranial nerve from the brain?

A

the pons

196
Q

The sixth cranial nerve exits the middle cranial fossa via what opening?

A

superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid bone

197
Q

The sixth cranial nerve will innervate what target organ(s)?

A

lateral rectus extrinsic muscle of the eye

198
Q

Peripheral sensory processes conveyed in the sixth cranial nerve will communicate with which cranial nerve branch?

A

ophthalmic division of trigeminal

199
Q

In the somatic afferent pathway of cranial nerve VI, neurons within the mesencephalic nucleus may synapse at what locations?

A

abducent/abducens motor nucleus or spinal trigeminal nucleus

200
Q

Because of its function, the seventh cranial nerve is often called the _______.

A

great motor nerve of the face

201
Q

What classifications of fibers are conveyed at the apparent origin of the seventh cranial nerve?

A
  • branchial efferent
  • visceral efferent
  • somatic afferent
  • special visceral afferent
202
Q

What is the name of the location for multipolar branchial efferent neurons of cranial nerve VII?

A

facial motor nucleus

203
Q

What is the opening through which the seventh cranial nerve exits the cranial vault?

A

interal acoustic meatus of the temporal bone

204
Q

What is the name of the afferent ganglion for the seventh cranial nerve?

A

geniculate ganglion, genicular ganglion

205
Q

Most of the seventh cranial nerve will exit the skull via what opening?

A

the stylomastoid foramen

206
Q

Into what region of the head will the stylomastoid foramen open?

A

the parotid region

207
Q

Branchial efferent fibers carried in the seventh cranial nerve will innervate what muscles?

A
  • muscles of facial expression
  • muscles of the scalp and auricle
  • the buccinator
  • platysma
  • stapedius
  • stylohyoid
  • posterior belly of the digastric
208
Q

Which visceral efferent pathway is conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve?

A

a parasympathetic motor pathway

209
Q

What will the parasympathetic efferent pathways of the seventh cranial nerve supply?

A

the lacrimal, submandibular, sublingual, lingual and mucosal glands

210
Q

Visceral efferent fibers conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve originate from which nucleus?

A

superior salivatory nucleus

211
Q

Preganglionic visceral efferent fibers of cranial nerve VII will exit the pons in what nerve?

A
  • nerve intermedius
  • nerve of Wrisberg
  • sensory root of facial nerve
212
Q

Which immediate branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?

A

greater petrosal or greater superficial petrosal nerve

213
Q

Which branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic parasympathetic fibers into the pterygopalatine ganglion?

A

vidian nerve or nerve of the pterygoid canal

214
Q

The continuation of the great petrosal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa by what opening?

A

vidian canal or pterygoid canal of the sphenoid bone

215
Q

The vidian canal opens into what region of the head?

A
  • the pterygopalatine region

- sphenopalatine region

216
Q

What are the names of the ganglion of synapse in the efferent pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A
  • pterygopalatine ganglion
  • sphenopalatine ganglion
  • Meckel’s ganglion
217
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the pterygopalatine, sphenopalatine or Meckel’s ganglion will become incorporated in which cranial nerve branch?

A

maxillary nerve of the trigeminal

218
Q

The maxillary division of the cranial nerve V exits the pterygopalatine region via what opening?

A

the inferior orbital fissure

219
Q

What bones converge to form the inferior orbital fissure?

A
  • sphenoid
  • maxillary
  • palatine
  • zygomatic
220
Q

The parasympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland will involve branches from which cranial nerves?

A
  • facial

- trigeminal

221
Q

What immediate branch of the maxillary nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?

A

zygomatic nerve

222
Q

What branch of the zygomatic nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?

A

zygomaticotemporal nerve

223
Q

The zygomaticotemporal nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland through a communication with which branch of the fifth cranial nerve?

A

ophthalmic nerve

224
Q

Which ophthalmic nerve branch will contain postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?

A

lacrimal nerve

225
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the ophthalmic nerve will innervate which gland?

A

lacrimal gland

226
Q

What is the nucleus of origin for the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers carried in the seventh cranial nerve for the submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

superior salivatory nucleus

227
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the seventh cranial nerve to the submandibular and sublingual glands will exit the pons in what nerve?

A
  • nervus intermedius
  • nerve of Wrisberg
  • sensory root of facial nerve
228
Q

Which immediate branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic efferent fibers to the submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

chorda tympani nerve

229
Q

The chorda tympani nerve exits the temporal bone via which opening?

A

the petrotympanic fissure of the temporal bone

230
Q

The petrotympanic fissure will communicate between what two locations?

A

the middle cranial fossa and the intratemporal region

231
Q

The lingual nerve is a branch of which nerve?

A

the mandibular division of the trigeminal

232
Q

Which branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal will convey preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

the lingual nerve

233
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers will synapse in which ganglion along the pathway to the sublingual gland?

A

submandibular ganglion

234
Q

Peripheral sensory processes from receptors around the ear and mastoid region are conveyed to the seventh cranial nerve from what other cranial nerve?

A

vagus

235
Q

Peripheral sensory processes from receptors around the ear and mastoid region are conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve to what ganglion?

A

genicular ganglion or geniculate ganglion

236
Q

Central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons in the geniculate ganglion enter the pons in what nerve?

A

nervus intermedius, nerve of Wrisberg, sensory root of the facial nerve

237
Q

What is the nucleus of termination for central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons in the geniculate gnaglion associated with information from the mastoid region and auricle?

A

the spinal trigeminal nucleus

238
Q

In general, somatic afferent pathways typically terminate on which nucleus?

A

the spinal trigeminal nuclues

239
Q

What is the classification of sensory fibers associated with taste?

A

special visceral afferent fibers

240
Q

Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors located on the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in which branch of the fifth cranial nerve?

A

lingual nerve, mandibular division

241
Q

Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors located on the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in which branch of the seventh cranial nerve?

A

chorda tympani

242
Q

Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors located on the anterior two thirds of the tongue conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve will enter the skull in what opening?

A

petrotympani fissure

243
Q

Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors in the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve to what ganglion?

A

genicular ganglion or geniculate ganglion

244
Q

Central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons associated with taste in the geniculate ganglion enter the pons in what nerve?

A

nervus intermedius, nerve of Wrisberg, sensory root of the facial nerve

245
Q

What is the nucleus of termination for central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons in the geniculate ganglion which are associated with taste?

A

gustatory nucleus of the nucleus solitarius

246
Q

What type of fiber is present in the eight cranial nerve?

A

special sensory

247
Q

What is the name given to the osseous spaces of the temporal bone associated with equilibrium and hearing?

A

bony labyrinth

248
Q

What fluid separates the membranous labyrinth from the bony labyrinth?

A

perilymph

249
Q

What fluid is present within the membranous labyrinth?

A

endolymph

250
Q

What is the name given to spiral appearance of the organ for hearing?

A

cochlea

251
Q

What makes up the vestibular apparatus?

A
  • the saccule
  • the utricle
  • the semicircular ducts
252
Q

How is sound or position converted into a neural impulse?

A

endolymph is displaced and alters the membrane of a specialized receptor cell

253
Q

What are the specialized receptor cells for equilibrium called?

A

hair cells

254
Q

In what elevations of each part of the vestibular apparatus will receptor cells be identified?

A
  • the macula of the saccule
  • the macula of the utricle
  • the crista ampullaris of the ampullae of the semicircular ducts
255
Q

What is unique to the receptor cells associated with equilibrium?

A

stereocilia and a single kinocilium

256
Q

Peripheral sensory processes associated with equilibrium arise from what neurons?

A

bipolar neurons

257
Q

What is the location of the primary afferent neuron associated with equilibrium?

A

Scarpa’s ganglion or the vestibular ganglion

258
Q

Central sensory processes from bipolar sensory neurons located in Scarpa’s ganglion aggregate together to form what nerve?

A

the vestibular nerve

259
Q

Central sensory processes of primary afferent neurons associated with equilibrium will enter what part of the brain?

A

the pons

260
Q

Central sensory processes of primary afferent neurons associated with equilibrium will terminate on secondary afferent neurons in what location?

A

the vestibular nuclear complex

261
Q

What are the specialized receptor cells for hearing called?

A

hair cells

262
Q

Receptor cells associated with hearing are located in what structure?

A

the organ of Corti in the cochlear duct or scala media

263
Q

What is the unique feature of receptor cells associated with hearing?

A

stereocilia

264
Q

Peripheral sensory processes associated with hearing arise from what neurons?

A

type I bipolar neurons

265
Q

What is the location of the primary afferent neuron associated with hearing?

A

the spiral ganglion or cochlear ganglion

266
Q

Central sensory processes from bipolar sensory neurons located in the spiral ganglion aggregate together to form waht nerve?

A

the cochlear nerve

267
Q

Central sensory processes of primary afferent neurons associated with hearing have an apparent origin from what part of the brain?

A

the pons

268
Q

Central sensory processes of primary afferent neurons associated with hearing will terminate on secondary afferent neurons in what location?

A

the cochlear nucleui

269
Q

What is the name of the ninth cranial nerve?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

270
Q

The ninth cranial has an apparent origin from what part of the brain?

A

the medulla oblongata

271
Q

The ninth cranial nerve exits which cranial fossa via what opening?

A

posterior cranial fossa; jugular foramen

272
Q

What is the visceral efferent nucleus of origin for the ninth cranial nerve?

A

inferior salivatory nucleus

273
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers are observed in what primary branch of the ninth cranial nerve?

A

tympanic nerve or nerve of Jacobson

274
Q

The tympani nerve arises from what part of the ninth cranial nerve?

A

the inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion or petrosal ganglion

275
Q

Within the temporal bone, preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers of the ninth cranial nerve will ultimately form what nerve?

A

the lesser (superficial) petrosal nerve

276
Q

The lesser (superficial) petrosal nerve will exit which cranial fossa via what opening(s)?

A
  • middle cranial fossa; foramen ovale
  • the innominate canaliculus of Arnold
  • or the sphenopetrosal suture
277
Q

The lesser (superficial) petrosal nerve will emerge from the middle cranial fossa to enter what region of the head?

A

the infratemporal region

278
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the ninth cranial nerve will synapse in which ganglion?

A

otic ganglion or Arnold’s ganglion

279
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the otic or Arnold’s ganglion will communicate with what other cranial nerve branch?

A

the auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal

280
Q

The parasympathetic pathway from the ninth cranial nerve will innervate what target?

A

parotid gland

281
Q

Which cranial nerve pathway will leave the skull to enter the neck, leave the neck to enter the temporal bone, leave the temporal bone to enter the middle cranial fossa and finally leave the middle cranial fossa to enter the infratemporal region?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve pathway to the parotid gland

282
Q

What cranial nerves are involved in the parasympathetic pathway to the parotid gland?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve and trigeminal nerve

Spinal Anatomy II (9 decks)

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