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Spinal Anatomy II > Exam One > Flashcards

Exam One Flashcards

1
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

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2
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

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3
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?

A

24 segments

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4
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

The 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

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5
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?

A

5 segments

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6
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?

A

4 segments

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7
Q

Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?

A

two toed sloth,
manatee,
ant bear,
three toed sloth

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8
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

ant bear and

three toed sloth

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9
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervicals?

A

manatee and

two toed sloth

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10
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

the region of the neck

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11
Q

What does the term thoracic refer to?

A

breast plate or chest,

armor bearing region of the torso

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12
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

the dorsals

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13
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the thoracic region?

A

12 segments

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14
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

the loin, region between the rib and the hip

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15
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?

A

5 segments

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16
Q

What does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

the holy bone or holy region

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17
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

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18
Q

Which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within the population?

A
  • gender/sexual dimorphism
  • ontogenetic
  • geographic/population-based
  • idiosyncratic
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19
Q

Differences in the number of morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

gender/sexual dimorphism

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20
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

ontogenetic

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21
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity or locational variation is identified as?

A

geographic/population based variation

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22
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on variation between individuals is identified as which type of variation?

A

idiosyncratic

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23
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

70cm or 28in

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24
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

60cm or 25in

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25
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

about 3in

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26
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region? (cm and in)

A

12cm or

5in

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27
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region? (cm and in)

A

28cm or

11in

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28
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region? (cm and in)

A

18cm or

7in

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29
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum? (cm and in)

A

12cm or

5in

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30
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine? (cm and in)

A

58cm or

23in

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31
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

Ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

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32
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

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33
Q

What specifically is responsible for shape and position of the human frame?

A

comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc

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34
Q

What organ(s) is(are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

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35
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - rectangular,
thoracic - triangular,
lumbar - reniform

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36
Q

What are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?

A

ages 7-9: appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification,
age 12: formation of epiphyseal ring,
age 15: formation of the epiphyseal rim

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37
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - posterolateral,
thoracic - posterior and slight lateral,
lumbar - posterior

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38
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

ligamentum flavum

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39
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

accessory bone

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40
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-ray?

A

shingling

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41
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process/apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - anterolateral.
thoracic - posterolateral,
lumbar - lateral

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42
Q

What will cause the transverse process/apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodelling the transverse process to accommodate their new postiion

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43
Q

What will cause the transverse process/apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

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44
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

A

the superior articular facet

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45
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?

A

the inferior articular facet

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46
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the ___________

A

pre-zygapophysis

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47
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the ___________

A

post-zygapophysis

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48
Q

What will from the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen (IVF)?

A

inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis,
superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis,
capsular ligament and
ligamentum flavum

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49
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical IVF?

A

inferior vertebral notch/incisure

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50
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical IVF?

A

superior vertebral notch/incisure

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51
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical IVF?

A

vertebral body of the segment above,
vertebral body of the segment below,
intervertebral disc and
posterior longitudinal ligament

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52
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/apophysis?

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process and the horizontal plane

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53
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes/apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

imbrication

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54
Q

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

A

the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis,
the proximal part of the PNS and
the meninges

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55
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal/vertebral column?

A

cervical - triangular,
thoracic - oval,
lumbar - triangular,
sacrum - triangular

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56
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each.

A

dura mater - tough mother,
arachnoid mater - spider mother,
pia mater - tender/delicate mother

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57
Q

Name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord.

A

epidural space - between vertebral foramen and dura mater,
subdural space - between dura mater and arachnoid mater,
subarachnoid space - between arachnoid and pia maters

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58
Q

What are the contents of the epidural space?

A

anterior and posterior spinal canal artery and plexus,
anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
basivertebral vein,
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve,
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments,
ligamentum flavum,
posterior longitudinal ligament

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59
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus,
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
basivertebral vein,
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve,
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments,
posterior longitudinal ligament

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60
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus,
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
basivertebral vein,
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve,
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments,

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61
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus,
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
ligamentum flavum

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62
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

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63
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

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64
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

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65
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

The vertebral artery

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66
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

The posterior inferior cerebellar artery

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67
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

Right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries

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68
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

A median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

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69
Q

Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

Anterior radicular artery

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70
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

Posterior radicular artery

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71
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

Ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

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72
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?

A

Pial perforating arteries

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73
Q

What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

Anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

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74
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

Pial veins

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75
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

Right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins

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76
Q

Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?

A

Anterior radicular veins

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77
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

Posterior radicular veins

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78
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

Intervertebral veins

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79
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

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80
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

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81
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

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82
Q

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

transverse

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83
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A
  • cervical enlargement: C3-T1

- lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement: T9-T12

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84
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

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85
Q

What is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in the T9 vertebra;
L3, L4 cord levels in the T10 vertebra;
L5, S1 cord levels in the T11 vertebra;
S2, S3 cord levels in the T12 vertebra

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86
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

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87
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

typically S4, S5 and Co1

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88
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

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89
Q

The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

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90
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

cauda equina

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91
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

filum terminale externum

92
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

93
Q

What is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

94
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in the typical cervical spine?

A

seven segments

95
Q

What are the four tissues of the human body?

A
  1. epithelial
  2. muscle
  3. neural
  4. connective tissue
96
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A
  • osteoblast: form bone
  • osteocyte: maintain or nurture bone
  • osteoclast: remodel bone
97
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

98
Q

What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in the bone?

A
  • chondroitin sulfates
  • keratin sulfates
  • hyaluronic acid
99
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type 1

100
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

101
Q

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A
  1. ability to heal
  2. remodel under stressors
  3. remodel to age
102
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

103
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the 2nd to 3rd month in utero

104
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

endochondral ossification

105
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the 2nd to 5th month in utero

106
Q

What bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

107
Q

What is the time of appearance of a primary center of ossification?

A

before birth

108
Q

What is the time of appearance of a secondary center of ossification?

A

after birth

109
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

110
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

111
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

112
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

the parietal bone and sternum

113
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla and sphenoid

114
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bone?

A

patella and pisiform

115
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

linear, rounded and sharp

116
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

117
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

118
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

119
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

120
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

121
Q

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

122
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

123
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

124
Q

What is the definition of a flat osseous facet?

A

a relatively planar or slightly curvilinear surface on a bone for osseous articulation

125
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

126
Q

What is the definition of an osseous condyle?

A

a knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation

127
Q

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80 bones

128
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

129
Q

What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the calvaria or calva

130
Q

Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 3-7

131
Q

Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 1 and 2

132
Q

Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 8 and 9

133
Q

Which ribs are classfied as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

rib 10

134
Q

Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

ribs 11 and 12

135
Q

What term is used to identify the study of joints?

A

arthrology

136
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

syndesmology

137
Q

What are the three histological classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid

138
Q

What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?

A

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis

139
Q

What is the classification of a joint with a “nail-like” condition?

A

gomphosis

140
Q

What is the classification of a joint with a “fissure-like” condition?

A

schindylesis

141
Q

What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?

A

symphysis

142
Q

What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during the closure of mouth?

A

malocclusion

143
Q

What type of ossification pattern typically forms the true suture?

A

intramembranous ossification

144
Q

What type of ossification pattern typically forms the false suture?

A

endochondral ossification

145
Q

What is the synonym for amphiarthrosis joints?

A

cartilage joints

146
Q

What is the classification of primary cartilage joints?

A

(amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

147
Q

What is the classification of a secondary cartilage joint?

A

(amphiarthrosis) symphysis

148
Q

What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

149
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A
  • articular or fibrous capsule
  • synovial membrane
  • articular cartilage
  • synovial fluid
150
Q

Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the ____.

A

capsular ligament

151
Q

What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?

A

intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

152
Q

What is the generic function of ligaments?

A

stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint

153
Q

What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A
  • located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule
  • resemble Ruffini endings
  • most numerous in cervical zygapophyses
  • monitor the joint “at rest”
154
Q

Type 2 articular receptors morphologically resemble which type of sensory ending?

A

Pacinian corpuscle

155
Q

What is the function of type 2 articular receptors?

A

they monitor the joint during normal range of motion

156
Q

What are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors?

A
  • they resemble Pacinian corpuscles
  • located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule
  • most numerous in the cervical spine
  • monitor the joint during normal range of motion
157
Q

What are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors?

A
  • resemble Golgi tendon organs
  • present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments
  • not initially observed along the vertebral column
  • monitor extreme joint motion
158
Q

Type 4a articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A
  • fibrous capsule
  • articular fat pads
  • adventitia of blood vessels
159
Q

Type 4b articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A
  • accessory ligaments in general

- dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

160
Q

What are the three classifications of synovial membrane?

A

articular, vaginal and bursal synovial membrane

161
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

-synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands and synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

162
Q

What is the location of a subcutaneous synovial bursa?

A

bursa between integument and bone

163
Q

What is the location of a subtendinous synovial bursa?

A

bursa between a tendon or muscle and bone or cartilage

164
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

165
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

166
Q

What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?

A
  • water
  • cells
  • collagen type 2 fibers
  • proteoglycan gel
167
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

168
Q

Cartilage is able to change shape due to compression, a characteristic known as _________.

A

deformation

169
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

170
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

171
Q

Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication.

A

1) weeping theory: implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film
2) boosted theory: implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid
3) boundary theory: implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is adsorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed

172
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

173
Q

What substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

hyaluronate

174
Q

What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

lubricin

175
Q

What is a dialysate?

A

a separation phase of blood based on unequal diffusion through a semipermeable membrane

176
Q

What is a transudate?

A

any substance produced as a result of “sweating across” a membrane

177
Q

What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

more than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint

178
Q

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus

179
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A
  • (diarthrosis) hinge/ginglymus

- (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid

180
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A
  • (diarthrosis) bicondylar
  • (diarthrosis) condylar
  • (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal
  • (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar
181
Q

What are the examples of synovial (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid joints?

A
  • median atlanto-axial joint

- proximal radio-ulnar joint

182
Q

What is the shared morphological characteristic of synovial (diarthrosis) trochoid joints?

A

an osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring

183
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) condylar or synovial (diarthrosis) bicondylar joints?

A
  • temporomandibular joint

- femur-tibia joint of the knee

184
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joints?

A
  • radiocarpal joint of the wrist
  • metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand
  • metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot
  • atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
185
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar joints?

A
  • carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
  • talocrural joint of the ankle
  • calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
186
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) enarthrosis joints?

A
  • femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip
  • humerus-glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder
187
Q

At what location will the common carotid artery bifurcate?

A

the C3/C4 intervertebral disc at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage

188
Q

What are the regions/divisions of the internal carotid artery?

A
  • cervical
  • petrous
  • cavernous
  • cerebral
189
Q

What is the location for the petrous part of the internal carotid artery?

A

carotid canal in petrous part of temporal bone

190
Q

What accompanies the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery in the middle cranial fossa?

A

cavernous dural venous sinus

191
Q

What branch of the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery was stressed in the text?

A

ophthalmic artery

192
Q

What are the segmental branches of the subclavian artery?

A
  • vertebral artery
  • ascending cervical artery
  • deep cervical artery
193
Q

What is the location of origin of the axillary artery?

A

at the outer border of the first rib

194
Q

What is the segmental branch of the axillary artery?

A

supreme (highest/superior) thoracic artery (T1/T2)

195
Q

What branches of the thoracic descending aorta were stressed in the text?

A
  • posterior intercostal artery (T3-T11)

- subcostal artery (T12)

196
Q

What parietal/dorsal branches of the abdominal descending aorta were stressed in the text?

A

lumbar and median sacral arteries

197
Q

What branches of the internal iliac were stressed in the text?

A

iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries

198
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A
  • iliolumbar artery
  • lateral sacral artery
  • median (middle) sacral artery
199
Q

What vessels form the retromandibular (posterior facial) vein?

A

superficial temporal and (internal) maxillary vein

200
Q

What will the inferior ophthalmic vein drain into?

A

the pterygoid venous plexus and the cavernous dural venous sinus

201
Q

What is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries?

A

remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema

202
Q

What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?

A
  • they begin as blind-ended sacs
  • have a greater luminal diameter than blood capillaries
  • are more variable in luminal diameter than blood capillaries
  • more layered in plexus arrangements than blood capillaries
203
Q

How do the lymphatics (medium sized vessels) differ from veins?

A
  • more numerous
  • possess more valves
  • anastomose more frequently than veins
204
Q

What parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?

A
  • right side of head
  • right side of neck
  • thoracic parietal wall
  • right upper extremity
  • right lung
  • convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver
205
Q

What is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?

A

L2 from the cisterna chyli

206
Q

What will form the lymph nodule?

A

migration and proliferation of T-cells from the thymus

207
Q

What are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?

A

Peyer’s patches of the small intestine and the tonsils

208
Q

What are the functions of lymph nodules?

A
  • lymphocytopoeisis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line)
  • aid in the immune response
209
Q

What is identified in the lymph node cortex?

A

solitary lymph nodules

210
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

they primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they participate in the immune response

211
Q

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters

212
Q

What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?

A

posterior/kyphotic

213
Q

What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

the intervertebral disc height

214
Q

What is the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

anterior/lordotic

215
Q

At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

216
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A
  • anterior groove
  • posterior groove
  • left and right uncinate processes
217
Q

What are the names of the lateral modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A
  • uncinate process
  • unciform process
  • uncovertebral process
  • lateral lip or uncus
218
Q

What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove and posterior lip-posterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis joint

219
Q

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

modified synovial (diarthrosis) sellar joint

220
Q

What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis joint

221
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

five

222
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

five

223
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

ten

224
Q

How many synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

four

225
Q

What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

226
Q

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

the longus colli muscle

Spinal Anatomy II (9 decks)

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