Exam One Flashcards
1
Q
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?
A
33 segments
2
Q
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?
A
26 segments
3
Q
What is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?
A
24 segments
4
Q
What constitutes the spine?
A
The 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
5
Q
How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?
A
5 segments
6
Q
How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?
A
4 segments
7
Q
Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?
A
two toed sloth,
manatee,
ant bear,
three toed sloth
8
Q
Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?
A
ant bear and
three toed sloth
9
Q
Which mammals have less than seven cervicals?
A
manatee and
two toed sloth
10
Q
What does the term “cervical” refer to?
A
the region of the neck
11
Q
What does the term thoracic refer to?
A
breast plate or chest,
armor bearing region of the torso
12
Q
What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?
A
the dorsals
13
Q
What is the typical number of segments in the thoracic region?
A
12 segments
14
Q
What does the term “lumbar” refer to?
A
the loin, region between the rib and the hip
15
Q
What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?
A
5 segments
16
Q
What does the term “sacrum” refer to?
A
the holy bone or holy region
17
Q
What does the term “coccyx” refer to?
A
a cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak
18
Q
Which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within the population?
A
- gender/sexual dimorphism
- ontogenetic
- geographic/population-based
- idiosyncratic
19
Q
Differences in the number of morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation?
A
gender/sexual dimorphism
20
Q
Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?
A
ontogenetic
21
Q
Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity or locational variation is identified as?
A
geographic/population based variation
22
Q
Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on variation between individuals is identified as which type of variation?
A
idiosyncratic
23
Q
What is the length of a typical male spinal column?
A
70cm or 28in
24
Q
What is the length of a typical female spinal column?
A
60cm or 25in
25
What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?
about 3in
26
What is the length of the male cervical region? (cm and in)
12cm or
| 5in
27
What is the length of the male thoracic region? (cm and in)
28cm or
| 11in
28
What is the length of the male lumbar region? (cm and in)
18cm or
| 7in
29
What is the length of the male sacrum? (cm and in)
12cm or
| 5in
30
Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine? (cm and in)
58cm or
| 23in
31
How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?
Ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template
32
What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer?
S1-S3 at the auricular surface
33
What specifically is responsible for shape and position of the human frame?
comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc
34
What organ(s) is(are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?
the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
35
What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?
cervical - rectangular,
thoracic - triangular,
lumbar - reniform
36
What are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?
ages 7-9: appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification,
age 12: formation of epiphyseal ring,
age 15: formation of the epiphyseal rim
37
What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?
cervical - posterolateral,
thoracic - posterior and slight lateral,
lumbar - posterior
38
What ligament will attach to the lamina?
ligamentum flavum
39
What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?
accessory bone
40
What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-ray?
shingling
41
What is the generic orientation of the transverse process/apophysis at each region of the spine?
cervical - anterolateral.
thoracic - posterolateral,
lumbar - lateral
42
What will cause the transverse process/apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?
cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodelling the transverse process to accommodate their new postiion
43
What will cause the transverse process/apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?
the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward
44
What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?
the superior articular facet
45
What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?
the inferior articular facet
46
In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the ___________
pre-zygapophysis
47
In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the ___________
post-zygapophysis
48
What will from the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen (IVF)?
inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis,
superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis,
capsular ligament and
ligamentum flavum
49
What will form the superior boundary of a typical IVF?
inferior vertebral notch/incisure
50
What will form the inferior boundary of a typical IVF?
superior vertebral notch/incisure
51
What will form the anterior boundary of a typical IVF?
vertebral body of the segment above,
vertebral body of the segment below,
intervertebral disc and
posterior longitudinal ligament
52
What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/apophysis?
calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process and the horizontal plane
53
What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes/apophyses as seen on X-ray?
imbrication
54
What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?
the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis,
the proximal part of the PNS and
the meninges
55
What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal/vertebral column?
cervical - triangular,
thoracic - oval,
lumbar - triangular,
sacrum - triangular
56
Identify the meninges of the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each.
dura mater - tough mother,
arachnoid mater - spider mother,
pia mater - tender/delicate mother
57
Name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord.
epidural space - between vertebral foramen and dura mater,
subdural space - between dura mater and arachnoid mater,
subarachnoid space - between arachnoid and pia maters
58
What are the contents of the epidural space?
anterior and posterior spinal canal artery and plexus,
anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
basivertebral vein,
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve,
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments,
ligamentum flavum,
posterior longitudinal ligament
59
Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus,
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
basivertebral vein,
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve,
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments,
posterior longitudinal ligament
60
Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus,
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
basivertebral vein,
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve,
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments,
61
Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
posterior spinal canal artery and plexus,
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
ligamentum flavum
62
What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?
interstitial fluid
63
What is the name given to the fluid within the subdural space?
serous fluid
64
What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?
cerebrospinal fluid
65
The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
The vertebral artery
66
The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
The posterior inferior cerebellar artery
67
What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?
Right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries
68
What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?
A median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries
69
Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?
Anterior radicular artery
70
Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?
Posterior radicular artery
71
What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?
Ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries
72
What arterial vasa corona branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?
Pial perforating arteries
73
What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?
Anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders
74
What vessels drain the spinal cord?
Pial veins
75
Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?
Right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins
76
Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?
Anterior radicular veins
77
What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?
Posterior radicular veins
78
What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?
Intervertebral veins
79
What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein
80
What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?
filum terminale internum
81
What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?
typically S2, the dural cul de sac
82
In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?
transverse
83
What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?
- cervical enlargement: C3-T1
| - lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement: T9-T12
84
Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?
C6
85
What is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement?
L1, L2 cord levels in the T9 vertebra;
L3, L4 cord levels in the T10 vertebra;
L5, S1 cord levels in the T11 vertebra;
S2, S3 cord levels in the T12 vertebra
86
What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?
conus medullaris
87
What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?
typically S4, S5 and Co1
88
In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?
L1
89
The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?
cruciate anastomosis
90
What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?
cauda equina
91
What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?
filum terminale externum
92
What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?
coccygeal medullary vestige
93
What is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?
tethered cord syndrome
94
What is the number of vertebrae in the typical cervical spine?
seven segments
95
What are the four tissues of the human body?
1. epithelial
2. muscle
3. neural
4. connective tissue
96
What is the function of each type of bone cell?
- osteoblast: form bone
- osteocyte: maintain or nurture bone
- osteoclast: remodel bone
97
What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
glycosaminoglycans
98
What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in the bone?
- chondroitin sulfates
- keratin sulfates
- hyaluronic acid
99
What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?
collagen type 1
100
What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?
hydroxyapatite
101
What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as "living"?
1. ability to heal
2. remodel under stressors
3. remodel to age
102
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
intramembranous ossification
103
What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
from the 2nd to 3rd month in utero
104
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?
endochondral ossification
105
What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?
from the 2nd to 5th month in utero
106
What bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
the clavicle
107
What is the time of appearance of a primary center of ossification?
before birth
108
What is the time of appearance of a secondary center of ossification?
after birth
109
What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?
heterotopic bone
110
What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
accessory bone
111
What are examples of short bones?
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
112
What are examples of flat bones?
the parietal bone and sternum
113
What are examples of pneumatic bone?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla and sphenoid
114
What are consistent examples of sesamoid bone?
patella and pisiform
115
What are the types of osseous elevations?
linear, rounded and sharp
116
What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus
117
What are the categories of osseous depressions?
linear and rounded depressions
118
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus
119
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
the fovea and fossa
120
What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?
ostium or orifice and hiatus
121
What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?
foramen or canal
122
What is the definition of an osseous fissure?
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
123
What are the categories of osseous facets?
flat facets and rounded facets
124
What is the definition of a flat osseous facet?
a relatively planar or slightly curvilinear surface on a bone for osseous articulation
125
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles
126
What is the definition of an osseous condyle?
a knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation
127
How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?
80 bones
128
What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?
the cranium
129
What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?
the calvaria or calva
130
Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in the typical adult skeleton?
ribs 3-7
131
Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in the typical adult skeleton?
ribs 1 and 2
132
Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?
ribs 8 and 9
133
Which ribs are classfied as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?
rib 10
134
Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?
ribs 11 and 12
135
What term is used to identify the study of joints?
arthrology
136
What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?
syndesmology
137
What are the three histological classifications of joints?
fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid
138
What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?
synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis
139
What is the classification of a joint with a "nail-like" condition?
gomphosis
140
What is the classification of a joint with a "fissure-like" condition?
schindylesis
141
What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?
symphysis
142
What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during the closure of mouth?
malocclusion
143
What type of ossification pattern typically forms the true suture?
intramembranous ossification
144
What type of ossification pattern typically forms the false suture?
endochondral ossification
145
What is the synonym for amphiarthrosis joints?
cartilage joints
146
What is the classification of primary cartilage joints?
(amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis
147
What is the classification of a secondary cartilage joint?
(amphiarthrosis) symphysis
148
What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage
149
What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?
- articular or fibrous capsule
- synovial membrane
- articular cartilage
- synovial fluid
150
Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the ____.
capsular ligament
151
What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?
intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments
152
What is the generic function of ligaments?
stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint
153
What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?
- located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule
- resemble Ruffini endings
- most numerous in cervical zygapophyses
- monitor the joint "at rest"
154
Type 2 articular receptors morphologically resemble which type of sensory ending?
Pacinian corpuscle
155
What is the function of type 2 articular receptors?
they monitor the joint during normal range of motion
156
What are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors?
- they resemble Pacinian corpuscles
- located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule
- most numerous in the cervical spine
- monitor the joint during normal range of motion
157
What are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors?
- resemble Golgi tendon organs
- present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments
- not initially observed along the vertebral column
- monitor extreme joint motion
158
Type 4a articular receptors would be present in what locations?
- fibrous capsule
- articular fat pads
- adventitia of blood vessels
159
Type 4b articular receptors would be present in what locations?
- accessory ligaments in general
| - dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine
160
What are the three classifications of synovial membrane?
articular, vaginal and bursal synovial membrane
161
What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?
-synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands and synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
162
What is the location of a subcutaneous synovial bursa?
bursa between integument and bone
163
What is the location of a subtendinous synovial bursa?
bursa between a tendon or muscle and bone or cartilage
164
What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?
are phagocytic
165
What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
166
What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?
- water
- cells
- collagen type 2 fibers
- proteoglycan gel
167
What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
form a network for water retention
168
Cartilage is able to change shape due to compression, a characteristic known as _________.
deformation
169
What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property
170
What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
171
Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication.
1) weeping theory: implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film
2) boosted theory: implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid
3) boundary theory: implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is adsorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed
172
What are the properties of synovial fluid?
it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
173
What substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
hyaluronate
174
What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
lubricin
175
What is a dialysate?
a separation phase of blood based on unequal diffusion through a semipermeable membrane
176
What is a transudate?
any substance produced as a result of "sweating across" a membrane
177
What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
more than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint
178
What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus
179
What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?
- (diarthrosis) hinge/ginglymus
| - (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid
180
What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?
- (diarthrosis) bicondylar
- (diarthrosis) condylar
- (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal
- (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar
181
What are the examples of synovial (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid joints?
- median atlanto-axial joint
| - proximal radio-ulnar joint
182
What is the shared morphological characteristic of synovial (diarthrosis) trochoid joints?
an osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring
183
What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) condylar or synovial (diarthrosis) bicondylar joints?
- temporomandibular joint
| - femur-tibia joint of the knee
184
What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joints?
- radiocarpal joint of the wrist
- metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand
- metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot
- atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
185
What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar joints?
- carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
- talocrural joint of the ankle
- calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
186
What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) enarthrosis joints?
- femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip
- humerus-glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder
187
At what location will the common carotid artery bifurcate?
the C3/C4 intervertebral disc at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage
188
What are the regions/divisions of the internal carotid artery?
- cervical
- petrous
- cavernous
- cerebral
189
What is the location for the petrous part of the internal carotid artery?
carotid canal in petrous part of temporal bone
190
What accompanies the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery in the middle cranial fossa?
cavernous dural venous sinus
191
What branch of the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery was stressed in the text?
ophthalmic artery
192
What are the segmental branches of the subclavian artery?
- vertebral artery
- ascending cervical artery
- deep cervical artery
193
What is the location of origin of the axillary artery?
at the outer border of the first rib
194
What is the segmental branch of the axillary artery?
supreme (highest/superior) thoracic artery (T1/T2)
195
What branches of the thoracic descending aorta were stressed in the text?
- posterior intercostal artery (T3-T11)
| - subcostal artery (T12)
196
What parietal/dorsal branches of the abdominal descending aorta were stressed in the text?
lumbar and median sacral arteries
197
What branches of the internal iliac were stressed in the text?
iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries
198
What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?
- iliolumbar artery
- lateral sacral artery
- median (middle) sacral artery
199
What vessels form the retromandibular (posterior facial) vein?
superficial temporal and (internal) maxillary vein
200
What will the inferior ophthalmic vein drain into?
the pterygoid venous plexus and the cavernous dural venous sinus
201
What is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries?
remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema
202
What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?
- they begin as blind-ended sacs
- have a greater luminal diameter than blood capillaries
- are more variable in luminal diameter than blood capillaries
- more layered in plexus arrangements than blood capillaries
203
How do the lymphatics (medium sized vessels) differ from veins?
- more numerous
- possess more valves
- anastomose more frequently than veins
204
What parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?
- right side of head
- right side of neck
- thoracic parietal wall
- right upper extremity
- right lung
- convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver
205
What is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?
L2 from the cisterna chyli
206
What will form the lymph nodule?
migration and proliferation of T-cells from the thymus
207
What are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?
Peyer's patches of the small intestine and the tonsils
208
What are the functions of lymph nodules?
- lymphocytopoeisis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line)
- aid in the immune response
209
What is identified in the lymph node cortex?
solitary lymph nodules
210
What is the function of lymph nodes?
they primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they participate in the immune response
211
What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?
posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters
212
What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?
posterior/kyphotic
213
What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?
the intervertebral disc height
214
What is the direction of the typical cervical curve?
anterior/lordotic
215
At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?
C5/C6
216
What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
- anterior groove
- posterior groove
- left and right uncinate processes
217
What are the names of the lateral modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim?
- uncinate process
- unciform process
- uncovertebral process
- lateral lip or uncus
218
What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove and posterior lip-posterior groove articulation?
fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis joint
219
What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?
modified synovial (diarthrosis) sellar joint
220
What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?
cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis joint
221
How many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?
five
222
How many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?
five
223
How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
ten
224
How many synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
four
225
What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?
joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint
226
What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?
the longus colli muscle
