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Embryology > Final Exam 2 > Flashcards

Final Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the embryonic origin of the mesoduodenum?

A

Dorsal mesentery

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2
Q

The intraembryonic coelom forms where?

A

between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm

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3
Q

Which feature do the parietal pleura, parietal pericardium and parietal peritoneum share in common?

A

derive from somatic mesoderm

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4
Q

Which structure does not contribute to diaphragm development?

A

pleuropericardial folds

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5
Q

Delayed/failed closure by which structure typically accounts for diaphragmatic hernia formation?

A

pleuroperitoneal membranes

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6
Q

An organ that develops in the peritoneal cavity and is then displaced outside of the parietal peritoneum is referred to as?

A

secondary retroperitoneal

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7
Q

Which two chick embryo “extraembryonic” membranes derive from somatopleure?

A

amnion and chorion

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8
Q

Which term best describes the human placenta?

A

hemochorial

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9
Q

The maternal portion of the placenta develops in which area?

A

decidua basalis

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10
Q

Which extraembryonic membrane actually covers the umbilical cord?

A

amnion

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11
Q

The somatopleure is a membrane comprised of which two tissues?

A

ectoderm and somatic mesoderm

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12
Q

The placental barrier “thins” during gestation to improve exchange. How does this occur?

A

loss of mesenchyme and cytotrophoblast within the placental villi

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13
Q

What is the primary source of amniotic fluid after 12 weeks of gestation?

A

fetal urine production

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14
Q

Where does the allantois originate?

A

embryonic endoderm

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15
Q

Why is the allantois important?

A

umbilical cord blood vessel formation

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16
Q

Which layer disappears during gestation?

A

decidua capsularis

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17
Q

Based on amnion/chorian arrangement, which situation would most likely produce conjoined twins?

A

monochorionic, monoamniotic twins

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18
Q

Splitting of the embryo at the inner cell mass stage would result in which membrane arrangement?

A

monochorionic, diamniotic twins

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19
Q

Differentiation of mesoderm-derived angioblasts into endothelial cells is an example of which process?

A

vasculogenesis

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20
Q

Where is the first site of intraembryonic blood cell formation?

A

AGM (aorta-genial-mesonephric region)

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21
Q

The “fetal” hemoglobin contains which two pairs of globin molecules?

A

2 alpha, 2 gamma

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22
Q

Which cell is the immediate precursor to erythrocytes?

A

reticulocyte

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23
Q

The Rh-incompatibility syndrome (hemolytic disease of the newborn) occurs when?

A

Rh- mother has a Rh+ fetus

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24
Q

What is the source of the mesothelium that makes up the parietal pericardium?

A

lateral somatic mesoderm

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25
Q

What is the source of the mesothelium that makes up the visceral pericardium?

A

proepicardial primordium

26
Q

The mesenchyme of the pleuropericardial folds gives rise to which layer?

A

fibrous pericardium

27
Q

The smooth part of the definitive left atrium derives from which structure?

A

pulmonary veins

28
Q

The sinus venarium derives from which structure?

A

right sinus venosus

29
Q

The coronary sinus predominately derives from which structure?

A

left sinus venosus

30
Q

The crista terminalis marks the separation between which two structures?

A

primitive and definitive right atrium

31
Q

Where would you expect to find the “moderator band”?

A

right ventricle

32
Q

Atrial septation and foramen ovale formation requires closure of which passageway?

A

osteum primum

33
Q

Atrial septal and membranous interventricular septal defects could occur due to failed development where?

A

endocardial cushion

34
Q

The definitive right ventricle derives primarily from which are of the embryonic heart tube?

A

bulbus cordis

35
Q

Which fetal shunt directs blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta?

A

ductus arteriosus

36
Q

A majority of the blood in the fetal left atrium enters from which source?

A

right atrium

37
Q

The definitive left ventricle derives primarily from which area of the embryonic heart tube?

A

primitive ventricle

38
Q

What is the source of the cardiac endothelium and myocardium?

A

lateral splanchnic mesoderm

39
Q

The ventricular papillary muscles derive from which source?

A

myocardium

40
Q

Which cells are essential to artrioventricular valve development?

A

epicardial cells &

endothelial derived endocardial cushion cells

41
Q

What is the origin of the left subclavian artery?

A

left 7th intersegmental artery

42
Q

Which structure derives from or is contributed to by the 3rd aortic arch?

A

common carotid arteries

43
Q

Which structure derives from or is contributed to by the left 6th aortic arch?

A

ductus arteriosus

44
Q

Which structure derives from or is contributed to by the right 4th aortic arch?

A

right subclavian

45
Q

The brachiocephalic artery primarily derives from which structure?

A

aortic sac

46
Q

The yolk stalk (and therefore the mindgut) is most closely associated with which artery?

A

superior mesenteric

47
Q

A lateral anastomosis of the first 6 cervical intersegmental arteries is the basis for which major adult artery?

A

vertebral

48
Q

Relative to the paired dorsal aortas, how are the syndromes of double aortic arch and right aortic arch similar?

A

the right dorsal aorta is retained in both

49
Q

Which cardiac defect always accompanies failed conotruncal septation?

A

interventricular septal defect

50
Q

The cardiac malformation “transposition of the great vessels” primarily reflects failed development in the?

A

conotruncus

51
Q

The definitive adrenal and gonadal arteries derive from?

A

lateral intersegmental arteries

52
Q

List four primary defects characterizing Tetralogy of Fallot

A

pulmonary trunk stenosis
rightward displacement of aorta
ventricular septal defect
right ventricular hypertrophy

53
Q

List the four mechanisms that can explain atrial septal defects (ASDs)

A

osteum secundum defects
osteum primum defects
sinus venosus related defects
failed endocardial cushion defects

54
Q

List 3 cell types that comprise the midgestation human “placental membrane”

A

syncytiotrophoblast
cytotrophoblast
fetal endothelium

55
Q

Name the 3 primary routes fro blood circulation in the 4th week human embryo

A

cardinal-aorta
vitelline-yolk sac
umbilical

56
Q

Use abbreviation RV=Right ventricle PT=Pulmonary trunk, etc
A.Trace the path a red blood cell would follow from the adult superior vena cava to the right internal carotid artery. Include all valves.

A

A. The red blood cell (RBC) will travel from the superior vena cava (SVC) to the right atrium (RA) – tricuspid valve (TV) – right ventricle (RV) – pulmonary semilunar valve (PSV) – pulmonary trunk (PT) – pulmonary arteries (PA) - Lungs – pulmonary veins (PV) – left atrium (LA) – bicuspid (mitral) valve (BV) – left ventricle (LV) – aortic semilunar valve (ASV) - aortic arch (AA) – brachiocephalic (BRA) – right common carotid (CC) – right internal carotid (IC).

57
Q

B.A red blood cell in the fetal superior vena cava craves oxygen. Trace the shortest route the cell would follow to reach the placental villi.

A

B) The red blood cell (RBC) will travel from the SVC to the RA - TV – RV – PSV – PT – DA – AO – common iliac (CI) – intenal iliac (II) – umbilical arteries (UA) – placenta

58
Q

What are the fundamental differences between persistent truncus arteriosus and transposition of the great vessels?

A

In persistent truncus arteriosus the conotruncal ridges fail to form in the truncus arteriosus so there is a large common overriding outflow tract for right and left ventricular output. Always includes a ventricular septal defect.

In transposition of the great vessels the conotruncal ridges form and partition the truncus but fail to spiral. The right ventricle pumps blood into the aorta and the left ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary trunk. Accompanied by patent ductus arteriosus and atrial and/or ventricular defects.

59
Q

A large dissecting needle has been passed through the outermost layer of the pericardium to the left ventricular chamber. Name the layers the pin passes through.

A 
Fibrous pericardium  
Parietal (serous) pericardium  
Pericardial cavity  
Visceral (serous) pericardium (epicardium)  Myocardium  
Endocardium (endothelium)
60
Q

Outline the cardiac conduction system and describe its function.

A

SA node – atrial pathways – AV node – Bundle of His – bundle branches, left and right – Purkinje fibers The SA node serves as the pacemaker to initiate cardiac contraction and the conduction system serves to coordinate atrial and ventricular contraction.

Embryology (11 decks)

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