Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following are considered Protista? Select all that apply:

A. Yeast
B. Algae
C. Bacteria
D. Amoeba

A

Algae and Amoeba

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2
Q

True or False: A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers.

A

True

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3
Q

The function of the ribosome is:

A

Protein Synthesis and Protein Modificiation/Distrubtion

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4
Q

Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the description.

A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Nucleus
D. Cell wall
E. Plasma membrane
F. Centriole
G. Lysosome

A
  1. C
  2. G
  3. E
  4. B
  5. A
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5
Q

The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the:

A

Cell envelope

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6
Q

The function of the Golgi is (select all that apply):

A. Protein Modification
B. To Produce Energy
C. Waste Disposal
D. Lipid
E. Protein Synth.

A

A and D

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7
Q

True or False. All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic.

A

F

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8
Q

How many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate?

A

1

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9
Q

In the absence of glucose, which of the following cannot be used as alternative energy
sources? Select all that apply.

A. Carb
B. Nucleic Acid
C. Lactose
D. Fatty Acid Chains

A

B

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10
Q

True or False. The β-oxidation pathway is responsible for the anabolism of fatty acid chains.

A

F

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11
Q

True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants.

A

T

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12
Q

The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following: select all that
apply.

A. CO2
B. H2O
C. G3P
D. NADPH
E. ATP

A

DE

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13
Q

What is one of the main functions of light reactions?

A

Generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP

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14
Q

True or False: Dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light.

A

T

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15
Q

True or False: Following the decolorization step of the Gram stain, Gram-Negative bacteria will appear colorless.

A

T

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16
Q

Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide.

A

Ethanol or Methanol

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17
Q

You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process.

A

Simple Stain

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18
Q

You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide.

A

We would expect to see the red cells (TB+) on the blue background which is TB (negative). Usually red stain in the blue background confirms TB infection.

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19
Q

True or False: If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform.

A

True

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20
Q

Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice.

A

TEM because with the TEM, you can see the subcellular structures, and you can not see the outside shell.

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21
Q

True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to expand a bacterial population.

A

T

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22
Q

When performing a quadrant streak, the sample is spread across the plate in such as way as to form what?

A

A dilution gradient

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23
Q

In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4?

A

P4 (lowest)
P2 (highest)

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24
Q

True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used for each phase.

A

T

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25
Q

The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens?

A

Both are acceptable pending that their is growth of the individual colonies

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26
Q

True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37°C to 25°C.

A

T

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27
Q

When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suites this need? Why?

  1. MSA agar
  2. LB media
  3. MacConkey agar
  4. Columbia CNA agar
A

LB Media, as all the others are Selective Media.

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28
Q

True or False. Only directly ingesting the pre-formed clostridium toxin (neither the bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults.

A

True

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29
Q

True or False. There are currently no cures for tetanus.

A

T

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30
Q

The alpha-toxin perfringolysin is associated with which medical condition caused by Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria?

Tetanus
Botulism
Leprosy
Gas gangrene

A

Gas Gangrene

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31
Q

True or False. Pneumonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes.

A

F

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32
Q

Identify the following disease:

Hand with red ringed sore behind supine thumb

A

Anthrax

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33
Q

True or False. Chlyamida is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown on agarplates alone.

A

F

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34
Q

True or False. Similar to chickenpox, the blisters that appear with shingles can cover the entire body.

A

F

35
Q

While traveling abroad, should you be worried about coming into contact with either the Variola major or Variola minor viruses?

A

No, both are variants of smallpox and eradicated.

36
Q

By whom and where was the first polio vaccine developed?

A

Jonas Salk, U of Pitt, 1955

37
Q

A drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit the release of newly produced viral particles. Would the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or neuraminidase proteins? Why?

A

Neuraminidase (N) proteins are directly involved in the budding and release of new viral particles and would thus be the correct target. Hemagglutinin (HA) proteins would not be advisable targets as they are directly involved in viral attachment and entry into the host cell.

38
Q

True or False. The viral capsid of HIV is cone shaped and contains ~2,000 copies of the viral protein p24.

A

F

39
Q

What small (~30nm) single-stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus targets the CNS (central nervous system), causing potentially catastrophic damage to motor neurons?

A

Polio

40
Q

Identify each of the following microorganisms as either Prokaryote or a Eukaryote.

E.Coli
Archaeons
Yeast
Amoeba

A

E.Coli - Pro
Arch - Pro
Yeast - Euk
Amoeba - Euk

41
Q

Match each of the following terms with the correct description:

  1. Phototroph
  2. Lithortroph
  3. Autotroph
  4. Chemotroph

A. Utilize Protons
B. Acquire energy from chemicals
C. Obtain carbon from inorganic molecules
D. removes electrons from inorganic molecules

A
  1. A
  2. D
  3. C
  4. B
42
Q

A researcher is looking to solidify an agent for growth media. What polysaccharide substance would he or she use?

Peptone
Agar
Beef Abstract
Yeast

A

Agar

43
Q

Place the following viral life cycle steps in order beginning with viral attachment and provide a description of “RELEASE”

Uncoating:
Release:
Replication:
Attachment:
Entry:
New infection:

A

1-Attachment:
2-Entry:
3- Uncoating:
4-Replication:
5-Release: New virus particles are produced and leave the cell
6-New infection:

44
Q

Which type of bacteria appears purple/violet in color after staining?

A. Neither Gram-positive nor Gram-negative
B. Gram-positive
C. Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative
D. Gram-negative

A

B

45
Q

Left untreated, three percent of cases of Streptococcal pharyngitis will progress to which of the following?

A. Rheumatic Fever
B. Laryngitis
C. Klebsiella
D. Conjunctivis

A

A

46
Q

Describe TWO differences between DNA and RNA.

A

RNA contains the sugar ribose rather than deoxyribose.

RNA is always single-stranded, whereas DNA is double stranded.

47
Q

True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true.

When grown on Blood Agar Plates (BAP), microbes capable of alpha hemolysis present as tan/ white color colonies due to the incomplete (partial) lysis of red blood cells.

A

False; Alpha hemolysis presents as greenish-brown color colonies due to the incomplete (partial) lysis of red blood cells.

48
Q

Each of the following statements about respiration is true, except:

A. It does not produce ATP
B. It is an aerobic process
C. It produces NADH and FADH2 in abundance
D. The central cycle is called the TCA

A

A

49
Q

Describe the ONE main differences between lytic and temperate phages.

A

In lytic, cells replicate until cell death, where as in temperate there is no cell death

50
Q

Bacteria that have a rod-like morphology are referred to as _______.

A

Bacillus

51
Q

You want to observe the movement of microorganisms that are present in a sample of cheek cells obtained on a patient.

Briefly explain the technique that you would use and how it is performed.

A

I would use a wet mount stain, and place a drop of the microrganism on th e slide. Cover the slide with a coverslip. I chose a wet mount because i wanted to observe the motility and behavior.

52
Q

What coronavirus-associated infection gave rise to quarantining and travel restrictions in 2012?

A. SARS
B. RSV
C. Covid-19
D. ARDS
E. MERS

A

A and E

53
Q

A multi-purpose media capable of growing a wide variety of microorganisms.

A

Typticase Soy Agar

54
Q

Also known as lysogeny broth, it is a multi-purpose media capable of growing a wide variety of microorganisms.

A

LB Agar

55
Q

Pale red in color and is both selective and differential media. The presence of crystal violet and bile salts in its formulation restricts Gram-positive bacterial growth. As such, only Gram negative microbes can be grown.

A

MacConkey Agar

56
Q

This Agar is selective for Gram-positive bacteria and can differentiate members of the Staphylococci family.

A

Mannitol Salt Agar

57
Q

True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true.

Tuberculosis (TB) CANNOT be spread through shaking someone’s hand, sharing a drink, or kissing.

A

True

58
Q

True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true.

Glucose is an example of a disaccharide.

A

False, Glucose is a monosaccharide

59
Q

You are working with a patient who claims a friend “got the COVID-19 infection from the vaccine”. Explain why the mRNA vaccines used to prevent the COVID-19 infection cannot transmit the actual infection.

A

mRNA vaccines code the cells to produce antibodies for the infection, so that when someone comes in
contact with it, they already have antibodies built up. The mRNA vaccine does not include the COVID19 virus itself.

60
Q

The simplest form of light, or optical, microscopes. Light, most often emitted from a standard halogen bulb, enters the microscope from the base (bottom) and is reflected via mirrors towards the sample.

A

Bright Field microscope

61
Q

Incoming light is in the form of the ultraviolet (UV) spectrum. What Microscope

A

Fluorescence Microscope

62
Q

This microscope can provide detailed images of live cells without staining.

A

Phase Contrast

63
Q

Use of beams of electrons to increase its resolution capacity to less than 1nm - thats 200x in this microscope?

A

Electron Microscope

64
Q

Combines the usefulness of the fluorescence microscopy with the ability to visualize cells in 3D in this microscope

A

Confocal

65
Q

This microscope reflects light off of the specimen at an angle rather than light passing through the specimen.

A

Dark Field

66
Q

Which of the following reactions is an example of an oxidoreductase?

a. A + B → A-B
b. A-B + H2O → A-OH + B-H
c. A— + B →A + B—
d. Ab + C → A + Cb

A

C

67
Q

After a microbiologist obtains a quadrant streak sample, what is the next action taken in the incubation process to obtain growth?

A

Lids go back on and the agar is placed in an incubator at 37C for 12-24 hours!

68
Q

Identify the following disease based upon the physical manifestation:

(Neck, with red rash and a big ass sore on the right shoulder)

A

Gas gangrene

69
Q

Which of the following is/are true of Animalia?

A. They possess the ability to move.
B. Humans are an example
C. They can be unicellular or multicellular
D. They are autotrophic

A

A & B

70
Q

Which virus is characterized by blisters covering the entire body?

A

Chickenpox

71
Q

Which virus was the first infectious disease eradicated in 1977 through global vaccination?

A

smallpox

72
Q

A patient presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain after eating a grab-and-go
lunch from the local corner store. The physician suspects foodborne illness to be the cause of discomfort. To treat the patient, it is essential to know the organism responsible for the illness. He
learns that the organism is identified as a Gram-negative bacillus. He then orders EMB agar because he suspects E. Coli to be the cause. If his suspicion is correct, what observation will likely be seen on the agar plate?

A

The smear will grow a metallic green culture

73
Q

True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true.

In addition to being a rich source of carbon and energy, Amino acids are a rich source of nitrogen and sulfur.

A

T

74
Q

Giemsa staining is used to detect each of the following, except:

A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Malaria
C. Neisseria Gonorrhea
D. Histoplasma

A

C

75
Q

What STD is caused by Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacteria that can cause infertility and
pelvic inflammatory disease?

A. Syphilis
B. Leprosy
C. Chlamydia
D. Gonorrhea

A

C

76
Q

The co mbination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the (select all that apply):

A. Cell envelope
B. Outer leaflet
C. Capsid
D. Cell Wall

A

ALL

77
Q

The function of the Golgi is (Select all that apply)”

A. Protein Mod and Dist.
B. To Produce energy
C. Waste disposal via hydrolytic
D. Lipid synthesis
E. Protein synthesis

A

AD

78
Q

In the absence of glucose, which of the following cannot be used as alternative energy sources (select all that apply):

A. Carbohydrates
B. Nucleic Acids
C. Lactose
D. Fatty acid chains

A

B

79
Q

The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following (select all that apply)

A. CO2
B. H20
C. G3P
D. NADPH
E. ATP

A

DE

80
Q

What is on the main functions of light reactions?

A

Similar to the electron transport chain, one of its main functions is to generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP

81
Q

The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens?

A

Either is acceptable, as long as their is growth in the colonies

82
Q

True or False. Pneimonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lympth nodes

A

F

83
Q

True or False. Chyamida is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown on agar plates alone.

A

F