FINAL EXAM Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is cognition?

A

Mental activities and processes associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Paget’s definition of cognition?

A

Assimilation and accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a concept?

A

The mental grouping of similar objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is conceptual art?

A

When the idea referred is more important than the art itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How are concepts formed?

A

Through prototypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a prototype?

A

A mental image of the best example of a concept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where do prototypical categories originate from?

A

Evolution (safe vs. dangerous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is F.A.B.?

A

Fundamental attribution bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When do prototypes fail?

A

When examples stretch beyond definition, the boundary between concepts is fuzzy, or examples contradict prototypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is problem solving?

A

The thinking we do in order to answer a complex question/to figure out how to resolve an unfavorable situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the different kinds of problem solving?

A

Trial & error, algorithms, heuristics, and insight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is trial & error?

A

Trying various solutions and and, if that fails, trying others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the downside of trial & error?

A

It takes a long time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a heuristic?

A

A short-cut, step-saving thinking strategy or principle that generates a solution quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the downside of heuristics?

A

They may be inaccurate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is an algorithm?

A

A step-by-step strategy for solving a problem, methodically leading to a specific solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is insight?

A

A sudden realization, leap forward in thinking that leads to a solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What did Kanneman and Tversky study?

A

Human problem solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What award was given to Kanneman and Tversky?

A

A nobel prize in economics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the three steps of insight?

A
  1. Extra frontal lobe activity
  2. Experiencing “aha” moment and stating answer
  3. Burst of activity in right temporal lobe (area for receiving language)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a mental set?

A

The tendency to approach problems using a mindset that has worked previously, relying on assimilation rather than accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a fixation?

A

The tendency to get stuck in one way of thinking/inability to see problem from a new perspective, a.k.a. unsuccessful assimilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is an availability heuristic?

A

To estimate the likelihood of of an event based on how much it stands out in our mind (type of mental set)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is weighted attention?

A

An availability heuristic that influences the focus of attention (ex. danger of planes vs. motorcycles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are phonemes?

A

The smallest units of sound (vowels and consonants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are morphemes?

A

The units of meaning (suffixes, prefixes, words)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is grammar?

A

The rules for using words, including semantics, definitions, connotations, and syntax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does language consist of?

A

Phonemes, morphemes, and grammar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many words are learned from 2-18 years old?

A

10 words per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What level of language development do children reach in preschool?

A

They can recall words and meanings and assemble words into sentences while following social rules for speaking and listening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How many words can a 6-year-old recognize?

A

15,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How many words can an 11-year-old recognize?

A

30,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How many words can an adult recognize?

A

75,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What stage of language development is reached at 0-4 months?

A

Receptive language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is receptive language?

A

Associating sounds with facial movements and recognizing when sounds are broken into words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What stage of language development is reached at 4 months?

A

Productive language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is productive language?

A

Babbling in multilingual sounds and gestures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What stage of language development is reached at 10 months?

A

The babbling sounds like the household’s language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What stage of language development is reached at 12 months?

A

The one-word stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the one-word stage?

A

Understanding and beginning to say many nouns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What stage of language development is reached at 18-24 months?

A

The two-word “telegraphic” tweet/speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is two-word “telegraphic” tweet/speech?

A

Adding verbs and making sentences but missing words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What stage of language development is reached at 24+ months?

A

Speaking full sentences and understanding complex sentences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What was Chomsky’s perspective of language acquisition?

A

That language is linked to the unique structure of the human brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What was Skinner’s perspective of language acquisition?

A

Language proceeds as a consequence of right reinforcement schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is L.A.D.?

A

Language acquisition device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What book did Chomsky write?

A

Syntactic Structures (1957)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What book did Skinner write?

A

Verbal Behavior (1957)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How many citations does Chomsky have?

A

28,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How many citations does Skinner have?

A

14,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is aphasia?

A

Impairment in ability to produce/understand language, usually caused by brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What happens if the Boca’s area is damaged?

A

Difficulty in putting words together in sentences/speaking single words, although capable of singing a song

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What happens if the Wernicke’s area is damaged?

A

Difficulty comprehending speech and producing coherent speech (not easily monitoring one’s own speech)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What five parts of the brain are used when reading a word?

A
  1. Visual cortex
  2. Angular gyrus
  3. Wernicke’s area
  4. Broca’s area
  5. Motor cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What role does the visual cortex play in reading a word?

A

Receives written words as visual stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What role does the angular gyrus play in reading a word?

A

Transforms visual representations into an auditory code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What role does the Wernicke’s area play in reading a word?

A

Interprets auditory code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What role does the Broca’s area play in reading a word?

A

Controls speech muscles via motor cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What role does the motor cortex play in reading a word?

A

The word is pronounced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How do animals use productive language?

A

Have “words”: sounds, gestures, dances to communicate information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How many signs did Washoe the chimpanzee learn?

A

275 signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is linguistic determinism?

A

The idea that our specific language determines how we think

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is intelligence?

A

The ability to learn from experience, solve problems, and use knowledge to adapt to new situations (accommodation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are intelligence tests?

A

Series of questions and other exercises that attempt to assess peoples’ mental abilities in a way that generates a mental score to compare with others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Who discovered general intelligence (g)?

A

Charles Spearman (1863-1945)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How did Spearman discover general intelligence?

A

A factor analysis of different skills showed that those who did well in one area also did well in another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How does one have high “g”?

A

When those who do well in one area also do well in another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is a factor analysis?

A

A statistical technique that determines how different variables relate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Who discovered the two categories of general intelligence?

A

Raymond Cattell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is crystallized intelligence?

A

Skills (ex. biking, skiing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What happens to crystallized intelligence over time?

A

It stays stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is fluid intelligence?

A

Creativity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What happens to fluid intelligence over time?

A

It fades with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How does fluid intelligence relate to crystallized intelligence?

A

It correlates/overlaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Who believed there are seven clusters of abilities?

A

Louis Thurstone (1887-1955)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are Thurstone’s seven clusters of abilities?

A
  1. Verbal comprehension
  2. Inductive reasoning
  3. Word fluency
  4. Spatial ability
  5. Memory
  6. Perceptual speed
  7. Numerical ability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is savant syndrome?

A

Having isolated “islands” of high ability amidst a sea of below-average cognitive and social functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Who believed there are eight types of intelligence?

A

Howard Gardener (1943)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are Gardener’s eight types of intelligence?

A
  1. Naturalist
  2. Linguistic
  3. Logical-mathematical
  4. Musical
  5. Spatial
  6. Bodily-kinesthetic
  7. Intrapersonal
  8. Interpersonal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Who believed there are three types of intelligence?

A

Robert Sternberg (1949)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What were the three parts of Sternberg’s triarchic theory?

A
  1. Practical intelligence: expertise and talent that help to complete the tasks and complex challenges of everyday life
  2. Analytical intelligence: solving a well-defined problem with a single answer
  3. Creative intelligence: generating new ideas to help adapt to novel situations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What were the strengths of Spearman’s general intelligence?

A

Different abilities (ex. verbal and spatial) have some tendency to correlate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What were the weaknesses of Spearman’s general intelligence?

A

Human abilities are too diverse to be encapsulated by a single factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What were the strengths of Thurstone’s primary mental abilities?

A

A single “g” score is not as informative as scores for seven primary mental abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What were the weaknesses of Thurstone’s primary mental abilities?

A

Results show a tendency to cluster, suggesting an underlying “g” factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the strengths of Gardener’s multiple intelligences?

A

Intelligence is more than verbal and mathematical skills and other abilities are equally important to human adaptability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the weaknesses of Gardener’s multiple intelligences?

A

Are all abilities talents? Should some be considered less vital talents?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the strengths of Sternberg’s triarchic theory?

A

The three factors can be reliably measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the weaknesses of Sternberg’s triarchic theory?

A

The three factors may be less independent and actually share an underlying “g” factor, while additional testing is needed to determined whether facets can reliably predict success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is creativity?

A

The ability to produce ideas that are novel and valuable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is creative intelligence?

A

Using these ideas to adapt to novel situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is convergent thinking?

A

Left-brain activity involving zeroing in on a single correct answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is divergent thinking?

A

The ability to generate new ideas, actions, and multiple options and answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What kind of thinking does creativity involve?

A

Divergent thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is social intelligence?

A

The ability to understand and navigate social situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is emotional intelligence?

A

Processing and managing emotional component of social situations, including one’s own emotions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the components of emotional intelligence?

A
  1. Perceiving emotions
  2. Understanding emotions
  3. Managing emotions
  4. Using emotions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What does it mean to perceive emotions?

A

To recognize emotions in facial expressions, stories, and even in music

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What does it mean to understand emotions?

A

To see blended emotions and predict emotional states and changes in self and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What does it mean to manage emotions?

A

To modulate and express emotions in various situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What does it mean to use emotions?

A

To use emotions as fuel and motivation for adaptive thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the benefits of high emotional intelligence?

A

The ability to delay gratification and success in career and other social situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What do verbal and intelligence test scores correlate with?

A
  1. Speed of info retrieval from memory
  2. Working memory capacity
  3. Speed of receiving/processing sensory and perceptual information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What test measures processing speed?

A

Conners test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is an assessment?

A

An activity/instrument used to measure intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the challenge behind assessments?

A

Whether the measurements are valid and reliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Why was intelligence measured?

A
  1. To study how and why people differ in ability
  2. To match strengths/weaknesses to jobs and school programs
  3. “Survival of the fittest” process (eugenicist Francis Galton)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What was Alfred Binet’s test made for?

A

To find which children needed help within their education level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What did Binet’s test measure?

A

Mental age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What did Binet’s test imply about children with “lower abilites”?

A

They were delayed, not disabled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Who adapted Binet’s test?

A

Lewis Terman from Stanford University

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What did Terman change in Binet’s test?

A

Added new test terms and extended age range to adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What did William Stern’s scoring result in?

A

The concept of IQ (intelligence quotient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How did Binet report scores?

A

As one’s mental age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

How did Stern preserve the comparison of mental to chronological age?

A

Ratio/quotient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the equation for IQ?

A

IQ = (mental age/chronological age) x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How did Terman’s perspective of scores change?

A

Initially believed intelligence was innate (genetic) and unchanging, but later saw how they could be affected by education and familiarity with test’s language/culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

How did Binet believe one could improve a low score?

A

By studying and developing self-discipline and attention span

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

How did Terman believe one could improve a low score?

A

By removing genes from the population (eugenics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are achievement tests?

A

A measurement of what you’ve already learned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are aptitude tests?

A

A prediction of ability to learn new skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is WAIS?

A

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is WISC?

A

Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What do WAIS and WISC measure?

A

“g”/IQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Who created WAIS and WISC?

A

David Wechsler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What do Wechsler’s tests have subscores for?

A
  1. Verbal comprehension
  2. Processing speed
  3. Perceptual organization
  4. Working memory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are the requirements for psychological tests to be considered useful?

A
  1. Standardized
  2. Reliable
  3. Valid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Where do 95% of scores fall on Weschler’s intelligence test?

A

30 points of 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Where do 68% of scores fall on Weschler’s intelligence test?

A

15 points of 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is re-standardization?

A

Re-testing a sample of the general population to make an updated, accurate comparison group in case people are smarter than when test was first made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the Flynn Effect?

A

Performance on intelligence tests has improved over years worldwide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How is an assessment considered reliable?

A

When it generates consistent results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is split-half reliability?

A

When two halves of a test yield the same results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is test-retest reliability?

A

When a test gives the same results when used again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

How is an assessment considered valid?

A

When it accurately measures what it is supposed to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is content-validity?

A

Test correlates well with relevant criterion, trait, or behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is predictive validity?

A

Test predicts future performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What did adoption studies find regarding intelligence?

A

Adoptees’ intelligence scores look more like those of their biological parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What are girls found to be better at?

A
  1. Spelling
  2. Locating objects
  3. Detecting emotions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What are boys found to be better at?

A
  1. Spatial reasoning
  2. Complex math problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is within-group?

A

When different conditions are compared within the same group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is between-group?

A

When different conditions are compared between different groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is stereotype-threat?

A

The feeling that one will be evaluated based on negative stereotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

How can stereotype-threat affect performance?

A

One may use working memory for worrying instead of thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is empirical evidence?

A

A more careful style of forming and evaluating knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is anecdotal evidence?

A

Intuition and personal accounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is critical thinking used for?

A

Developing more effective and accurate ways to figure out what makes people do, think, and feel the things they do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

How do the amygdala and heuristics relate to critical thinking?

A

The brain is designed for surviving and reproducing, but not the best tool for seeing “reality” clearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

How do the hippocampus, cortex, and algorithms relate to critical thinking?

A

To improve thinking, one must learn to catch themselves in critical thinking errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What kind of evidence does critical thinking rely on?

A

Empirical evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What is hindsight bias?

A

“I knew this would happen”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Where does hindsight bias come from?

A

The mind builds current wisdom around what we have already been told; biased in favor of old info (assimilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What are the two errors of overconfidence?

A
  1. Performance
  2. Accuracy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are the three parts of the scientific attitude?

A
  1. Curiosity
  2. Skepticism
  3. Humility
155
Q

What is curiosity?

A

Always asking new questions

156
Q

What is skepticism?

A

Not accepting a “fact” as true without challenging it and seeing if “facts” can withstand attempts to be disproven

157
Q

What is humility?

A

Seeking the truth rather than trying to be right

158
Q

What is the scientific method?

A

Isolating one or more independent variables to consider their impact on outcome (dependent) variables

159
Q

What is the process of testing ideas?

A
  1. Setting up situations that test ideas
  2. Making careful, organized observation
  3. Analyzing whether data fits with ideas
160
Q

What are the basics of the scientific process?

A
  1. Theory
  2. Hypothesis
  3. Operational Definitions
  4. Replication
161
Q

What are the different research goals/types of the scientific process?

A
  1. Description
  2. Correlation
  3. Prediction
  4. Causation
  5. Experiments
162
Q

What is a theory in the scientific process?

A

A set of principles, built on observations and other verifiable facts, that explains some phenomenon and predicts future behavior

163
Q

What are hypotheses in the scientific process?

A

Testable predictions that are consistent with our theory

164
Q

What are operational definitions in the scientific process?

A

Other variables you would want to control for

165
Q

What is replication in the scientific process?

A

Trying research again using the same operational definitions of concepts and procedures

166
Q

What is descriptive research?

A

Systematic, objective observation of people

167
Q

What is the goal of descriptive research?

A

To provide a clear, accurate picture of peoples’ behaviors, thoughts, and attributes

168
Q

What is a case study?

A

Observing and gathering information to complete in-depth study of one individual

169
Q

What is naturalistic observation?

A

Gathering data about behavior; watching but not intervening

170
Q

What are surveys and interviews?

A

Having other people report on their own attitudes and behaviors

171
Q

What is the benefit of case studies?

A

Can be a source of ideas about human nature in general

172
Q

What is the danger of case studies?

A

Overgeneralization from just one example

173
Q

What is the benefit of naturalistic observation?

A

Can be used to study more than one individual and to find truths that apply to broader population

174
Q

What is random sampling?

A

A technique for making sure that every individual in a population has a similar chance of being in a sample

175
Q

What are key points to consider about surveys?

A
  1. Be careful about question wording
  2. Only question randomly sampled people
176
Q

What is the general definition of correlation?

A

Observation that two traits/attributes are related to each other

177
Q

What is the scientific definition of correlation?

A

Measure of how closely two factors vary together

178
Q

What tool is used to observe correlation?

A

Scatterplots

179
Q

What is a correlation coefficient?

A

A number representing the strength and direction of correlation

180
Q

What is experimentation?

A

Manipulating one factor in a situation to determine its effect

181
Q

What is the difference between random sampling and random assignment?

A

Pool of research participants that represents population vs. randomization to control/experimental groups to control all variables except the one that is being manipulated

182
Q

What is the placebo effect?

A

Experimental effects that are caused by expectations about intervention

183
Q

What is double-blind?

A

When neither participants nor research staff know which participants are in experimental or control groups

184
Q

What is a control group?

A

A group that is the same in every way except the one variable that is being changed

185
Q

What is an independent variable?

A

A variable manipulated independently of what other variables are doing

186
Q

What is a dependent variable?

A

A variable expected to experience a change from the manipulation

187
Q

What is a confounding variable?

A

Other variables that may have an effect on the dependent variable

188
Q

What is an experiment?

A

A type of research in which the researcher manipulates a limited number of factors (IV’s) and measures the impact on other factors (DV’s)

189
Q

What are statistics?

A

Tools for organizing, presenting, analyzing, and interpreting data

190
Q

What is nonbiased sampling?

A

Making sure the sample studied is a good representation of the chosen population

191
Q

Who wrote “The Expression of the Emotions in Man and Animals” (1897)?

A

Charles Darwin

192
Q

What did Carrol Izzard suggest?

A

There are 10 basic emotions, those evident at birth and those found later

193
Q

What are primary emotions?

A

Basic emotions that are present from birth

194
Q

What are secondary emotions?

A

Mixed/blended emotions and emotion-regulation strategies that appear later in life

195
Q

What finding suggests that the origin of facial expressions is genetic?

A

Blind people and non-blind people show the same facial expressions

196
Q

What is an emotion?

A

A full body/mind/behavior response to a situation

197
Q

What are the three components of an emotion?

A
  1. Behavior (expressive behavior)
  2. Arousal (bodily response)
  3. Cognition (conscious experience)
198
Q

What is the James-Lange Theory?

A

Emotion is the conscious awareness of physiological responses to stimuli (bodily experience precedes thoughts)

199
Q

Who created the James-Lange Theory?

A

William James (1842-1910) and Carl Lange (1834-1900)

200
Q

What is the Cannon-Bard Theory?

A

We have a conscious/cognitive experience of an emotion at the same time as our body responding

201
Q

Who created the Cannon-Bard Theory?

A

Walter Cannon (1871-1945) and Philip Bard (1898-1977)

202
Q

What is the Schachter-Singer “Two-factor” Theory?

A

Emotions do not exist until we add a label to whatever body sensations being felt

203
Q

Who created the Schachter-Singer “Two-factor” Theory?

A

Stanley Schachter (1922-1987) and Jerome Singer (1934-2010)

204
Q

What is the Zajonc LeDoux Lazarus Theory?

A

Some emotional reactions, especially fears, likes, and dislikes, develop in a “low road” through the brain, skipping conscious thought

205
Q

Who created the Zajonc LeDoux Lazarus Theory?

A

Robert Zajonc (1923-2008), Joseph LeDoux (1949-), and Richard Lazarus (1922-2002)

206
Q

What causes the physiological arousal felt during emotions?

A

Sympathetic nervous system

207
Q

What is the difference between sympathetic division and parasympathetic division?

A

Arousing vs. calming

208
Q

What part of the brain does fear trigger more in comparison to anger?

A

Amygdala

209
Q

What part of the brain correlates with positive “approach” emotions?

A

Left frontal lobe

210
Q

What part of the brain correlates with negative “withdrawal” emotions?

A

Right hemisphere

211
Q

How do introverts and extroverts differ when it comes to detecting emotions?

A

Introverts are better at detecting emotions while extroverts have emotions that are easier to read

212
Q

What do polygraphs detect?

A

Physiological arousal

213
Q

Where does the brain show signs of lying?

A

Left prefrontal cortex and anterior cingulate cortex

214
Q

What is the facial feedback effect?

A

Facial position and muscle changes can alter which emotion we feel

215
Q

What happens if a smile is faked?

A

The person’s mood may actually improve

216
Q

What did James Russell believe about the emotional experience?

A

There are two dimensions:
1. From pleasant to unpleasant
2. From low to high arousal

217
Q

How can a flash of anger affect us?

A

Gives us energy and initiative to fight or otherwise take action when necessary

218
Q

How can persistent anger affect us?

A

Can cause more harm than whatever we are angry about

219
Q

What is the catharsis myth?

A

The idea that we can reduce anger by “releasing” it through aggressive actions

220
Q

What is the reality behind the catharsis myth?

A

Expressing anger worsens it and any “release” reinforces the aggression, making it a conditioned habit

221
Q

What are the different things happiness can be classified as?

A
  1. A mood
  2. An attitude
  3. A social phenomenon
  4. A cognitive filter
  5. A way to stay hopeful, motivated, and connected to others
222
Q

What is the feel-good, do-good phenomenon?

A

When in a good mood, we do more for others and vice versa

223
Q

How did the primary goal of students change from the 60’s to the 70’s?

A

From developing a meaningful life philosophy to being well-off financially

224
Q

How has the average income and the percentage of happiness changed in the U.S.?

A

The income has raised but happiness has remained the same

225
Q

What is the adaptation-level phenomenon?

A

When our wealth or other life conditions improve, we are happier compared to our past condition

226
Q

What happens to our level of happiness after our life conditions improve?

A

It increases but then adapts as we adjust our expectations

227
Q

What is relative depravation?

A

Feeling worse off by comparing yourself to people who are doing better

228
Q

Who do people tend to compare themselves to?

A

People who are more successful

229
Q

What are behaviors that correlate with happiness?

A
  1. High self-esteem
  2. Optimism
  3. Close relationships
  4. Work and leisure
  5. Religious faith
  6. Sleep and exercise
230
Q

What is a mood “set point”?

A

A level of happiness to which we keep returning (suggests a genetic basis for a predisposition)

231
Q

What is health psychology?

A

The study of the impacts that emotions, including personality, attitudes, behaviors, and responses to stress can have on our overall health

232
Q

What are some of the primary topics of study in health psychology?

A
  1. The phases of stress response and adaptation
  2. What stress and health are affected by
233
Q

What is stress?

A

The process of appraising and responding to events which we consider threatening or challenging

234
Q

What is a stressor?

A

An event or condition which we view as threatening, challenging, or overwhelming

235
Q

What is appraisal?

A

Deciding whether to view something as a stressor

236
Q

What is a stress reaction?

A

Any emotional and physical responses to the stressor (ex. rapid heartbeat, elevated cortisol levels, and crying)

237
Q

What does the process of stress include?

A

The stressor, cognitive appraisal, body response, and coping strategies

238
Q

What is the advantage of breaking “stress” into different components?

A

We can see options for altering each of these different factors

239
Q

How can a brief experience of stress be beneficial?

A
  1. improving immune system response
  2. Motivating action
  3. Focusing priorities
  4. Feeling engaged, energized, and satisfied
  5. Providing challenges that encourage growth,
    knowledge, and self-esteem
240
Q

How can extreme, or prolonged, stress cause problems?

A
  1. Mental and physical coping systems become
    overwhelmed and defeated rather than strengthened
  2. Immune functioning and other health factors decline because of damage
241
Q

What are the four categories of stressors?

A
  1. Catastrophes
  2. Significant life changes
  3. Chronic daily hassles
  4. Low social status/power
242
Q

When is appraisal not essential?

A

In catastrophic events

243
Q

What do the short-term effects of catastrophic events include?

A

Increased heart attacks on the day of the event

244
Q

What do the long-term effects of catastrophic events include?

A

Depression, nightmares, anxiety, and flashbacks

245
Q

What can increase the negative impacts of challenges on health?

A
  1. Painful changes (ex. death in family, loss of job, heart attack)
  2. Changes are in a cluster and there are too many at once
246
Q

What causes daily difficulties?

A

Too many tasks, too little time, and too little control

247
Q

What is phase 1 of the body’s stress response system?

A

“Fight or flight” sympathetic nervous system responds, reducing pain and increasing heart rate, and adrenal gland core produces norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline)

248
Q

Who discovered phase 1 of the body’s stress response system?

A

Walter Cannon (1871-1945)

249
Q

What is phase 2 of the body’s stress response?

A

Brain sends signals to outer part of adrenal glands to produce cortisol and other stress hormones

250
Q

Who discovered phase 2 of the body’s stress response system?

A

Hans Selye (1907-1982)

251
Q

What are the phases of the body’s stress response system?

A
  1. Alarm reaction
  2. Resistance
  3. Exhaustion
252
Q

What is GAS?

A

General Adaptation Syndrome

253
Q

What happens after repeated and prolonged stress with too much phase 3 time?

A

Various signs of physical deterioration and premature aging

254
Q

How do females react to stress?

A

Show behavioral and neurological signs of becoming more empathetic

255
Q

How do males react to stress?

A

Show less empathy and become more aggressive

256
Q

What is psycho-neuroimmunology?

A

The study of how interacting psychological, neural, and endocrine processes affect health

257
Q

Why do psychologists no longer use the term “psychosomatic”?

A

It has come to mean an imagined illness

258
Q

What is a psychophysiological illness?

A

A real illness caused in part by psychological factors such as the experience of stress

259
Q

What are the main factors of psycho-neuroimmunology?

A
  1. Psychological factors (appraisal, thoughts, feelings)
  2. Neurological factors (brain signals engaging stress response system)
  3. Immunology (suppresses immune system)
260
Q

How can stress affect the progression of AIDS?

A

Since it affects immune deficiency, reducing stress can slow the progression

261
Q

What factors contribute to heart disease?

A
  1. Biological (genetic predisposition)
  2. Behavioral (smoking, inactivity, etc.)
  3. Psychological (chronic stress, personality styles)
262
Q

What are the characteristics of a Type A personality?

A

Impatience, verbal aggression, and ambition

263
Q

What are the characteristics of a Type B personality?

A

Relaxed, “go with the flow”

264
Q

What personality type is more prone to heart attacks?

A

Type A

265
Q

What is pessimism?

A

The assumption that negative outcomes will happen and often facing them by complaining and/or giving up

266
Q

Why might depression and heart disease be related?

A

Both caused by chronic stress and are linked to inflammation

267
Q

What is cortisol?

A

The stress hormone that helps the body respond to brief stress

268
Q

When can cortisol damage the body?

A

When they reach chronically high levels

269
Q

What is problem-focused coping?

A

Reducing the stressors by working out a conflict or tackling a difficult project

270
Q

What is the risk of problem-focused coping?

A

Magnifying emotional distress, especially if trying to change something

271
Q

What is emotion-focused coping?

A

Reducing the emotional impact of stress by getting support, comfort, and perspective from others

272
Q

What is the risk of emotion-focused coping?

A

Ignoring the problem, especially when the stressor is perceived as something that cannot be changed

273
Q

What was found in an experiment regarding rats and perceived level of control?

A

The rat that could not control the shocks had the highest stress levels

274
Q

How can aerobic exercise improve health?

A

Triggers genes to produce proteins that guard against more than 20 chronic diseases and conditions, reducing risk of of heart disease, cognitive decline and dementia, and early death

275
Q

What is personality?

A

An individual’s characteristic patterns of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors

276
Q

What do psychodynamic/psychoanalytical theories focus on?

A

The inner and outer forces that interact to make us who we are

277
Q

How does behavior, as well as human emotion and personality, develop?

A

In a dynamic (interchanging, changing) interplay between conscious and unconscious processes

278
Q

How did Freud initially approach psychoanalysis?

A

Became aware that many powerful mental processes operate in the unconscious without our awareness

279
Q

What are the three models of psychoanalytical thought?

A
  1. Affect-trauma model
  2. Topographic, drive-theory model
  3. Structural model of id, ego, and superego
280
Q

What techniques did Freud use for revealing childhood trauma?

A

Creative techniques like free association, where he encouraged patients to speak whatever came to mind and then traced the traumatic roots of adult symptoms

281
Q

What did Freud discover about the Childhood Self?

A

It is overwhelmed by experiences that cannot be processed in an organized (verbal) way

282
Q

What did Freud suspect about his patients’ recollections of childhood trauma (especially sexual abuse)?

A

That these memories were wish-fulfillments, generated by libidinal drives

283
Q

What are the different psychoanalysis techniques?

A
  1. Free association
  2. Slips of the tongue
  3. Dreams
284
Q

How was personality believed to be developed?

A

From the efforts of our ego (rational self) to resolve tension between our id (biological drives) and superego (society’s rules and constraints)

285
Q

What did Freud believe the Unconscious to be?

A

A reservoir of thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories that are hidden from awareness because they feel unacceptable

286
Q

What part of the body does the id focus on?

A

Erogenous zones

287
Q

What did Freud believe about the id?

A

People are ashamed of these needs and can get fixated at one stage, never resolving how to manage that zone’s needs

288
Q

What are the stages of the developing personality?

A
  1. Start life with personality made up by the id, meeting basic needs
  2. As a toddler, the ego develops with thoughts, judgements, and memories
  3. Around 4-5, the superego develops as a conscience internalized from parents and society
289
Q

How does the ego work in the three-part system?

A

It is the “executive”, managing bodily needs and wishes in a socially acceptable way

290
Q

What is the Oedipus Complex?

A

The belief that men begin to develop unconscious sexual desires for their mother and a rivalry against their fathers

291
Q

What did Freud believe about anxiety?

A

We are anxious about our unacceptable wishes and impulses

292
Q

What was Freud’s definition of regression?

A

Retreating to a more infantile psychosexual stage, where some psychic energy remains fixated

293
Q

What was Freud’s definition of reaction formation?

A

Switching unacceptable impulses into their opposites

294
Q

What was Freud’s definition of projection?

A

Disguising one’s own threatening impulses by attributing them to others

295
Q

What was Freud’s definition of rationalization?

A

Offering self-justifying explanations in place of the real, more threatening unconscious reasons’s for one’s actions

296
Q

What was Freud’s definition of displacement?

A

Shifting sexual or aggressive impulses toward a more acceptable or less threatening object or person

297
Q

What was Freud’s definition of denial?

A

Refusing to believe or even perceive painful realities

298
Q

What is the common theme behind defense mechanisms?

A

They seek to prevent being conscious of unacceptable feelings

299
Q

How did Adler and Horney’s beliefs differ from Freud’s?

A

Believed that anxiety and personality are a function of social, not sexual tensions in childhood

300
Q

How did Jung’s beliefs differ from Freud’s?

A

Believed that we have a collective unconscious containing images from our species’ experiences

301
Q

What was Carl Jung’s focus in psychodynamic theories?

A

Universal themes in the unconscious as a source of creativity and insight

302
Q

What was Alfred Adler’s focus in psychodynamic theories?

A

The fight against feelings of inferiority as a theme at the core of personality

303
Q

What was Karen Horney’s focus in psychodynamic theories?

A

Criticized the Freudian portrayal of women as weak and subordinate to men and highlighted the need to feel secure in relationships

304
Q

What are projective tests?

A

A structured, systematic exposure to a standardized set of ambiguous prompts, designed to reveal inner dynamics

305
Q

What is the problem with projective tests?

A

Results don’t link well to traits (low validity) and different raters get different results (low reliability)

306
Q

What are the flaws in Freud’s scientific method?

A
  1. Unfalsifiability
  2. Unrepresentative sampling
  3. Biased observations
  4. Post facto explanations
307
Q

What are examples of processes operating at an unconscious level?

A
  1. Schemas guide perception
  2. Right hemisphere makes choices that left does not verbalize
  3. Conditioned responses and learned skills guide our actions without conscious recall
  4. Emotions get activated
  5. Stereotypes influence reactions
  6. Priming affects choices
308
Q

What “Third Force” did Maslow and Rogers offer?

A

The Humanistic Perspective

309
Q

What was the ultimate goal of Maslow’s hierarchy?

A

Self-actualization and fulfilling’s one’s potential

310
Q

What three conditions did Rogers believe facilitates growth?

A
  1. Genuineness
  2. Acceptance (Unconditional Positive Regard)
  3. Empathy
311
Q

In the humanistic perspective, what is the core of personality?

A

Self-concept (our sense of nature and identitiy)

312
Q

What did Rogers believe about “evil”?

A

Saw evil as a social phenomenon rather than an individualistic trait

313
Q

What is the humanistic response?

A

Self-acceptance is not the end; it allows us to move on to loving and caring for others

314
Q

What is a personality trait?

A

An enduring quality that makes a person tend to act a certain way

315
Q

What is a trait theory of personality?

A

That we are made up of a collection of traits and behavioral predispositions that can be identified and measured, with traits that differ from person to person

316
Q

What is factor analysis?

A

Identifying factors that tend to cluster together

317
Q

What did Hans and Sybil Eysenck find using factor analysis?

A

Many personality traits are a function of two basic dimensions along which we all vary

318
Q

How does the brain relate to traits?

A

Extraverts tend to have low levels of brain activity, making it hard to suppress impulses

319
Q

How do genes relate to traits?

A

Selective breeding of animals creates lifelong differences in traits, suggesting a genetic root

319
Q

How does the body relate to traits?

A

Shyness appears to be related to high autonomic system reactivity (easily triggered alarm system)

320
Q

What is the Personality Inventory?

A

A questionnaire assessing many personality traits by asking which behaviors and responses the person would choose

321
Q

What is an empirically derived test?

A

All test items have been selected because they predictably match the qualities being assessed

322
Q

What is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory?

A

Test designed to identify people with personality difficulties

323
Q

What is a T/F questionnaire?

A

Items are selected because they correlate with various traits, emotions, and attitudes

324
Q

What are the “Big Five” (CANOE) Personality Factors?

A
  1. Conscientiousness
  2. Agreeableness
  3. Neuroticism
  4. Openness
  5. Extraversion
325
Q

Do traits change throughout a lifespan?

A

No, however people tend to become more conscientious and less extraverted in adulthood

326
Q

How are traits genetically inherited?

A

Account for 50% of variation in most traits

327
Q

What was Albert Bandura’s definition of personality?

A

The result of an interaction that takes place between a person and their social context, involving how we think about ourselves and our situations

328
Q

What is a reciprocal influence?

A

A back-and-forth influence with no primary cause

329
Q

What is reciprocal determinism?

A

How personality, thoughts, and social environment all reinforce/cause each other

330
Q

What is a locus of control?

A

Perception of where the seat of power over our lives is located

331
Q

What is an internal locus of control?

A

We feel that we are in charge of ourselves and our circumstances

332
Q

What is an external locus of control?

A

We picture that a force outside of ourselves controls our fate

333
Q

What is the downside of too much internal locus?

A

We blame ourselves for bad events or believe we have the power to prevent them

334
Q

What is the downside of too much external locus?

A

We lose initiative and motivation while having more anxiety

335
Q

What is willpower?

A

The ability to control impulses and delay gratification

336
Q

What is the Marshmallow Study?

A

Kids who resisted the temptation to eat marshmallows later had more success in school and socially

337
Q

What is learned helplessness?

A

Declining to help oneself after repeated attempts to do so have failed

338
Q

What is a prediction in optimism/pessimism?

A

Expecting the best/worst

339
Q

What is a focus of attention in optimism/pessimism?

A

Focusing on what we have/don’t have

340
Q

What is an attribution of intent in optimism/pessimism?

A

Assuming that people meant to hurt us or that they were having a bad day

341
Q

What is valuation in optimism/pessimism?

A

Assuming that we or others are useless, or that we are lovable, valuable

342
Q

What is the potential for change in optimism/pessimism?

A

Assuming that bad things can’t be changed, or have hope

343
Q

Who developed Positive Psychology?

A

Martin Seligman

344
Q

What is Positive Psychology?

A

The scientific study of optimal human functioning

345
Q

What is the focus of Positive Psychology?

A

Building strengths, virtue, emotional well-being, resilience, optimism, and sense of meaning

346
Q

What are the three pillars of Positive Psychology?

A
  1. Emotions, (engagement)
  2. Character, (courage)
  3. Groups, Culture, Institutions
347
Q

What is the Spotlight Effect?

A

Assuming that people have attention focused on
you when they actually may not be noticing you (adolescent egocentrism)

348
Q

What is Self-Serving Bias?

A

The belief that we are above average

349
Q

What are Psychological Disorders?

A

Patterns of thoughts, feelings, or actions that are deviant, distressful, and dysfunctional

350
Q

When is a behavior or mental state considered “deviant” in psychology?

A

When it is different from what would be expected within a culture

351
Q

What are the emotional-cognitive symptoms of GAD (Generalized Anxiety Disorder)?

A

Worrying, having anxious feelings and thoughts about different subjects, and sometimes having free-floating anxiety

352
Q

What are the physical symptoms of GAD (Generalized Anxiety Disorder)?

A

Autonomic arousal, trembling, sweating, fidgeting, agitation, and sleep disruption

353
Q

What is a Panic Disorder?

A

Repeated and unexpected panic attacks, as well as a fear of the next attack, and a change in behavior to avoid them

354
Q

When is a specific phobia diagnosed?

A

When there is an uncontrollable, irrational, intense desire to avoid the same object or situation

355
Q

When is OCD (Obsessive Compulsive Disorder) diagnosed?

A

Distress: when you are deeply frustrated with not being able to control the behaviors
or
Dysfunction: when the time and mental energy spent on these thoughts and behaviors interfere with everyday life

356
Q

What is the psychodynamic/Freudian perspective of anxiety disorders?

A

Repressed impulses

357
Q

What is the classical conditioning perspective of anxiety disorders?

A

Overgeneralizing a conditioned response

358
Q

What is the operation conditioning perspective of anxiety disorders?

A

Rewarding avoidance

359
Q

What is the observational learning perspective of anxiety disorders?

A

Worrying like someone (ex. Mom)

360
Q

What is the cognitive appraisal perspective of anxiety disorders?

A

Uncertainty is danger

361
Q

What is the evolutionary perspective of anxiety disorders?

A

Surviving by avoiding danger

362
Q

What are the one or two symptoms that are required to diagnose MMD (major depressive disorder)?

A
  1. Depressed mood most of the day
  2. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in activities
363
Q

What are the symptoms of which three are required to diagnose MMD (major depressive disorder)?

A
  1. Significant increase or decrease in appetite or weight
  2. Insomnia, sleeping too much, or disrupted sleep
  3. Lethargy, or physical agitation
  4. Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day
  5. Worthlessness, or excessive/inappropriate guilt
  6. Daily problems in thinking, concentrating, and/or
    making decisions
  7. Recurring thoughts of death and suicide
364
Q

When is SAD (Seasonal Affective Disorder) diagnosed?

A

When there is a recurring seasonal pattern of depression, usually during winter’s short, dark, cold days

365
Q

What is mania in Bipolar Disorder?

A

A period of hyper-elevated mood that is euphoric, giddy, easily irritated, hyperactive, impulsive, overly optimistic, and even grandiose

366
Q

What is the diagnosis for children that replaced Bipolar Disorder?

A

Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)

367
Q

What happens to brain activity during depression and mania?

A

It decreases during depression and increases during mania

368
Q

What happens to brain structure during depression?

A

The frontal lobes shrink

369
Q

What happens to brain structure during bipolar disorder?

A

There are fewer axons

370
Q

What happens to brain cell communication (neurotransmitters) during depression?

A

Less norepinephrine and reduced serotonin

371
Q

What is schizophrenia?

A

The mind is split from reality and there is a split from one’s own thoughts so that they appear as hallucinations

372
Q

What is psychosis?

A

A mental split from reality and rationality

373
Q

What are the symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  1. Disorganized and/or delusional thinking
  2. Disturbed perceptions
  3. Inappropriate emotions and actions
374
Q

What are the positive (presence of problematic behaviors) symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  1. Hallucinations (illusory perceptions), especially auditory
  2. Delusions (illusory beliefs), especially persecutory
  3. Disorganized thought and nonsensical speech
  4. Bizarre behaviors
375
Q

What are the negative (absence of healthy behaviors) symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  1. Flat affect (no emotion showing in the face)
  2. Reduced social interaction
  3. Anhedonia (no feeling of enjoyment)
  4. Avolition (less motivation, initiative, focus on tasks)
  5. Alogia (speaking less)
  6. Catatonia (moving less)
376
Q

How does schizophrenia manifest in thinking and speaking?

A
  1. Disorganized speech
  2. Delusions
  3. Problem with selective attention
377
Q

What are the subtypes of schizophrenia?

A
  1. Paranoid
  2. Disorganized
  3. Catatonic
  4. Undifferentiated
  5. Residual
378
Q

What happens to the brain with schizophrenia?

A
  1. Too many dopamine/D4 receptors
  2. Poor coordination of neural firing in frontal lobes
  3. Thalamus fires during hallucinations
  4. General shrinking of many brain areas and connections
379
Q

What is psychotherapy?

A

An interactive experience with a trained professional,
working on understanding and changing behavior, thinking, emotions & relationships

380
Q

What is biomedical therapy?

A

The use of medications and other procedures acting directly on the body to reduce the symptoms of mental disorders

381
Q

What are the different schools of psychotherapy?

A
  1. Psychoanalysis, psychodynamic therapy
  2. Humanistic, client-centered therapy
  3. Behavior therapy, using conditioning
  4. Cognitive therapy, changing thoughts
382
Q
A