final exam Flashcards
1
Q
embalming is the chemical treatment of the dead body to reduce the presence and growth of microorganisms, to temporarily inhibit organic ___, and to restore and the dead human body to an acceptable physical appearance
A
decomposition
2
Q
reverence for the dead is the basic ___ axiom of the funeral service profession
A
ethical
3
Q
___ published the american way of death, a savage and relentless attack on the profession, causing a counterattack on mitford herself by america’s funeral directors
A
jessica mitford
4
Q
without a body present, an essential element of the ___ process is missing
A
grieving
5
Q
viewing and touching a dead human body is the ___ way for the bereaved to overcome any death denial feelings
A
best
6
Q
___ is a pioneer in the study of grief management
A
Erich Lindemann
7
Q
___ is a pioneer in psychology who saw human psychological life as an universal phenomenon whereby identification with what he termed the “collective unconscious” linked all humanity together
A
Carl Jung
8
Q
the work done at the mortuary affairs located at ___ houses the largest and only port mortuary under the US department of defense within the continental US
A
dover air force base
9
Q
in ancient egypt, the dead were embalmed according to ___ custom
A
religious
10
Q
“show me the manner in which a nation or community cares for its dead and I will measure with mathematical exactness the tender sympathies of its people, their respect for the laws of the land, and their loyalty to high ideas”
A
william evart gladstone
11
Q
the practice of embalming allows bereaved families to have ___ to make important decisions, deal with all that has happened, organize and participate in funerals
A
time
12
Q
all personnel information about a deceased (ex. the cause and manner of death and condition of the body) are strictly ___
A
confidential
13
Q
embalming must be authorized by the expressed or written permission ___ the performance of the procedure
A
before
14
Q
the embalmer is responsible for maintaining the proper ___ of the body throughout the various stages of preparation and until the time of final disposition
A
identification
15
Q
it is the ethical responsibility to maintain a clean and sanitary work environment, offer ___ to any person allowed access to the preparation room, restrict entry to unauthorized persons, and maintain coverage of sheltered human remains
A
personal protective equipment
16
Q
authorized photographs must be digitally and physically safeguarded to ensure confidentiality. it is wise and prudent for the embalmer to secure permission from the ___ prior to taking photographs
A
authorizing agent
17
Q
when handling human remains, funeral practitioners must ensure the dignity of the deceased, and ___ are strictly observed
A
universal precautions
18
Q
embalmers can be responsible for the transmission of recognized classical and/or opportunistic pathogens
A
all of the above (remains to embalmer, embalmer to family, family of deceased)
19
Q
preventing the transmission of recognized classical and/or opportunistic pathogens is a reasonable public health ___ on the part of the embalmer
A
expectation
20
Q
implementing minimum professional practice standards in embalming is necessary to provide a standard of ___ control and assurance in preserving and disinfecting human remains
A
quality
21
Q
it is important for the embalmer to conduct a ___ at the beginning, during, and following the preparation
A
case analysis
22
Q
today ___ allows the fallen military hero to be transported from a distant foreign field or waters to the hometown often with the possibility of the viewing of the remains
A
arterial embalming
23
Q
a process to promote and establish conditions that minimize or eliminate biohazards
A
sanitation
24
Q
- something that preserves or has the power of preserving; 2. an additive used to protect against decay, discoloration, or spoilage; 3. chemicals that inactivate saprophytic bacteria, render unsuitable for nutrition the media upon which such bacteria thrive, and that will arrest decomposition by altering enzymes and lysins of the body as well as converting the decomposable tissue to a formless susceptible to decomposition
A
preservative
25
obtaining food by absorbing dissolved organic material especially obtaining nourishment from the products of organic breakdown and decay
saprophytic
26
separation of compounds into simpler substances by the action of microbial and/or autolytic enzymes
decomposition
27
to prevent or retard an unwanted alteration of a physical state. slowing the onset of the changes of decomposition by the use of refrigeration, dry or wet ice, and the injection of chemicals or non formaldehyde containing fluids
stabilize
28
1. the decomposition of organic matter; 2. the typically anaerobic splitting of proteins of bacteria and fungi with the formation of foul smelling incompletely oxidized products; 3. decomposition of proteins by the action of enzymes from anaerobic bacteria
putrefaction
29
decomposition of proteins by enzymes of aerobic bacteria; to undergo destructive dissolution; implies a slow change from a state of soundness
decay
30
which of the following is an external factor of decomposition
strength and volume of embalming solutions
31
there are too many variables associated with embalming to provide ___ regarding the degree or length of time that preservation of the embalmed body can be maintained
assurances
32
embalming preservatives and germicides interact primarily with body proteins - creating ___ - that can no longer be easily broken down by bacterial or autolytic body enzymes
embalmed tissue
33
one of a class of complex nitrogenous compounds that are synthesized by all living organisms and yield amino acids when hydrolyzed
protein
34
arterial embalming is also called
vascular embalming
35
the solution in the embalming machine replaces the ___ in the vascular system
blood
36
direct treatment of the contents of three body cavities: thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic. applied in two phases: aspiration of the cavity contents and injection of undiluted cavity fluid
cavity embalming
37
the ___ is customarily selected as the primary source of blood drainage
internal jugular vein
38
preservation of tissues by direct contact. preservative chemicals are applied to a cotton compress or inlay that makes contact with the tissues, or the chemical applied directly to the skin surface. considered a supplemental embalming procedure
surface embalming
39
the ___ is the structural mediator through which the injected preservative chemicals are delivered to the receptive tissue sites
capillary
40
the contents of hollow organs must be removed to make room for the introduction of cavity fluid (process called ___), also removes fluids and gases form between the organs that have accumulated ante or post mortem
aspiration
41
a ___ is inserted through the abdominal wall near the umbilicus (belly button) to pierce the hollow organs to drain accumulated fluids and makes channels in the solid organs
trocar
42
the preservative solution flows through the arterial, capillary, venous routes similar to the ___ in the living body
blood circulation
43
know who you are embalming - identify all bodies throughout ___ phases of care
all
44
this form must be completed in lieu of an embalming report for each deceased human body brought into the care of a funeral or an embalming facility. a copy of the report must accompany the body being shipped or transported to another funeral facility
decedent care report
45
this form provides permission for embalming the body and indemnification of the funeral home
embalming authorization
46
results from a john hopkins university study concluded that funeral home employees who worked as embalmers had a greater exposure to ___ than funeral home employees who did not embalm bodies
tuberculosis
47
is a pathological bacterial staph infection that causes over 100k hospital infections a year. it can be found on the skin, in the nose, in blood and urine, and in exudates or fluid from an infected site. this infection is spread by direct physical contact or contact with contaminated objects
MRSA
48
___ is a fatal disease caused by a prion. the causative agent is very difficult, if impossible to destroy. the causative agent appears to be concentrated in cerebrospinal fluid
creutzfeldt jadob disease
49
exhaust ventilation should draw fumes ___ the embalmer
away from
50
embalmers should keep ___ closed on the embalming machine when not in use
rate of flow valve
51
used to provide personal and public health protection; should be examined and maintained or replaced on a regular basis; two primary areas of consideration are adequate ventilation and proper plumbing
engineering controls
52
in the US, the practice of embalming is regulated primarily by the ___. responsibilities include, but are not limited to, overseeing the cares and disposition of dead human remains; also the regulating and licensing of funeral homes, funeral directors and embalmers
individual states
53
since 1987, the US environmental protection agency has recognized formaldehyde as a potential ___ for tumors in the lung, nasopharynx, and nasal passages
carcinogen
54
four divisions of ___ directly affect funeral establishment: general rule, hazard communication standard, formaldehyde rule, and blood borne pathogen rule
OSHA
55
the funeral home must include on the ___ selected the statement "...you do not have to pay for embalming you did not approve if you selected arrangements such as direct cremation or immediate burial. if we charge for embalming, we will explain why below"
itemized statement of funeral goods and services
56
the funeral home must disclose on ___ in immediate conjunction with the price shown for embalming: "expect in certain special cases..."
general price list
57
the funeral home cannot represent that ___ requires that a deceased person be embalmed when such is not the case...nor can it fail to disclose that embalming is not required by law, except in certain special cases
state or local law
58
this OSHA rule directly applies to occupations and professions where employees are exposed to infectious agents. compliance with this rule is accomplished through applying universal precautions, engineering controls, and work practice controls
blood borne pathogen rule
59
___ must be made available to all employees who have occupational exposure to infectious agents
hetaptits b vaccine
60
rule of thumb for protective garments is that the embalmer should have no ___ skin
exposed
61
this OSHA rule requires that employers communicate to employees the dangers that exist in the workplace as a result of hazardous substances of materials. it also directs employers to train employees in the safe use and handling of hazardous substances or materials. under this rule, any chemical or a mixture of chemicals that expose employees to a health or physical risk are considered to be hazardous
hazard communication standard
62
studies have shown that exposure to ___ at certain levels will likely cause employees to experience eye, nose, throat, and upper respiratory tract irritation
formaldehyde
63
exposure that is time weighted over an established periods. it allows the exposure levels to be averaged generally over an 8 hour period
time weighted average
64
legal limits established by OSHA to which workers can be exposed continuously for a short period without damage or injury. these exposures should not be longer than 15 minutes and not repeated more than four times per workday
short term exposure limit
65
OSHA has a ___ standard that must be followed when respirators are put into use in the preparation room. employees must be fit tested to see if a respirator is appropriate for them
respirator
66
under the ___, employers must introduce employees, who have occupational exposure, to SDS. employers must identify methods by which employees will have access to the information
formaldehyde standard
67
an agent, usually chemical, applied either to inanimate objects/surfaces or living tissue for the purpose of destroying disease causing microbial agents, but usually not bacterial spores
germicide
68
a process that renders a substance free from all microorganisms
sterilization
69
an agent, usually chemical, applied to inanimate objects/surfaces for the purpose of destroying disease causing microbial agents, but usually not bacterial spores
disinfectants
70
examples of engineering controls for compliance with the formaldehyde standard are essentially the same as for biological hazards, the formaldehyde standards requires employee information and training before their being exposed to ___
hazardous substances
71
a blunt instrument used for tissue dissection and determining the location and elevation of arteries and veins. it has an "eye" in the hook portion of the instrument, which could be used for passing ligatures around a vessel
aneurysm needle
72
similar to an aneurysm needle but has a sharp pointed tip. the handle is designed to function as a separator
aneurysm hook
73
a curved cutting instrument that cuts from the inside outward. some embalmers prefer this type of instrument for opening arteries and veins. it also can be used for excision of tissues
bistoury knife
74
there are many varieties of this instrument and they can be used to clamp leaking vessels. they also can be used for packing orifices or handling contaminated bandage dressings. the ends of this instrument may be curved or straight, serrated or smooth, or plain or rat toothed
hemostat
75
this instrument is used to hold an incision open during blunt dissection and raising of vessels
incision spreader
76
a sharp cutting instrument used for making incisions. they can be used for making incisions. they can be purchased with a permanent blade, or the handles can be purchased and disposable blades used
scalpel
77
used to keep vessels elevated above the incision. can be made of hard rubber, bone, or metal
separator
78
an instrument used for grasping and holding tissues. the limbs may be straight, curved, or angular. the tips of forceps may be serrated, smooth, or rat toothed
spring forceps
79
used to close autopsy incision as well as incision made to raise vessels for injection
suture needles
80
temporarily holds skin flaps together so the embalmer can suture an incision
tissue gathering forceps
81
carry blood away from the heart. elastic, deep, and well protected. cream color. feels like a large rubber band. stand open when incised
arteries
82
carry blood toward the heart. they are blue in color and may be superficial. collapse when incised
veins
83
a small branch of an artery leading into capillaries
arterioles
84
middle layer of an artery composed of smooth muscle; functions in dilation and constriction of blood vessels
tunica media
85
the heart is surrounded by a sac called ___
pericardium
86
the first branch off the arch of the aorta is the ___
brachiocephalic artery
87
a large artery that carries oxygenated blood to the head, face, and neck; left and right arteries; the right artery bifurcates (divides) into two divisions (internal and external)
common carotid artery
88
a major artery that supplies oxygenated blood to the head, neck, chest, and arms; located blow the clavicle (collarbone) on both sides of the neck; left and right arteries; they receive blood from the aortic arch
subclavian artery
89
a large blood vessel that supplies to the lower boy; carries oxygenated blood to the lower limbs of the limb; passes through the thigh and divides into a deep branch and a superficial branch near the knee
femoral artery
90
a blood vessel of the lower limb that carries oxygenated blood to the dorsal surface of the foot; sits on the top of the foot, running over the tarsal bones then down towards the sole of the foot
dorsalis pedis artery
91
admittance to the preparation room is by___. the prep room is kept strictly private during body preparation
authorization
92
which is an example of someone who would not have a viable reason to be in a prep room
members of the community and neighborhood
93
prep room signage must be in compliance with the applicable laws and regulations; strictly private area and sings with required ___ warnings
OSHA
94
the prep room must be ___ and should not be located so that it becomes a passage to other building areas
secured
95
in order to maintain the dignity of the remains, the deceased must be properly ___, and provided a modesty cloth for genital areas
identified
96
embalmers and others working in the prep room must maintain the highest ethical and moral standards of care and ___
confidentiality
97
the prep room must be properly maintained to create a clean and healthy environment. it is important to perform and ___ regular maintenance and cleaning of the prep room
document
98
maintain an ___ supply of chemicals and associated sundry items necessary for embalming and decedent care, restorative, and cosmetology treatments
adequate
99
maintain an adequate number of tables and positioning devices per case ___
volume
100
___ decedent care activities for every decedent in the care of the facility through the use of embalming decedent care reports and other applicable forms
document
101
OSHA prescribes in detail the physical and ___ requirements that employers must meet to provide a safe workplace. these requirements are enforced through workplace inspections, warnings, and citations
environmental
102
OSHA right to know laws provide workers with direct access to information about the health risks of ___ used in the workplace
chemicals
103
posting requirements for this information is ___
mandatory
104
new construction and facility remodeling requires a ___
building permit
105
used for decedent care activity purposes other than arterial embalming; also called a holding or staging area
dressing room
106
the ___ can be the most logical and least costly location of a prep room when space allows
first floor
107
the ___ of a facility is often where space is most readily available. however, ceiling height can be limited in this area due to overhead plumbing lines and ducts for heating, ventilation, cooling systems
basement
108
_ coatings provide a seamless and nonslip surface that is easy to clean and disinfect. they can be used over cement, tile, wood, and other types of flooring
epoxy
109
___ tile is also seamless, resilient to cleaning products, and comfortable to stand on for hours at a time
vinyl
110
when selecting windows for a prep room, ___ must always be ensured in the prep room. window glass cannot be transparent and allow visibility into a prep area
privacy
111
when selecting doors for a prep room, remember that they must be secured to deny access to unauthorized persons. ___ locking devices require only a code; the code can be readily changed when the need arises
touch pad
112
wall material must be wipeable and readily ___ upon contamination or soiling
disinfected
113
OSHA required emergency safety device providing a steady stream of water for flushing the eye
eyewash station
114
device that uses a motor to create a suction for the purpose of aspiration
electric aspirator
115
a one way valve installed in the water supply line that services the facility to address the reverse flow of liquids within a system caused by siphonage and pressure variables
backflow preventor
116
multipurpose instrument (size can vary) used in the embalming process (ex. as a drainage instrument)
angular spring forceps
117
used to inject embalming fluid solution into the blood vascular system
arterial tube
118
has many openings so as to be "non clogging". it is used to aspirate blood and arterial fluid from the cavities of autopsied bodies
autopsy aspirator
119
screws onto the cavity fluid bottles. when the device is inverted, cavity fluid flows through the trocar into the body cavities
cavity fluid injector
120
used to expand a vein to help guide a drain tube or drainage device into a vein for drainage
grooved director
121
specialized equipment connected to the water supply; creates suction for trocar aspiration of the bodies cavities: creates a vacuum when water is run through the mechanism
hydro aspirator
122
designed for hypodermic treatments. it is not used for aspiration but rather for injection
hypo valve trocar
123
used to attach the delivery hose from the injection device to the arterial tube. can be used to maintain and stop the flow of fluid into the arterial tube
stopcock
124
long hollow needle used to aspirate and inject body cavities and hypodermic injection treatments
trocar
125
developed for the embalming of autopsied bodies. it allows the embalmer to embalm both legs or arms or sides of the head at the same time
y tube
126
which of the following is not a postmortem physical change
rigor mortis
127
temporary rise in body temperature after death
postmortem caloricity
128
progression is realized once the body loses ability to sustain physiological and metabolic activity
somatic death
129
occurs when spontaneous respiration and heartbeat irreversibly cease
clinical death
130
"grave wax"; the final product of fat decomposition
adipocere
131
stiffening of the muscles after death; creates extravascular resistance, body positioning and feature setting challenge for the embalmers; tissue distention during arterial injection; increases preservative demand; pH changes affect chemical reaction of embalming solution
rigor mortis
132
postmortem evacuation of any substance from an external orifice of the body as a result of pressure
purge
133
thin, smooth, flat polyethylene boards, are strong, non absorbent, and easily cleaned; placed under the body to move the body
body transfer board
134
sloughing off of the epidermis, wherein there is a separation of the epidermis from the underlying dermis
desquamation
135
anaerobic, saprophytic, spore forming bacterium, responsible for tissue gas; referred to as a gas bacillus
clostridium perfringens
136
a gurgling, or rattling in the throat caused by the accumulation of mucous and exacerbated by loss of the cough reflex
death rattle
137
embalming machine that uses motorized force; pulsating and non pulsating types available
centrifugal pump
138
the irreversible phase of somatic death and represents the cessation of simple body processes. the organs in the body no longer function
biological death
139
which of the following is not a postmortem chemical change
livor mortis
140
extravascular discoloration, not cleared during arterial injection alone; gray discoloration when reacting with embalming chemicals; sign of delay between death and embalming
postmortem stain
141
used to insert a "barb" into the mandible and maxilla to hold the lower jaw in a closed position
needle injector
142
the antemortem interval is known as the ___ as the person is said to be actively dying during this stage
agonal period
143
used to draw excess swelling and to displace moisture under the skin
electric spatula
144
holds skull bones in place after autopsy
calvarium clamp
145
the process during which individual cells die; may take a matter of hours depending on numerous variables
postmortem cellular death
146
presents as reflexive twitching of the muscles, marking the final efforts to sustain life
death struggle
147
brain death occurs in a sequence of events that are a function of time without oxygen. the first part of the brain to die, usually in 5 to 6 minutes, is the ___
cerebral cortex
148
cooling of the body to the temperature of the surrounding environment
algor mortis
149
gravitation of blood and body fluids to dependent areas of the body
hypostasis
150
the ability of the cells to draw moisture from the surrounding area into themselves
imbibition
151
a supplemental fluid that may be injected before the injection of preservative arterial solution in order to expand the vascular system, promote drainage, and prepare the tissues for reception of preservative arterial solution
pre injection fluid
152
solution having a lesser concentration of dissolved solute than the solution with which it is compared
hypotonic solution
153
chemicals found in embalming arterial formulations having the capability of displacing an unpleasant odor or of altering an unpleasant odor so that it is converted to more pleasant one
perfuming agents
154
concentrated embalming chemical injected into the cavities of the body following the aspiration of the body; can also be used in hypodermic and surface embalming
cavity fluid
155
concentrated arterial fluid is added to water to form the arterial solution
primary solution
156
a colorless gas at ambient temperature; has a strong, irritating odor and is very soluble in water; a naturally occurring substance; produced by every living organism and is essential to the functioning of the human body
formaldehyde
157
chemical compounds that change a protein from a state in which it is easily decomposed to a state in which it will endure and not undergo putrefaction, for a temporary period of time
preservatives
158
amount of preservative (formaldehyde) required to effectively preserve and disinfect remains. this amount depends on the condition of the tissues as determined through analysis
preservative demand
159
an agent, usually chemical, applied to inanimate objects and/or surfaces to destroy disease causing microbial agents, but usually not bacterial spores
disinfectants
160
weakening of the strength of the arterial solution by vascular and interstitial fluids
secondary dilution
161
the embalmer must make final determination as to type of arterial fluids to use, strength of the arterial solution, and volume of arterial solution to inject. the strength and volume of the initial arterial solution is determined by the
pre embalming analysis
162
coloring agents added to embalming fluids to produce an internal cosmetic effect within the tissues of the decedent
active dyes
163
primarily used to supplement and enhance the action of vascular (arterial) solutions; designed to enhance the distribution and effectiveness of the arterial solution
co injection fluid
164
control the rate of action of the main preservative chemicals of embalming formulations. many preservatives when used alone exert adverse effects that interfere with good embalming results. it is necessary to control the rate of fixation so that the firming action is delayed long enough to permit thorough saturation of tissue cells; delay the hardening effect of the aldehyde, and get more uniform distribution of the coloring or staining agent
modifying agents
165
liquid that serves as a solvent for embalming fluids. must be a solvent or mixture of solvents that keep the active substances in a stable and uniform state during transport through the circulatory system to all parts of the body - to maintain the proper density and osmotic activity, the proper chemical and physical balance of the formulations
vehicle
166
chemical that increases the capability of embalmed tissue to retain moisture. they wrap around the formaldehyde molecule thus keeping the formaldehyde from making the direct contact with albuminous material (class of water soluble proteins) until the tissues are thoroughly saturated with the preservative solution
humectants
167
chemicals that reduce the molecular cohesion and surface tension of a liquid so it can low through smaller apertures
surfactants
168
aqueous solution containing 37% formaldehyde gas by mass in water (40% by volume), or in water and methyl alcohol
formalin
169
a polymer of formaldehyde; a white powdery solid containing 85% to 99% formaldehyde. this form is used where powdered preparations are involved, such as hardening compounds or used for "dusting" the body walls and viscera
paraformaldehyde
170
has many advantages to offer in embalming, the most important being relative imperviousness of reaction rate to pH changes, particularly in the alkaline range; will react with protein at higher pHs that would essentially render formaldehyde inactive
glutaraldehyde
171
also known as carbolic acid or hydroxybenzene; classified as a preservative as well as a germicide; it was one of the most found components of both arterial and cavity fluids in the early days of the fluid industry
phenol
172
employed in embalming fluids to stabilize the acid base balance of the fluid, also maintain the balance of the pH in the tissues when the embalming fluids react with the cellular proteins
buffers
173
solution having a greater concentration of dissolved solute than the solution with which it is compared
hypertonic solution
174
an important component of embalming fluids, especially arterial fluids because they are used to maintain blood in a liquid state and making it easy to remove from the circulatory system. such chemicals inhibit or stop the clotting of blood
anticoagulants
175
lend color to the fluid in the bottle
inactive dye
176
designates the boundaries of arteries; the point of origin and the point of termination of the artery are given in relation to adjacent structures
anatomical limit
177
minute petechial hemorrhages caused by the rupture of minute vessels as blood settles into the dependent areas of organs and tissues; it is accompanied by livor mortis; postmortem discoloration; most common in asphyxia or slow deaths
tardieu spots
178
___ of the body, or giving by will after death, is considered a will and is legally binding
bequeathal
179
during the anatomical donation embalming, ___ is not performed; the internal organs must remain intact and undamaged for anatomical study
cavity aspiration
180
which one of these is not an expert test of death
pulse
181
which one of these is not an inexpert test of death
electrocardiogram
182
begins at the right sternoclavicular articulation and extends to the lateral border of the first rib; its branches are vertebral artery, internal thoracic artery, and inferior thyroid
right subclavian
183
to maintain reliable consistency in references to orientation, standard ___ is adopted as the position of reference for all anatomical nomenclature
anatomical position
184
the apex of the axilla is an opening called the cervicoaxillary canal, which transmits structures from the neck into the arm sand is bounded by three body structures: the clavicle, the ___, and the first rib
scapula
185
a descriptive reference for locating arteries and veins by means of identifying anatomical structures that are known
anatomical guide
186
the point or place where something begins, arises, or is derived
origin
187
a line drawn or visualized on the surface of the skin to represent the approximate location of a deeper lying structure
linear guide
188
attached to the mastoid process of the temporal bone and the manubrium of the sternum, the ___ muscle courses obliquely along the side of the neck
sternocleidomastoid
189
a muscle of facial expression; significance to the embalmer is that both the common carotid artery and internal jugular vein lie beneath the lane of this muscle
platysma
190
the lower portion of the carotid sheath is crossed anteriorly by the intermediate tendon of the ___ muscle; which is located in the front of the neck, and consists of paired muscle bellies joined by an intermediate tendon
omohyoid
191
to divide into one or more subdivisions; can also refer to a lateral extension or subdivision extending form the main part
branch
192
prominent anatomical features of the chest and neck regions serve as ___ to visualize the location of the common carotid artery and internal jugular vein (ex. clavicle, earlobe, sternum)
landmarks
193
nearer to the center (trunk of the body) or to the point of attachment to the body
proximal
194
three lines and their anatomical parallels serve as linear guides to describe the anterior triangle (also referred to as ___) of the neck
anterior cervical triangle
195
sites located away from the center (trunk of the body)
distal
196
the anatomical borders of the femoral triangle include the inguinal ligament superiorly, the adductor longus muscle medially, and ___ muscle laterally
sartorius
197
the external iliac artery extends to a point under the center of the inguinal ligament and becomes the ___ as it continues below the inguinal ligament
femoral artery
198
originates at the left ventricle; as its beginning, the aortic semi lunar valve should close, thus creating the pathway for arterial solution distribution
ascending aorta
199
center of arterial solution distribution; its branches are brachiocephalic artery, left common artery, and left subclavian artery
arch of the aorta
200
encloses the muscle of the thigh; the great saphenous vein lies on its surface (and often mistaken for the femoral vein)
fascia lata
201
a proper technique for raising vessels is make proper ___
incisions
202
the anatomical limit of the radial artery is from the ___ to the palm of the hand
antecubital fossa
203
the linear guide for the ulnar artery is on the surface of the ___ from the center of the antecubital fossa to a point in the 4th and 5th fingers
forearm
204
the anatomical guide for the brachial artery lies posterior to the ___ border of the belly of the biceps brachii muscle
medial
205
the accompanying vein for the ___ is the innominate vein or brachiocephalic vein
ulnar artery
206
the anatomical guide for the external iliac artery is the medial border of the
psoas muscle
207
the linear guide for the femoral artery is on the surface of the thigh from the center of the inguinal ligament to the center point on the ___ of the femur
medial condyle
208
the anatomical guide for the femoral artery is through the center of the femoral triangle bounded by the base inguinal ligament, ___ by the sartorius muscle and medially by the adductor longus muscle
laterally
209
the femoral vein is ___ to the femoral artery
medial and deep
210
the linear guide for the ___ is from the center of the anterior surface of the ankle joint to a point between he first big toe and adjacent second tow
dorsalis pedis artery
211
the linear guide for the ___ is a line drawn from sternoclavicular articulation to anterior surface of the lobe of the ear
common carotid artery
212
the anatomical guide for the common carotid artery is along the media (inner) border fo the ___ muscle
sternocleidomastoid
213
the linear guide for the subclavian artery is a line drawn from the sternoclavicular junction to the lateral border of the ___
first rib
214
a proper technique for raising vessels is clean off vessels by blunt dissection and ___ vessels loosely
ligate
215
the anatomical limits of the axillary artery beings at the lateral border of the first rib and extends to the inferior border of the tendon of the ___
teres major muscle
216
the anatomical guide for the ___ is just behind the medial boarder of the coracobrachialis muscle
axillary artery
217
the linear guide for the ___ is from the center of the base of the axillary space to center of the forearm just below bend of elbow (cubital fossa)
brachial artery
218
the linear guide for the ___ is on the surface of the forearm from center of the antecubital fossa to center of base of the index finger
radial artery
219
the anatomical limits of the femoral artery begins at a point behind the center of the inguinal ligament and terminates at the opening of the
adductor magnus muscle
220
the anatomical limit for the ___ begins at the level of sternoclavicular articulation and extends to level of superior border of thyroid cartilage
right common carotid
221
the anatomical guide for the ___ is the clavicle
subclavian artery
222
the anatomical limit for the brachial artery begins at the inferior border of tendon of the ___ and extends to a point inferior to the antecubital fossa
teres major muscle
223
the linear guide for the axillary artery is through the center of the base of the axillary space and parallel to the long axis of the ___ when abducted
upper extremity
224
the anatomical guide for the ulnar artery is it lies ___ to the tendon of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle
laterally
225
a proper technique for raising vessels is to find vessels by use of anatomical guides, and relative position of
veins
226
which of the following is not a factor to consider when selecting vessels to use for arterial embalming
race
227
when embalming a body ravished by the effects of disease, the embalmer should ___ the diseased tissue first
inject toward
228
solid structures lacking lumen; when incised, the edges fray similar to the ends of a cut rope
nerve
229
the inferior vena cava is the largest vein in the body located to the right of the aorta at the posterior abdominal wall; primarily used for ___ in the cases of partial autopsy or organ donation
blood drainage
230
embalming of a body area or region by the injection of an embalming solution into an artery that in life supplied blood to that particular body region
sectional embalming
231
a six point injection is a multipoint injection in the autopsied or unautopsied body in which six areas of the body are ___ injected
separately
232
the number one factor in determining which vessels to use for arterial embalming is to select the artery and vein you believe will provide the best results based on the ___
pre embalming analysis
233
the most common incision methods are the ___ and ___
transverse and diagonal
234
tiny blood vessels that supply the large vessel walls with nutrients
vasa vasorum
235
the facial artery is usually reserved for injection when the ___ is either damaged or unavailable after autopsy, donation, or trauma
common carotid artery
236
___ drainage is a historic drainage first practiced when embalming was done at the residence of the deceased
direct heart
237
vascular injection that utilizes two or more injection sites
multipoint injection
238
embalmers need to know the different religious rules pertaining to the embalming operation because, typically, ___ do not allow embalming
orthodox jews
239
injection from one site and drainage from a separate site
split injection
240
the opening or inside space of a vessel or other tubular structure
lumen
241
which artery is the most common artery used for arterial injection
common carotid artery
242
the weight of the deceased is a factor to consider when selecting vessels to use for arterial embalming due to ___ distribution
adipose
243
determining which way any arterial clotting will travel or how much arteriosclerosis is present in the vessels are examples of ___ factors that embalmers consider when selecting vessels to use for arterial embalming
accessibility
244
the acronym ANV is helpful to describe the relationship of the common carotid artery, vagus nerve, and internal jugular vein; from ___ to ___ , artery, nerve, and vein
medial to lateral
245
which vein is the most common vein used for drainage
internal jugular vein
246
the ___ of the heart is the center for venous drainage in the dead human body
right atrium
247
one point injection is vascular ___ and drainage from one location
injection
248
caution should be used when making the incision for the ___ on deceased females because their clothing may be looser or lower cut styles
common carotid artery
249
the strap line incision is made approximately two inches ___ to the base of the neck on the line where the shoulder strap of a sleeveless garment crosses the shoulder
lateral
250
when embalming infants, embalmers should use the abdominal aorta for injection and the ___ for drainage if possible
internal vena cava
251
the ___ includes all analytical observations of the deceased human body before, during, and after embalming
embalming analysis
252
postmortem body conditions, embalming treatments, and an post embalming corrective treatments are documented on the ___ report
embalming and decedent care
253
in the mid 1950s, the method of body typing was introduced and published by the dodge chemical company where dead bodies were classified by the conditions exhibited rather than by the specific ___
cause of death
254
body typing was based on a __ that the embalmer would follow for treatment of each different classification
recipe method
255
due to the extensive development and use of new medications in the 1960s, the embalmer had to consider the influence of ___ medications upon postmortem conditions and factors due to the extensive development of medications in the in 1960s
therapeutic
256
embalmers consider the ___, or sum total of factors that are specific to each decedent
aggregate
257
embalming analysis entails observation and ___ of postmortem conditions and treatment results
evaluation
258
shared information within the workplace is conducted on a ___ basis
need to know
259
in making an embalming analysis, one important guideline that should always be considered is each body should be prepared as if viewing and final disposition will be ___
delayed
260
the cleaning and disinfection of the body, instruments, and the embalming room following embalming of the body
terminal disinfection
261
during this phase treatments must be considered for antemortem conditions produced by trauma or surgery; postmortem events such as refrigerations, autopsy, organ and tissue recovery; and the postmortem changes that have occurred in the body
pre embalming analysis
262
during the process of ___, the embalmer continue to check for adverse changes on a periodic basis; such as tissue gas, odor, purge, color change, and skin slip
post embalming monitoring
263
when the embalmed body has been received from another funeral home, the following treatments may be necessary
all of the above (re injection, supplemental treatments, cavity re aspiration/re injection)
264
feature dehydration may require ___ injection of tissue builder, cosmetics, and waxes
hypodermic
265
if ___ happens during or post embalming, this requires immediate correction; may require aspiration from the throat and nasal passages using a nasal tube aspirator; clothing may be soiled
purge
266
___ is the crackling sensation produced by gases trapped in the tissues
crepitation
267
the source of ___ may be edema or possibly an embalming incision that was not tightly sutured
leakage
268
if purge is arterial solution and there is no ___, it can be assumed there is a major rupture in the vascular system
drainage
269
_ may be caused by the effect of drugs on the liver or red blood cells, obstruction of the bile duct, hepatitis, cancer of the liver, and hemolysis of red blood cells
jaundice
270
it is important that the embalmer have an understanding of the possible effects of drugs and of the fact that embalming challenges often stem from long term
drug therapy
271
chemotherapeutic agents are toxic. ___ changes occur when they are used an no matter which drug is administered
cellular
272
to stimulate the flow of arterial solution into areas not receiving solution, the embalmer could close off the drainage to increase the ___ pressure
intravascular
273
if the body as a whole has not received sufficient arterial solution of sufficient strength, a ___ fluid can be injected or added to the remaining arterial solution to boost the preservative qualities of the solution
high index arterial
274
in making an embalming analysis, one important guideline that should always be considered is to prepare each body as if an ___ or contagious disease is present
infectious
275
during an embalming analysis, the correct embalming treatment is dictated by the condition present in the body, not solely by the ___
cause of death
276
horseshoe shaped bone forming the inferior jaw
mandible
277
effective embalming is achieved when these functions are successful: distribution, diffusion, and ___ of embalming chemicals
retention
278
carefully check the dead body for fly eggs or maggots, especially in the months of summer or in warm climates, because these eggs can develop into maggots in ___
24 hours
279
elevate the chest and head to prevent blood that remains in the heart after embalming from gravitating into the neck and facial tissues to avoid
formaldehyde gray
280
a pneumatic collar, splint or elastic bandage are examples of a _ embalmers can use to address issues (ex. edema, secure a limb)
manual aid
281
paired bone with several processes that form the skeletal base of most of the superior face, roof of the mouth, sides of the nasal cavity, and floor of the orbit
maxilla
282
conditions such as stroke and arthritis can contribute to positioning challenges of the ___
extremities
283
___ closure raises and holds the lower jaw into position
mouth
284
an alternative for ___ is the method of mouth closure using the needle injector
suturing
285
if facial swelling form edema is present, elevation of the head and the shoulders is important for ___ of the edema from the tissues of the face and the neck
drainage
286
during body transfer, best practice is to ___ rather than ___ the body
pull rather than push
287
when household bleach is used in the solution for washing the body, it is important that the chemical be washed away with water before contact is made with ___
formaldehyde
288
best practice for embalming authorizations is to obtain ___ documentation of the authorization for permanent record
written
289
when performing a musculature suture, beset practice is to use a ___ instead of fingers to grasp and pull the needle from the nostrils
hemostat
290
implantable devices containing ___ must be removed prior to cremation
batteries
291
a compound ___ poses risk of injury to the embalmer and must be restored if they present in a viewable area of the dead body
fracture
292
generalized edema and tortuous veins visible in the superficial abdominal tissues is indicative of ___
ascites
293
the ___ is the thin tissue that anchors the tongue to the floor of the mouth
frenulum
294
a ___ is a jagged tear in the skin that should be cleaned of any blood or debris during the pre embalming period
laceration
295
projection of the jaw or jaws that may cause problems with mouth closure and alignment of the teeth
prognathism
296
after the mouth is closed and the natural line of closure is established, the mouth is ___ in curvature from corner to corner
convex
297
a common example of nectrotic and infected tissue is the ___, also called a pressure sore or bedsore
decubitus ulcer
298
lip closure brings and holds the ___ of the lips
mucous membranes
299
disinfection of the body should also include the destruction of body ___ or scabies
lice
300
at the conclusion of the aspiration phase of cavity embalming, an ___ such as a trocar can be passed under the clavicles to channel the neck tissues; thus creating an exit path for edema
operative aid
301
if the deceased is dehydrated and has not been dead very long, use a mild solution; add ___ in the last injection
humectant
302
if the deceased is emaciated with edema, use ___ embalming to separately treat affected areas
sectional
303
if there is extensive livor in the deceased's facial areas, clear discolorations with a mild to moderate solution; step up strength to set to desired ___
firmness
304
if deceased received an eye enucleation, use a solution stronger than normal solution; avoid ___
pre injection
305
when the body is frozen, use a strong solution; use ___ for tracer
dye
306
if deceased has generalized edema, start with a solution a little above normal strength; if ___ is poor then increase to a very strong solution
circulation
307
when an embalmer encounters arteriosclerosis in a common carotid artery, sectional and hypodermic injection is required, as well as higher and/or pulsating ___
pressure
308
if the deceased has been autopsied, dead for more than 12 hours, and refrigerated, __ can help achieve circulation
restricted drainage
309
if the deceased has died from a contagious disease, use a solution a little stronger than normal; avoid personal contact with "first" ___
drainage
310
if the deceased's death was caused by second degree burns, begin with a strong solution; death will be related to ___
uremia
311
when decomposition is evident on the deceased, use strong coordinated solution, _ for tracer
dye
312
if the deceased has jaundice green, it cannot be cleared but plenty of dye can be used to counterstain; solution strength should be based on ___
preservative demand
313
if the deceased has localized edema, treat general embalming based on the condition of the ___
tissues
314
if the deceased has localized gangrene, ischemia, and/or diabetes, use strong solutions when circulation problems are anticipated; ___ complications can exist in this case
bacterial
315
if the deceased is obese, slightly stronger solution than normal solution; the second vessel choice to use is the ___
external iliac artery
316
slows onset of rigor and decomposition
algor mortis
317
increases the viscosity of the blood; sludge forms; when severe, may retard further decomposition
dehydration
318
responsible of livor mortis and eventual postmortem stain; increases tissue moisture in dependent tissue areas
hypostasis
319
keeps capillaries expanded; can work as an aid to distribution; intravascular discoloration; can be cleared
livor mortis
320
sludge is created; intravascular resistance; blood removal becomes difficult; distribution can be poor
increase in blood viscosity
321
positioning the body is difficult; features may b hard to pose; body pH may not be conductive for good fluid reactions
rigor mortis
322
color changes; odor present; body purges; gases; skin slip; rapid swelling in affected tissue areas
decomposition
323
interferes with embalming fluid protein reactions; dyes can appear blotchy
shift in the body pH
324
extravascular; cannot be removed; may be bleached or concealed; reddish tissues falsely indicate the presence of embalming fluid dyes
postmortem stain
325
triggers the rigor and decomposition cycles
postmortem caloricity
326
low index, medium index, high index
arterial fluid strength
327
right common carotid, right femoral, right axillary
artery for primary injection
328
not changed during injection; being slow then increase
change of pressure
329
drain tube, angular spring forceps, trocar
drainage instruments
330
hydroaspriator, electric aspirator
method of aspiration
331
gravity injector, embalming machine
method of cavity fluid injector
332
cotton, mouth former, kapok, mastic compound
method of denture replacement
333
continuous, intermittent, alternate
method of drainage
334
needle injector, musculature suture, mandibular suture, dental tie
method of mouth closure
335
trocar button, sutured
method of trocar closure
336
low (2-10psi), medium (10-20psi), high (20 or more psi): psi = pounds per square inch
pressure for injection
337
slow (5-10opm), medium (10-20opm), fast (more than 15 opm): opm = ounces per minute
rate of flow
338
clearing of livor, tissue firming, presence of dye
signs of fluid distribution
339
local arterial injection, surface compress, hypodermic injection
treatment for lack of fluid
340
right internal jugular, right femoral, right axillary, right atrium of the heart
vein for drainage
341
___ results form penetration or tearing into the pleural cavities or lung tissue
subcutaneous emphysema
342
subcutaneous emphysema is a common condition after blunt force trauma to the chest and the administration of
cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
343
sources of decomposition are the ___ and bacterial breakdown of body tissues
autolytic
344
during decomposition, there may be odor, skin slip, color changes and ___
purging
345
if a deceased has true tissue gas, spore forming bacteria may be passed by contaminated cutting ___ to other bodies
instruments
346
a dead body with true tissue gas has a very strong odor of ___; skin slip
decomposition
347
treatment of ___, which has a foul odor and infection, will require a strong arterial solution and local hypodermic injection of cavity chemical
gas gangrene
348
the source of gas gangrene is anaerobic bacteria and ___
clostridium perfringens
349
the first evidence of a dead body containing air from embalming apparatus is in ___
eyelids
350
if distension is caused by air from embalming apparatus, ___ after arterial injection to release gases
channel
