final exam Flashcards

1
Q

embalming is the chemical treatment of the dead body to reduce the presence and growth of microorganisms, to temporarily inhibit organic ___, and to restore and the dead human body to an acceptable physical appearance

A

decomposition

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2
Q

reverence for the dead is the basic ___ axiom of the funeral service profession

A

ethical

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3
Q

___ published the american way of death, a savage and relentless attack on the profession, causing a counterattack on mitford herself by america’s funeral directors

A

jessica mitford

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4
Q

without a body present, an essential element of the ___ process is missing

A

grieving

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5
Q

viewing and touching a dead human body is the ___ way for the bereaved to overcome any death denial feelings

A

best

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6
Q

___ is a pioneer in the study of grief management

A

Erich Lindemann

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7
Q

___ is a pioneer in psychology who saw human psychological life as an universal phenomenon whereby identification with what he termed the “collective unconscious” linked all humanity together

A

Carl Jung

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8
Q

the work done at the mortuary affairs located at ___ houses the largest and only port mortuary under the US department of defense within the continental US

A

dover air force base

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9
Q

in ancient egypt, the dead were embalmed according to ___ custom

A

religious

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10
Q

“show me the manner in which a nation or community cares for its dead and I will measure with mathematical exactness the tender sympathies of its people, their respect for the laws of the land, and their loyalty to high ideas”

A

william evart gladstone

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11
Q

the practice of embalming allows bereaved families to have ___ to make important decisions, deal with all that has happened, organize and participate in funerals

A

time

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12
Q

all personnel information about a deceased (ex. the cause and manner of death and condition of the body) are strictly ___

A

confidential

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13
Q

embalming must be authorized by the expressed or written permission ___ the performance of the procedure

A

before

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14
Q

the embalmer is responsible for maintaining the proper ___ of the body throughout the various stages of preparation and until the time of final disposition

A

identification

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15
Q

it is the ethical responsibility to maintain a clean and sanitary work environment, offer ___ to any person allowed access to the preparation room, restrict entry to unauthorized persons, and maintain coverage of sheltered human remains

A

personal protective equipment

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16
Q

authorized photographs must be digitally and physically safeguarded to ensure confidentiality. it is wise and prudent for the embalmer to secure permission from the ___ prior to taking photographs

A

authorizing agent

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17
Q

when handling human remains, funeral practitioners must ensure the dignity of the deceased, and ___ are strictly observed

A

universal precautions

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18
Q

embalmers can be responsible for the transmission of recognized classical and/or opportunistic pathogens

A

all of the above (remains to embalmer, embalmer to family, family of deceased)

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19
Q

preventing the transmission of recognized classical and/or opportunistic pathogens is a reasonable public health ___ on the part of the embalmer

A

expectation

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20
Q

implementing minimum professional practice standards in embalming is necessary to provide a standard of ___ control and assurance in preserving and disinfecting human remains

A

quality

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21
Q

it is important for the embalmer to conduct a ___ at the beginning, during, and following the preparation

A

case analysis

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22
Q

today ___ allows the fallen military hero to be transported from a distant foreign field or waters to the hometown often with the possibility of the viewing of the remains

A

arterial embalming

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23
Q

a process to promote and establish conditions that minimize or eliminate biohazards

A

sanitation

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24
Q
  1. something that preserves or has the power of preserving; 2. an additive used to protect against decay, discoloration, or spoilage; 3. chemicals that inactivate saprophytic bacteria, render unsuitable for nutrition the media upon which such bacteria thrive, and that will arrest decomposition by altering enzymes and lysins of the body as well as converting the decomposable tissue to a formless susceptible to decomposition
A

preservative

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25
Q

obtaining food by absorbing dissolved organic material especially obtaining nourishment from the products of organic breakdown and decay

A

saprophytic

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26
Q

separation of compounds into simpler substances by the action of microbial and/or autolytic enzymes

A

decomposition

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27
Q

to prevent or retard an unwanted alteration of a physical state. slowing the onset of the changes of decomposition by the use of refrigeration, dry or wet ice, and the injection of chemicals or non formaldehyde containing fluids

A

stabilize

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28
Q
  1. the decomposition of organic matter; 2. the typically anaerobic splitting of proteins of bacteria and fungi with the formation of foul smelling incompletely oxidized products; 3. decomposition of proteins by the action of enzymes from anaerobic bacteria
A

putrefaction

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29
Q

decomposition of proteins by enzymes of aerobic bacteria; to undergo destructive dissolution; implies a slow change from a state of soundness

A

decay

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30
Q

which of the following is an external factor of decomposition

A

strength and volume of embalming solutions

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31
Q

there are too many variables associated with embalming to provide ___ regarding the degree or length of time that preservation of the embalmed body can be maintained

A

assurances

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32
Q

embalming preservatives and germicides interact primarily with body proteins - creating ___ - that can no longer be easily broken down by bacterial or autolytic body enzymes

A

embalmed tissue

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33
Q

one of a class of complex nitrogenous compounds that are synthesized by all living organisms and yield amino acids when hydrolyzed

A

protein

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34
Q

arterial embalming is also called

A

vascular embalming

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35
Q

the solution in the embalming machine replaces the ___ in the vascular system

A

blood

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36
Q

direct treatment of the contents of three body cavities: thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic. applied in two phases: aspiration of the cavity contents and injection of undiluted cavity fluid

A

cavity embalming

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37
Q

the ___ is customarily selected as the primary source of blood drainage

A

internal jugular vein

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38
Q

preservation of tissues by direct contact. preservative chemicals are applied to a cotton compress or inlay that makes contact with the tissues, or the chemical applied directly to the skin surface. considered a supplemental embalming procedure

A

surface embalming

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39
Q

the ___ is the structural mediator through which the injected preservative chemicals are delivered to the receptive tissue sites

A

capillary

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40
Q

the contents of hollow organs must be removed to make room for the introduction of cavity fluid (process called ___), also removes fluids and gases form between the organs that have accumulated ante or post mortem

A

aspiration

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41
Q

a ___ is inserted through the abdominal wall near the umbilicus (belly button) to pierce the hollow organs to drain accumulated fluids and makes channels in the solid organs

A

trocar

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42
Q

the preservative solution flows through the arterial, capillary, venous routes similar to the ___ in the living body

A

blood circulation

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43
Q

know who you are embalming - identify all bodies throughout ___ phases of care

A

all

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44
Q

this form must be completed in lieu of an embalming report for each deceased human body brought into the care of a funeral or an embalming facility. a copy of the report must accompany the body being shipped or transported to another funeral facility

A

decedent care report

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45
Q

this form provides permission for embalming the body and indemnification of the funeral home

A

embalming authorization

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46
Q

results from a john hopkins university study concluded that funeral home employees who worked as embalmers had a greater exposure to ___ than funeral home employees who did not embalm bodies

A

tuberculosis

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47
Q

is a pathological bacterial staph infection that causes over 100k hospital infections a year. it can be found on the skin, in the nose, in blood and urine, and in exudates or fluid from an infected site. this infection is spread by direct physical contact or contact with contaminated objects

A

MRSA

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48
Q

___ is a fatal disease caused by a prion. the causative agent is very difficult, if impossible to destroy. the causative agent appears to be concentrated in cerebrospinal fluid

A

creutzfeldt jadob disease

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49
Q

exhaust ventilation should draw fumes ___ the embalmer

A

away from

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50
Q

embalmers should keep ___ closed on the embalming machine when not in use

A

rate of flow valve

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51
Q

used to provide personal and public health protection; should be examined and maintained or replaced on a regular basis; two primary areas of consideration are adequate ventilation and proper plumbing

A

engineering controls

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52
Q

in the US, the practice of embalming is regulated primarily by the ___. responsibilities include, but are not limited to, overseeing the cares and disposition of dead human remains; also the regulating and licensing of funeral homes, funeral directors and embalmers

A

individual states

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53
Q

since 1987, the US environmental protection agency has recognized formaldehyde as a potential ___ for tumors in the lung, nasopharynx, and nasal passages

A

carcinogen

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54
Q

four divisions of ___ directly affect funeral establishment: general rule, hazard communication standard, formaldehyde rule, and blood borne pathogen rule

A

OSHA

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55
Q

the funeral home must include on the ___ selected the statement “…you do not have to pay for embalming you did not approve if you selected arrangements such as direct cremation or immediate burial. if we charge for embalming, we will explain why below”

A

itemized statement of funeral goods and services

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56
Q

the funeral home must disclose on ___ in immediate conjunction with the price shown for embalming: “expect in certain special cases…”

A

general price list

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57
Q

the funeral home cannot represent that ___ requires that a deceased person be embalmed when such is not the case…nor can it fail to disclose that embalming is not required by law, except in certain special cases

A

state or local law

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58
Q

this OSHA rule directly applies to occupations and professions where employees are exposed to infectious agents. compliance with this rule is accomplished through applying universal precautions, engineering controls, and work practice controls

A

blood borne pathogen rule

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59
Q

___ must be made available to all employees who have occupational exposure to infectious agents

A

hetaptits b vaccine

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60
Q

rule of thumb for protective garments is that the embalmer should have no ___ skin

A

exposed

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61
Q

this OSHA rule requires that employers communicate to employees the dangers that exist in the workplace as a result of hazardous substances of materials. it also directs employers to train employees in the safe use and handling of hazardous substances or materials. under this rule, any chemical or a mixture of chemicals that expose employees to a health or physical risk are considered to be hazardous

A

hazard communication standard

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62
Q

studies have shown that exposure to ___ at certain levels will likely cause employees to experience eye, nose, throat, and upper respiratory tract irritation

A

formaldehyde

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63
Q

exposure that is time weighted over an established periods. it allows the exposure levels to be averaged generally over an 8 hour period

A

time weighted average

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64
Q

legal limits established by OSHA to which workers can be exposed continuously for a short period without damage or injury. these exposures should not be longer than 15 minutes and not repeated more than four times per workday

A

short term exposure limit

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65
Q

OSHA has a ___ standard that must be followed when respirators are put into use in the preparation room. employees must be fit tested to see if a respirator is appropriate for them

A

respirator

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66
Q

under the ___, employers must introduce employees, who have occupational exposure, to SDS. employers must identify methods by which employees will have access to the information

A

formaldehyde standard

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67
Q

an agent, usually chemical, applied either to inanimate objects/surfaces or living tissue for the purpose of destroying disease causing microbial agents, but usually not bacterial spores

A

germicide

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68
Q

a process that renders a substance free from all microorganisms

A

sterilization

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69
Q

an agent, usually chemical, applied to inanimate objects/surfaces for the purpose of destroying disease causing microbial agents, but usually not bacterial spores

A

disinfectants

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70
Q

examples of engineering controls for compliance with the formaldehyde standard are essentially the same as for biological hazards, the formaldehyde standards requires employee information and training before their being exposed to ___

A

hazardous substances

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71
Q

a blunt instrument used for tissue dissection and determining the location and elevation of arteries and veins. it has an “eye” in the hook portion of the instrument, which could be used for passing ligatures around a vessel

A

aneurysm needle

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72
Q

similar to an aneurysm needle but has a sharp pointed tip. the handle is designed to function as a separator

A

aneurysm hook

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73
Q

a curved cutting instrument that cuts from the inside outward. some embalmers prefer this type of instrument for opening arteries and veins. it also can be used for excision of tissues

A

bistoury knife

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74
Q

there are many varieties of this instrument and they can be used to clamp leaking vessels. they also can be used for packing orifices or handling contaminated bandage dressings. the ends of this instrument may be curved or straight, serrated or smooth, or plain or rat toothed

A

hemostat

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75
Q

this instrument is used to hold an incision open during blunt dissection and raising of vessels

A

incision spreader

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76
Q

a sharp cutting instrument used for making incisions. they can be used for making incisions. they can be purchased with a permanent blade, or the handles can be purchased and disposable blades used

A

scalpel

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77
Q

used to keep vessels elevated above the incision. can be made of hard rubber, bone, or metal

A

separator

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78
Q

an instrument used for grasping and holding tissues. the limbs may be straight, curved, or angular. the tips of forceps may be serrated, smooth, or rat toothed

A

spring forceps

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79
Q

used to close autopsy incision as well as incision made to raise vessels for injection

A

suture needles

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80
Q

temporarily holds skin flaps together so the embalmer can suture an incision

A

tissue gathering forceps

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81
Q

carry blood away from the heart. elastic, deep, and well protected. cream color. feels like a large rubber band. stand open when incised

A

arteries

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82
Q

carry blood toward the heart. they are blue in color and may be superficial. collapse when incised

A

veins

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83
Q

a small branch of an artery leading into capillaries

A

arterioles

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84
Q

middle layer of an artery composed of smooth muscle; functions in dilation and constriction of blood vessels

A

tunica media

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85
Q

the heart is surrounded by a sac called ___

A

pericardium

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86
Q

the first branch off the arch of the aorta is the ___

A

brachiocephalic artery

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87
Q

a large artery that carries oxygenated blood to the head, face, and neck; left and right arteries; the right artery bifurcates (divides) into two divisions (internal and external)

A

common carotid artery

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88
Q

a major artery that supplies oxygenated blood to the head, neck, chest, and arms; located blow the clavicle (collarbone) on both sides of the neck; left and right arteries; they receive blood from the aortic arch

A

subclavian artery

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89
Q

a large blood vessel that supplies to the lower boy; carries oxygenated blood to the lower limbs of the limb; passes through the thigh and divides into a deep branch and a superficial branch near the knee

A

femoral artery

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90
Q

a blood vessel of the lower limb that carries oxygenated blood to the dorsal surface of the foot; sits on the top of the foot, running over the tarsal bones then down towards the sole of the foot

A

dorsalis pedis artery

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91
Q

admittance to the preparation room is by___. the prep room is kept strictly private during body preparation

A

authorization

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92
Q

which is an example of someone who would not have a viable reason to be in a prep room

A

members of the community and neighborhood

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93
Q

prep room signage must be in compliance with the applicable laws and regulations; strictly private area and sings with required ___ warnings

A

OSHA

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94
Q

the prep room must be ___ and should not be located so that it becomes a passage to other building areas

A

secured

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95
Q

in order to maintain the dignity of the remains, the deceased must be properly ___, and provided a modesty cloth for genital areas

A

identified

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96
Q

embalmers and others working in the prep room must maintain the highest ethical and moral standards of care and ___

A

confidentiality

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97
Q

the prep room must be properly maintained to create a clean and healthy environment. it is important to perform and ___ regular maintenance and cleaning of the prep room

A

document

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98
Q

maintain an ___ supply of chemicals and associated sundry items necessary for embalming and decedent care, restorative, and cosmetology treatments

A

adequate

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99
Q

maintain an adequate number of tables and positioning devices per case ___

A

volume

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100
Q

___ decedent care activities for every decedent in the care of the facility through the use of embalming decedent care reports and other applicable forms

A

document

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101
Q

OSHA prescribes in detail the physical and ___ requirements that employers must meet to provide a safe workplace. these requirements are enforced through workplace inspections, warnings, and citations

A

environmental

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102
Q

OSHA right to know laws provide workers with direct access to information about the health risks of ___ used in the workplace

A

chemicals

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103
Q

posting requirements for this information is ___

A

mandatory

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104
Q

new construction and facility remodeling requires a ___

A

building permit

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105
Q

used for decedent care activity purposes other than arterial embalming; also called a holding or staging area

A

dressing room

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106
Q

the ___ can be the most logical and least costly location of a prep room when space allows

A

first floor

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107
Q

the ___ of a facility is often where space is most readily available. however, ceiling height can be limited in this area due to overhead plumbing lines and ducts for heating, ventilation, cooling systems

A

basement

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108
Q

_ coatings provide a seamless and nonslip surface that is easy to clean and disinfect. they can be used over cement, tile, wood, and other types of flooring

A

epoxy

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109
Q

___ tile is also seamless, resilient to cleaning products, and comfortable to stand on for hours at a time

A

vinyl

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110
Q

when selecting windows for a prep room, ___ must always be ensured in the prep room. window glass cannot be transparent and allow visibility into a prep area

A

privacy

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111
Q

when selecting doors for a prep room, remember that they must be secured to deny access to unauthorized persons. ___ locking devices require only a code; the code can be readily changed when the need arises

A

touch pad

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112
Q

wall material must be wipeable and readily ___ upon contamination or soiling

A

disinfected

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113
Q

OSHA required emergency safety device providing a steady stream of water for flushing the eye

A

eyewash station

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114
Q

device that uses a motor to create a suction for the purpose of aspiration

A

electric aspirator

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115
Q

a one way valve installed in the water supply line that services the facility to address the reverse flow of liquids within a system caused by siphonage and pressure variables

A

backflow preventor

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116
Q

multipurpose instrument (size can vary) used in the embalming process (ex. as a drainage instrument)

A

angular spring forceps

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117
Q

used to inject embalming fluid solution into the blood vascular system

A

arterial tube

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118
Q

has many openings so as to be “non clogging”. it is used to aspirate blood and arterial fluid from the cavities of autopsied bodies

A

autopsy aspirator

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119
Q

screws onto the cavity fluid bottles. when the device is inverted, cavity fluid flows through the trocar into the body cavities

A

cavity fluid injector

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120
Q

used to expand a vein to help guide a drain tube or drainage device into a vein for drainage

A

grooved director

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121
Q

specialized equipment connected to the water supply; creates suction for trocar aspiration of the bodies cavities: creates a vacuum when water is run through the mechanism

A

hydro aspirator

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122
Q

designed for hypodermic treatments. it is not used for aspiration but rather for injection

A

hypo valve trocar

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123
Q

used to attach the delivery hose from the injection device to the arterial tube. can be used to maintain and stop the flow of fluid into the arterial tube

A

stopcock

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124
Q

long hollow needle used to aspirate and inject body cavities and hypodermic injection treatments

A

trocar

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125
Q

developed for the embalming of autopsied bodies. it allows the embalmer to embalm both legs or arms or sides of the head at the same time

A

y tube

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126
Q

which of the following is not a postmortem physical change

A

rigor mortis

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127
Q

temporary rise in body temperature after death

A

postmortem caloricity

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128
Q

progression is realized once the body loses ability to sustain physiological and metabolic activity

A

somatic death

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129
Q

occurs when spontaneous respiration and heartbeat irreversibly cease

A

clinical death

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130
Q

“grave wax”; the final product of fat decomposition

A

adipocere

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131
Q

stiffening of the muscles after death; creates extravascular resistance, body positioning and feature setting challenge for the embalmers; tissue distention during arterial injection; increases preservative demand; pH changes affect chemical reaction of embalming solution

A

rigor mortis

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132
Q

postmortem evacuation of any substance from an external orifice of the body as a result of pressure

A

purge

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133
Q

thin, smooth, flat polyethylene boards, are strong, non absorbent, and easily cleaned; placed under the body to move the body

A

body transfer board

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134
Q

sloughing off of the epidermis, wherein there is a separation of the epidermis from the underlying dermis

A

desquamation

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135
Q

anaerobic, saprophytic, spore forming bacterium, responsible for tissue gas; referred to as a gas bacillus

A

clostridium perfringens

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136
Q

a gurgling, or rattling in the throat caused by the accumulation of mucous and exacerbated by loss of the cough reflex

A

death rattle

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137
Q

embalming machine that uses motorized force; pulsating and non pulsating types available

A

centrifugal pump

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138
Q

the irreversible phase of somatic death and represents the cessation of simple body processes. the organs in the body no longer function

A

biological death

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139
Q

which of the following is not a postmortem chemical change

A

livor mortis

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140
Q

extravascular discoloration, not cleared during arterial injection alone; gray discoloration when reacting with embalming chemicals; sign of delay between death and embalming

A

postmortem stain

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141
Q

used to insert a “barb” into the mandible and maxilla to hold the lower jaw in a closed position

A

needle injector

142
Q

the antemortem interval is known as the ___ as the person is said to be actively dying during this stage

A

agonal period

143
Q

used to draw excess swelling and to displace moisture under the skin

A

electric spatula

144
Q

holds skull bones in place after autopsy

A

calvarium clamp

145
Q

the process during which individual cells die; may take a matter of hours depending on numerous variables

A

postmortem cellular death

146
Q

presents as reflexive twitching of the muscles, marking the final efforts to sustain life

A

death struggle

147
Q

brain death occurs in a sequence of events that are a function of time without oxygen. the first part of the brain to die, usually in 5 to 6 minutes, is the ___

A

cerebral cortex

148
Q

cooling of the body to the temperature of the surrounding environment

A

algor mortis

149
Q

gravitation of blood and body fluids to dependent areas of the body

A

hypostasis

150
Q

the ability of the cells to draw moisture from the surrounding area into themselves

A

imbibition

151
Q

a supplemental fluid that may be injected before the injection of preservative arterial solution in order to expand the vascular system, promote drainage, and prepare the tissues for reception of preservative arterial solution

A

pre injection fluid

152
Q

solution having a lesser concentration of dissolved solute than the solution with which it is compared

A

hypotonic solution

153
Q

chemicals found in embalming arterial formulations having the capability of displacing an unpleasant odor or of altering an unpleasant odor so that it is converted to more pleasant one

A

perfuming agents

154
Q

concentrated embalming chemical injected into the cavities of the body following the aspiration of the body; can also be used in hypodermic and surface embalming

A

cavity fluid

155
Q

concentrated arterial fluid is added to water to form the arterial solution

A

primary solution

156
Q

a colorless gas at ambient temperature; has a strong, irritating odor and is very soluble in water; a naturally occurring substance; produced by every living organism and is essential to the functioning of the human body

A

formaldehyde

157
Q

chemical compounds that change a protein from a state in which it is easily decomposed to a state in which it will endure and not undergo putrefaction, for a temporary period of time

A

preservatives

158
Q

amount of preservative (formaldehyde) required to effectively preserve and disinfect remains. this amount depends on the condition of the tissues as determined through analysis

A

preservative demand

159
Q

an agent, usually chemical, applied to inanimate objects and/or surfaces to destroy disease causing microbial agents, but usually not bacterial spores

A

disinfectants

160
Q

weakening of the strength of the arterial solution by vascular and interstitial fluids

A

secondary dilution

161
Q

the embalmer must make final determination as to type of arterial fluids to use, strength of the arterial solution, and volume of arterial solution to inject. the strength and volume of the initial arterial solution is determined by the

A

pre embalming analysis

162
Q

coloring agents added to embalming fluids to produce an internal cosmetic effect within the tissues of the decedent

A

active dyes

163
Q

primarily used to supplement and enhance the action of vascular (arterial) solutions; designed to enhance the distribution and effectiveness of the arterial solution

A

co injection fluid

164
Q

control the rate of action of the main preservative chemicals of embalming formulations. many preservatives when used alone exert adverse effects that interfere with good embalming results. it is necessary to control the rate of fixation so that the firming action is delayed long enough to permit thorough saturation of tissue cells; delay the hardening effect of the aldehyde, and get more uniform distribution of the coloring or staining agent

A

modifying agents

165
Q

liquid that serves as a solvent for embalming fluids. must be a solvent or mixture of solvents that keep the active substances in a stable and uniform state during transport through the circulatory system to all parts of the body - to maintain the proper density and osmotic activity, the proper chemical and physical balance of the formulations

A

vehicle

166
Q

chemical that increases the capability of embalmed tissue to retain moisture. they wrap around the formaldehyde molecule thus keeping the formaldehyde from making the direct contact with albuminous material (class of water soluble proteins) until the tissues are thoroughly saturated with the preservative solution

A

humectants

167
Q

chemicals that reduce the molecular cohesion and surface tension of a liquid so it can low through smaller apertures

A

surfactants

168
Q

aqueous solution containing 37% formaldehyde gas by mass in water (40% by volume), or in water and methyl alcohol

A

formalin

169
Q

a polymer of formaldehyde; a white powdery solid containing 85% to 99% formaldehyde. this form is used where powdered preparations are involved, such as hardening compounds or used for “dusting” the body walls and viscera

A

paraformaldehyde

170
Q

has many advantages to offer in embalming, the most important being relative imperviousness of reaction rate to pH changes, particularly in the alkaline range; will react with protein at higher pHs that would essentially render formaldehyde inactive

A

glutaraldehyde

171
Q

also known as carbolic acid or hydroxybenzene; classified as a preservative as well as a germicide; it was one of the most found components of both arterial and cavity fluids in the early days of the fluid industry

A

phenol

172
Q

employed in embalming fluids to stabilize the acid base balance of the fluid, also maintain the balance of the pH in the tissues when the embalming fluids react with the cellular proteins

A

buffers

173
Q

solution having a greater concentration of dissolved solute than the solution with which it is compared

A

hypertonic solution

174
Q

an important component of embalming fluids, especially arterial fluids because they are used to maintain blood in a liquid state and making it easy to remove from the circulatory system. such chemicals inhibit or stop the clotting of blood

A

anticoagulants

175
Q

lend color to the fluid in the bottle

A

inactive dye

176
Q

designates the boundaries of arteries; the point of origin and the point of termination of the artery are given in relation to adjacent structures

A

anatomical limit

177
Q

minute petechial hemorrhages caused by the rupture of minute vessels as blood settles into the dependent areas of organs and tissues; it is accompanied by livor mortis; postmortem discoloration; most common in asphyxia or slow deaths

A

tardieu spots

178
Q

___ of the body, or giving by will after death, is considered a will and is legally binding

A

bequeathal

179
Q

during the anatomical donation embalming, ___ is not performed; the internal organs must remain intact and undamaged for anatomical study

A

cavity aspiration

180
Q

which one of these is not an expert test of death

A

pulse

181
Q

which one of these is not an inexpert test of death

A

electrocardiogram

182
Q

begins at the right sternoclavicular articulation and extends to the lateral border of the first rib; its branches are vertebral artery, internal thoracic artery, and inferior thyroid

A

right subclavian

183
Q

to maintain reliable consistency in references to orientation, standard ___ is adopted as the position of reference for all anatomical nomenclature

A

anatomical position

184
Q

the apex of the axilla is an opening called the cervicoaxillary canal, which transmits structures from the neck into the arm sand is bounded by three body structures: the clavicle, the ___, and the first rib

A

scapula

185
Q

a descriptive reference for locating arteries and veins by means of identifying anatomical structures that are known

A

anatomical guide

186
Q

the point or place where something begins, arises, or is derived

A

origin

187
Q

a line drawn or visualized on the surface of the skin to represent the approximate location of a deeper lying structure

A

linear guide

188
Q

attached to the mastoid process of the temporal bone and the manubrium of the sternum, the ___ muscle courses obliquely along the side of the neck

A

sternocleidomastoid

189
Q

a muscle of facial expression; significance to the embalmer is that both the common carotid artery and internal jugular vein lie beneath the lane of this muscle

A

platysma

190
Q

the lower portion of the carotid sheath is crossed anteriorly by the intermediate tendon of the ___ muscle; which is located in the front of the neck, and consists of paired muscle bellies joined by an intermediate tendon

A

omohyoid

191
Q

to divide into one or more subdivisions; can also refer to a lateral extension or subdivision extending form the main part

A

branch

192
Q

prominent anatomical features of the chest and neck regions serve as ___ to visualize the location of the common carotid artery and internal jugular vein (ex. clavicle, earlobe, sternum)

A

landmarks

193
Q

nearer to the center (trunk of the body) or to the point of attachment to the body

A

proximal

194
Q

three lines and their anatomical parallels serve as linear guides to describe the anterior triangle (also referred to as ___) of the neck

A

anterior cervical triangle

195
Q

sites located away from the center (trunk of the body)

A

distal

196
Q

the anatomical borders of the femoral triangle include the inguinal ligament superiorly, the adductor longus muscle medially, and ___ muscle laterally

A

sartorius

197
Q

the external iliac artery extends to a point under the center of the inguinal ligament and becomes the ___ as it continues below the inguinal ligament

A

femoral artery

198
Q

originates at the left ventricle; as its beginning, the aortic semi lunar valve should close, thus creating the pathway for arterial solution distribution

A

ascending aorta

199
Q

center of arterial solution distribution; its branches are brachiocephalic artery, left common artery, and left subclavian artery

A

arch of the aorta

200
Q

encloses the muscle of the thigh; the great saphenous vein lies on its surface (and often mistaken for the femoral vein)

A

fascia lata

201
Q

a proper technique for raising vessels is make proper ___

A

incisions

202
Q

the anatomical limit of the radial artery is from the ___ to the palm of the hand

A

antecubital fossa

203
Q

the linear guide for the ulnar artery is on the surface of the ___ from the center of the antecubital fossa to a point in the 4th and 5th fingers

A

forearm

204
Q

the anatomical guide for the brachial artery lies posterior to the ___ border of the belly of the biceps brachii muscle

A

medial

205
Q

the accompanying vein for the ___ is the innominate vein or brachiocephalic vein

A

ulnar artery

206
Q

the anatomical guide for the external iliac artery is the medial border of the

A

psoas muscle

207
Q

the linear guide for the femoral artery is on the surface of the thigh from the center of the inguinal ligament to the center point on the ___ of the femur

A

medial condyle

208
Q

the anatomical guide for the femoral artery is through the center of the femoral triangle bounded by the base inguinal ligament, ___ by the sartorius muscle and medially by the adductor longus muscle

A

laterally

209
Q

the femoral vein is ___ to the femoral artery

A

medial and deep

210
Q

the linear guide for the ___ is from the center of the anterior surface of the ankle joint to a point between he first big toe and adjacent second tow

A

dorsalis pedis artery

211
Q

the linear guide for the ___ is a line drawn from sternoclavicular articulation to anterior surface of the lobe of the ear

A

common carotid artery

212
Q

the anatomical guide for the common carotid artery is along the media (inner) border fo the ___ muscle

A

sternocleidomastoid

213
Q

the linear guide for the subclavian artery is a line drawn from the sternoclavicular junction to the lateral border of the ___

A

first rib

214
Q

a proper technique for raising vessels is clean off vessels by blunt dissection and ___ vessels loosely

A

ligate

215
Q

the anatomical limits of the axillary artery beings at the lateral border of the first rib and extends to the inferior border of the tendon of the ___

A

teres major muscle

216
Q

the anatomical guide for the ___ is just behind the medial boarder of the coracobrachialis muscle

A

axillary artery

217
Q

the linear guide for the ___ is from the center of the base of the axillary space to center of the forearm just below bend of elbow (cubital fossa)

A

brachial artery

218
Q

the linear guide for the ___ is on the surface of the forearm from center of the antecubital fossa to center of base of the index finger

A

radial artery

219
Q

the anatomical limits of the femoral artery begins at a point behind the center of the inguinal ligament and terminates at the opening of the

A

adductor magnus muscle

220
Q

the anatomical limit for the ___ begins at the level of sternoclavicular articulation and extends to level of superior border of thyroid cartilage

A

right common carotid

221
Q

the anatomical guide for the ___ is the clavicle

A

subclavian artery

222
Q

the anatomical limit for the brachial artery begins at the inferior border of tendon of the ___ and extends to a point inferior to the antecubital fossa

A

teres major muscle

223
Q

the linear guide for the axillary artery is through the center of the base of the axillary space and parallel to the long axis of the ___ when abducted

A

upper extremity

224
Q

the anatomical guide for the ulnar artery is it lies ___ to the tendon of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle

A

laterally

225
Q

a proper technique for raising vessels is to find vessels by use of anatomical guides, and relative position of

A

veins

226
Q

which of the following is not a factor to consider when selecting vessels to use for arterial embalming

A

race

227
Q

when embalming a body ravished by the effects of disease, the embalmer should ___ the diseased tissue first

A

inject toward

228
Q

solid structures lacking lumen; when incised, the edges fray similar to the ends of a cut rope

A

nerve

229
Q

the inferior vena cava is the largest vein in the body located to the right of the aorta at the posterior abdominal wall; primarily used for ___ in the cases of partial autopsy or organ donation

A

blood drainage

230
Q

embalming of a body area or region by the injection of an embalming solution into an artery that in life supplied blood to that particular body region

A

sectional embalming

231
Q

a six point injection is a multipoint injection in the autopsied or unautopsied body in which six areas of the body are ___ injected

A

separately

232
Q

the number one factor in determining which vessels to use for arterial embalming is to select the artery and vein you believe will provide the best results based on the ___

A

pre embalming analysis

233
Q

the most common incision methods are the ___ and ___

A

transverse and diagonal

234
Q

tiny blood vessels that supply the large vessel walls with nutrients

A

vasa vasorum

235
Q

the facial artery is usually reserved for injection when the ___ is either damaged or unavailable after autopsy, donation, or trauma

A

common carotid artery

236
Q

___ drainage is a historic drainage first practiced when embalming was done at the residence of the deceased

A

direct heart

237
Q

vascular injection that utilizes two or more injection sites

A

multipoint injection

238
Q

embalmers need to know the different religious rules pertaining to the embalming operation because, typically, ___ do not allow embalming

A

orthodox jews

239
Q

injection from one site and drainage from a separate site

A

split injection

240
Q

the opening or inside space of a vessel or other tubular structure

A

lumen

241
Q

which artery is the most common artery used for arterial injection

A

common carotid artery

242
Q

the weight of the deceased is a factor to consider when selecting vessels to use for arterial embalming due to ___ distribution

A

adipose

243
Q

determining which way any arterial clotting will travel or how much arteriosclerosis is present in the vessels are examples of ___ factors that embalmers consider when selecting vessels to use for arterial embalming

A

accessibility

244
Q

the acronym ANV is helpful to describe the relationship of the common carotid artery, vagus nerve, and internal jugular vein; from ___ to ___ , artery, nerve, and vein

A

medial to lateral

245
Q

which vein is the most common vein used for drainage

A

internal jugular vein

246
Q

the ___ of the heart is the center for venous drainage in the dead human body

A

right atrium

247
Q

one point injection is vascular ___ and drainage from one location

A

injection

248
Q

caution should be used when making the incision for the ___ on deceased females because their clothing may be looser or lower cut styles

A

common carotid artery

249
Q

the strap line incision is made approximately two inches ___ to the base of the neck on the line where the shoulder strap of a sleeveless garment crosses the shoulder

A

lateral

250
Q

when embalming infants, embalmers should use the abdominal aorta for injection and the ___ for drainage if possible

A

internal vena cava

251
Q

the ___ includes all analytical observations of the deceased human body before, during, and after embalming

A

embalming analysis

252
Q

postmortem body conditions, embalming treatments, and an post embalming corrective treatments are documented on the ___ report

A

embalming and decedent care

253
Q

in the mid 1950s, the method of body typing was introduced and published by the dodge chemical company where dead bodies were classified by the conditions exhibited rather than by the specific ___

A

cause of death

254
Q

body typing was based on a __ that the embalmer would follow for treatment of each different classification

A

recipe method

255
Q

due to the extensive development and use of new medications in the 1960s, the embalmer had to consider the influence of ___ medications upon postmortem conditions and factors due to the extensive development of medications in the in 1960s

A

therapeutic

256
Q

embalmers consider the ___, or sum total of factors that are specific to each decedent

A

aggregate

257
Q

embalming analysis entails observation and ___ of postmortem conditions and treatment results

A

evaluation

258
Q

shared information within the workplace is conducted on a ___ basis

A

need to know

259
Q

in making an embalming analysis, one important guideline that should always be considered is each body should be prepared as if viewing and final disposition will be ___

A

delayed

260
Q

the cleaning and disinfection of the body, instruments, and the embalming room following embalming of the body

A

terminal disinfection

261
Q

during this phase treatments must be considered for antemortem conditions produced by trauma or surgery; postmortem events such as refrigerations, autopsy, organ and tissue recovery; and the postmortem changes that have occurred in the body

A

pre embalming analysis

262
Q

during the process of ___, the embalmer continue to check for adverse changes on a periodic basis; such as tissue gas, odor, purge, color change, and skin slip

A

post embalming monitoring

263
Q

when the embalmed body has been received from another funeral home, the following treatments may be necessary

A

all of the above (re injection, supplemental treatments, cavity re aspiration/re injection)

264
Q

feature dehydration may require ___ injection of tissue builder, cosmetics, and waxes

A

hypodermic

265
Q

if ___ happens during or post embalming, this requires immediate correction; may require aspiration from the throat and nasal passages using a nasal tube aspirator; clothing may be soiled

A

purge

266
Q

___ is the crackling sensation produced by gases trapped in the tissues

A

crepitation

267
Q

the source of ___ may be edema or possibly an embalming incision that was not tightly sutured

A

leakage

268
Q

if purge is arterial solution and there is no ___, it can be assumed there is a major rupture in the vascular system

A

drainage

269
Q

_ may be caused by the effect of drugs on the liver or red blood cells, obstruction of the bile duct, hepatitis, cancer of the liver, and hemolysis of red blood cells

A

jaundice

270
Q

it is important that the embalmer have an understanding of the possible effects of drugs and of the fact that embalming challenges often stem from long term

A

drug therapy

271
Q

chemotherapeutic agents are toxic. ___ changes occur when they are used an no matter which drug is administered

A

cellular

272
Q

to stimulate the flow of arterial solution into areas not receiving solution, the embalmer could close off the drainage to increase the ___ pressure

A

intravascular

273
Q

if the body as a whole has not received sufficient arterial solution of sufficient strength, a ___ fluid can be injected or added to the remaining arterial solution to boost the preservative qualities of the solution

A

high index arterial

274
Q

in making an embalming analysis, one important guideline that should always be considered is to prepare each body as if an ___ or contagious disease is present

A

infectious

275
Q

during an embalming analysis, the correct embalming treatment is dictated by the condition present in the body, not solely by the ___

A

cause of death

276
Q

horseshoe shaped bone forming the inferior jaw

A

mandible

277
Q

effective embalming is achieved when these functions are successful: distribution, diffusion, and ___ of embalming chemicals

A

retention

278
Q

carefully check the dead body for fly eggs or maggots, especially in the months of summer or in warm climates, because these eggs can develop into maggots in ___

A

24 hours

279
Q

elevate the chest and head to prevent blood that remains in the heart after embalming from gravitating into the neck and facial tissues to avoid

A

formaldehyde gray

280
Q

a pneumatic collar, splint or elastic bandage are examples of a _ embalmers can use to address issues (ex. edema, secure a limb)

A

manual aid

281
Q

paired bone with several processes that form the skeletal base of most of the superior face, roof of the mouth, sides of the nasal cavity, and floor of the orbit

A

maxilla

282
Q

conditions such as stroke and arthritis can contribute to positioning challenges of the ___

A

extremities

283
Q

___ closure raises and holds the lower jaw into position

A

mouth

284
Q

an alternative for ___ is the method of mouth closure using the needle injector

A

suturing

285
Q

if facial swelling form edema is present, elevation of the head and the shoulders is important for ___ of the edema from the tissues of the face and the neck

A

drainage

286
Q

during body transfer, best practice is to ___ rather than ___ the body

A

pull rather than push

287
Q

when household bleach is used in the solution for washing the body, it is important that the chemical be washed away with water before contact is made with ___

A

formaldehyde

288
Q

best practice for embalming authorizations is to obtain ___ documentation of the authorization for permanent record

A

written

289
Q

when performing a musculature suture, beset practice is to use a ___ instead of fingers to grasp and pull the needle from the nostrils

A

hemostat

290
Q

implantable devices containing ___ must be removed prior to cremation

A

batteries

291
Q

a compound ___ poses risk of injury to the embalmer and must be restored if they present in a viewable area of the dead body

A

fracture

292
Q

generalized edema and tortuous veins visible in the superficial abdominal tissues is indicative of ___

A

ascites

293
Q

the ___ is the thin tissue that anchors the tongue to the floor of the mouth

A

frenulum

294
Q

a ___ is a jagged tear in the skin that should be cleaned of any blood or debris during the pre embalming period

A

laceration

295
Q

projection of the jaw or jaws that may cause problems with mouth closure and alignment of the teeth

A

prognathism

296
Q

after the mouth is closed and the natural line of closure is established, the mouth is ___ in curvature from corner to corner

A

convex

297
Q

a common example of nectrotic and infected tissue is the ___, also called a pressure sore or bedsore

A

decubitus ulcer

298
Q

lip closure brings and holds the ___ of the lips

A

mucous membranes

299
Q

disinfection of the body should also include the destruction of body ___ or scabies

A

lice

300
Q

at the conclusion of the aspiration phase of cavity embalming, an ___ such as a trocar can be passed under the clavicles to channel the neck tissues; thus creating an exit path for edema

A

operative aid

301
Q

if the deceased is dehydrated and has not been dead very long, use a mild solution; add ___ in the last injection

A

humectant

302
Q

if the deceased is emaciated with edema, use ___ embalming to separately treat affected areas

A

sectional

303
Q

if there is extensive livor in the deceased’s facial areas, clear discolorations with a mild to moderate solution; step up strength to set to desired ___

A

firmness

304
Q

if deceased received an eye enucleation, use a solution stronger than normal solution; avoid ___

A

pre injection

305
Q

when the body is frozen, use a strong solution; use ___ for tracer

A

dye

306
Q

if deceased has generalized edema, start with a solution a little above normal strength; if ___ is poor then increase to a very strong solution

A

circulation

307
Q

when an embalmer encounters arteriosclerosis in a common carotid artery, sectional and hypodermic injection is required, as well as higher and/or pulsating ___

A

pressure

308
Q

if the deceased has been autopsied, dead for more than 12 hours, and refrigerated, __ can help achieve circulation

A

restricted drainage

309
Q

if the deceased has died from a contagious disease, use a solution a little stronger than normal; avoid personal contact with “first” ___

A

drainage

310
Q

if the deceased’s death was caused by second degree burns, begin with a strong solution; death will be related to ___

A

uremia

311
Q

when decomposition is evident on the deceased, use strong coordinated solution, _ for tracer

A

dye

312
Q

if the deceased has jaundice green, it cannot be cleared but plenty of dye can be used to counterstain; solution strength should be based on ___

A

preservative demand

313
Q

if the deceased has localized edema, treat general embalming based on the condition of the ___

A

tissues

314
Q

if the deceased has localized gangrene, ischemia, and/or diabetes, use strong solutions when circulation problems are anticipated; ___ complications can exist in this case

A

bacterial

315
Q

if the deceased is obese, slightly stronger solution than normal solution; the second vessel choice to use is the ___

A

external iliac artery

316
Q

slows onset of rigor and decomposition

A

algor mortis

317
Q

increases the viscosity of the blood; sludge forms; when severe, may retard further decomposition

A

dehydration

318
Q

responsible of livor mortis and eventual postmortem stain; increases tissue moisture in dependent tissue areas

A

hypostasis

319
Q

keeps capillaries expanded; can work as an aid to distribution; intravascular discoloration; can be cleared

A

livor mortis

320
Q

sludge is created; intravascular resistance; blood removal becomes difficult; distribution can be poor

A

increase in blood viscosity

321
Q

positioning the body is difficult; features may b hard to pose; body pH may not be conductive for good fluid reactions

A

rigor mortis

322
Q

color changes; odor present; body purges; gases; skin slip; rapid swelling in affected tissue areas

A

decomposition

323
Q

interferes with embalming fluid protein reactions; dyes can appear blotchy

A

shift in the body pH

324
Q

extravascular; cannot be removed; may be bleached or concealed; reddish tissues falsely indicate the presence of embalming fluid dyes

A

postmortem stain

325
Q

triggers the rigor and decomposition cycles

A

postmortem caloricity

326
Q

low index, medium index, high index

A

arterial fluid strength

327
Q

right common carotid, right femoral, right axillary

A

artery for primary injection

328
Q

not changed during injection; being slow then increase

A

change of pressure

329
Q

drain tube, angular spring forceps, trocar

A

drainage instruments

330
Q

hydroaspriator, electric aspirator

A

method of aspiration

331
Q

gravity injector, embalming machine

A

method of cavity fluid injector

332
Q

cotton, mouth former, kapok, mastic compound

A

method of denture replacement

333
Q

continuous, intermittent, alternate

A

method of drainage

334
Q

needle injector, musculature suture, mandibular suture, dental tie

A

method of mouth closure

335
Q

trocar button, sutured

A

method of trocar closure

336
Q

low (2-10psi), medium (10-20psi), high (20 or more psi): psi = pounds per square inch

A

pressure for injection

337
Q

slow (5-10opm), medium (10-20opm), fast (more than 15 opm): opm = ounces per minute

A

rate of flow

338
Q

clearing of livor, tissue firming, presence of dye

A

signs of fluid distribution

339
Q

local arterial injection, surface compress, hypodermic injection

A

treatment for lack of fluid

340
Q

right internal jugular, right femoral, right axillary, right atrium of the heart

A

vein for drainage

341
Q

___ results form penetration or tearing into the pleural cavities or lung tissue

A

subcutaneous emphysema

342
Q

subcutaneous emphysema is a common condition after blunt force trauma to the chest and the administration of

A

cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

343
Q

sources of decomposition are the ___ and bacterial breakdown of body tissues

A

autolytic

344
Q

during decomposition, there may be odor, skin slip, color changes and ___

A

purging

345
Q

if a deceased has true tissue gas, spore forming bacteria may be passed by contaminated cutting ___ to other bodies

A

instruments

346
Q

a dead body with true tissue gas has a very strong odor of ___; skin slip

A

decomposition

347
Q

treatment of ___, which has a foul odor and infection, will require a strong arterial solution and local hypodermic injection of cavity chemical

A

gas gangrene

348
Q

the source of gas gangrene is anaerobic bacteria and ___

A

clostridium perfringens

349
Q

the first evidence of a dead body containing air from embalming apparatus is in ___

A

eyelids

350
Q

if distension is caused by air from embalming apparatus, ___ after arterial injection to release gases

A

channel