Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

what does the the spinal cord run between

A

medulla oblongata to L1 or L2

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2
Q

what is the main function of the spinal cord

A

connects lower PNS with the brain

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3
Q

what pathways in the spinal cord are made of white matter

A

sensory/motor pathways up to and from the brain

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4
Q

what center in the spinal cord is made of gray matter

A

reflex center

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5
Q

what are the meningeal layers of the spinal cord

A

dura mater
arachnoid mater
pia mater

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6
Q

what is the epidural space of the spinal cord

A

fat-filled space around the dura mater

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7
Q

what is the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord

A

the space that contains CSF

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8
Q

what is the purpose of a lumbar puncture

A

to look at the CSF in subarachnoid space

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9
Q

what do bulges of the spinal cord indicate

A

regions where a larger number of neurons are entering/leaving the spinal cord

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10
Q

what does the myelinated (white matter) in the spinal cord create

A

columns

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11
Q

what does white matter in the spinal cord transport to the brain

A

sensory info

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12
Q

what does white matter in the spinal cord transport away from the brain

A

motor info

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13
Q

what are the ascending tracts of the spinal cord

A

exclusively sensory neuron axons

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14
Q

what are the descending tracts of the spinal cord

A

exclusively motor neuron axons

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15
Q

what are the commissural tracts of the spinal cord

A

interneurons that carry information from one side of the spinal cord to the other side

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16
Q

what are the three major columns on each side of the spinal cord

A

dorsal funiculus, lateral funiculus, ventral funiculus

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17
Q

what are the major columns on the sides of the spinal cord called

A

funiculi

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18
Q

what is grey matter of the spinal cord made of

A

neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, glia, nonmyelinated axons

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19
Q

what leaves the spinal cord at ventral horns

A

neurons associated with motor functions

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20
Q

where are visceral motor neurons (ANS) located

A

lateral horns of spinal cord

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21
Q

what regions of the spinal cord are lateral horns found in

A

thoracic and upper lumbar regions of the spinal cord

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22
Q

where do sensory neurons enter the spinal cord

A

dorsal horns

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23
Q

where are somatic sensory and visceral sensory cell bodies located in spinal cord

A

dorsal root ganglia

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24
Q

where are somatic motor cell bodies in spinal cord

A

ventral horns

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25
Q

where do axons of somatic motor neurons in the spinal cord exit

A

ventral root

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26
Q

where are visceral motor cell bodies located in the spinal cord

A

lateral horns

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27
Q

where do visceral motor neurons exit the spinal cord

A

through the ventral root

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28
Q

what do dorsal roots do

A

transport sensory info into spinal cord

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29
Q

what do ventral roots do

A

transport motor info away from spinal cord

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30
Q

what are spinal nerves made of

A

both ventral and dorsal roots

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31
Q

what is an example of an ascending sensory pathway

A
  1. sensory receptors activated
  2. sensory neurons synapse with interneurons within the dorsal horn of spinal cord gray matter
  3. interneurons transport signal via ascending tracts to thalamus
  4. ascending tracts to somatosensory cortex
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32
Q

what is decussation

A

axons from one side to the other

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33
Q

what is an example of a descending motor pathway

A
  1. primary motor cortex initiates a response
  2. interneurons transport signal to appropriate region of spinal cord
  3. interneurons synapse within ventral horns with motor neuron
  4. motor neuron transports signal to cells of action
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34
Q

what is the reflex arc

A

an automatic and rapid motor response

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35
Q

does the reflex arc require input from the brain

A

no

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36
Q

what are the two types of reflex arcs

A

monosynaptic
polysynaptic

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37
Q

what is a monosynaptic reflex

A

axon terminals of sensory neurons directly synapse on motor neuron within the spinal cord

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38
Q

how many neurons are involved in a monosynaptic reflex

A

two

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39
Q

how many synapses are involved in a monosynaptic reflex

A

one

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40
Q

are interneurons involved in monosynaptic reflexes

A

no

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41
Q

what is a polysynaptic reflex

A

axon terminals of sensory neurons connected via one or more interneurons to a motor neuron

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42
Q

how many neurons are involved in a polysynaptic reflex

A

3 or more

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43
Q

how many synapses are involved in a polysynaptic reflex

A

2 or more

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44
Q

are interneurons involved in a polysynaptic reflex

A

yes (creates multiple synapses)

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45
Q

what is the autonomic nervous system a part of

A

the peripheral nervous system

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46
Q

is the ANS under voluntary or involuntary control

A

involuntary

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47
Q

what three things does the ANS innervate

A

smooth muscle
cardiac muscle
glands

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48
Q

what is the ANS also called

A

visceral motor

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49
Q

how many neurons are involved in somatic motor

A

one motor neuron runs between the spinal cord and skeletal muscle

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50
Q

how many neurons are involved in the visceral motor (ANS)

A

two motor neurons run between spinal cord and target tissue

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51
Q

what are the two motor neurons involved in the ANS

A

preganglionic neuron
postganglionic neuron

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52
Q

within what do the preganglionic and postganglionic neurons synapse

A

within an autonomic ganglion

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53
Q

what are the general functions of the ANS

A

works in conjunction with the visceral sensory division
self-governing and involuntary motor responses

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54
Q

what are the two divisions of the ANS

A

parasympathetic
sympathetic

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55
Q

what are the characteristics of the parasympathetic division

A

rest and digest
conserves energy and oversees standard bodily functions

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56
Q

what are the characteristics of the sympathetic division

A

fight, fright, flight
mobilizes body in extreme situations

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57
Q

is the parasympathetic or sympathetic division a short term response that requires a lot of energy

A

sympathetic

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58
Q

does the parasympathetic or sympathetic division have more organs involved

A

sympathetic division

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59
Q

what is homeostasis

A

a balance between the two autonomic branches

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60
Q

where does the parasympathetic exit from

A

brainstem and sacral spinal nerves

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61
Q

where does the sympathetic exit from

A

thoracic and lumbar regions

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62
Q

in the parasympathetic pathway, which axon is long and which is short

A

preganglionic axon: long
postganglionic axon: short

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63
Q

in the parasympathetic pathway, where is the autonomic ganglion located

A

near or within target tissue

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64
Q

in the parasympathetic pathway, what is released within the autonomic ganglion

A

ACh

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65
Q

in the parasympathetic pathway, what is released between the postganglionic axon and the tissue

A

ACh

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66
Q

what is the vagus nerve

A

cranial nerve that contains 90% of the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers in the body

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67
Q

what is the purpose of the vagus nerve

A

to bring typical rest and digest activities in visceral muscle and glands

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68
Q

in the sympathetic pathway, which axon is short and which is long

A

preganglionic axon: short
postganglionic axon: long

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69
Q

where is the autonomic ganglion in the sympathetic pathway

A

near the spinal cord

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70
Q

in the sympathetic pathway, what is released within the autonomic ganglion

A

ACh

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71
Q

in the sympathetic pathway, what is released in between the postganglionic axon and tissue

A

norepinephrine

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72
Q

what is the sympathetic trunk ganglia

A

expansions of sympathetic trunk where pre and post ganglionic neurons synapse

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73
Q

what is the sympathetic trunk

A

a pathway for neurons of the sympathetic division

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74
Q

how does the sympathetic trunk run in relation to the spinal cord

A

parallel

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75
Q

where does the adrenal (suprarenal) gland sit

A

on top of both kidneys

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76
Q

what is the internal adrenal medulla a major organ of

A

the sympathetic nervous system

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77
Q

what is the adrenal gland

A

a specialized sympathetic ganglion that releases two excitatory hormones into the blood during fight or flight response

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78
Q

what are the two hormones that the adrenal gland releases

A

norepinephrine and epinephrine

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79
Q

how many pairs of cranial nerves are there

A

twelve

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80
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves are there

A

31

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81
Q

how many cervical spinal nerves

A

8

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82
Q

how many thoracic spinal nerves

A

12

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83
Q

how many lumbar spinal nerves

A

5

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84
Q

how many sacral spinal nerves

A

5

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85
Q

how many coccygeal spinal nerves

A

1

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86
Q

what is a dermatome

A

a map showing the relationship between sensory receptors of the skin and the spinal nerves

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87
Q

what is paraplegia

A

loss of feeling/motor functions of legs

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88
Q

where is the damage in the spinal cord with paraplegia

A

between T1 and L2

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89
Q

what is quadriplegia

A

loss of feeling/motor functions of all 4 limbs

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90
Q

where is the damage of the spinal cord with quadriplegia

A

above T1

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91
Q

where is the damage if the diaphragm is impacted

A

above C4

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92
Q

what is shingles

A

a virus that resides in a single dorsal root ganglion from a previous chicken pox infection

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93
Q

with shingles, what happens if the immune system is weakened

A

the virus can multiply, travel along peripheral sensory nerves, and cause painful skin lesions

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94
Q

where are shingles lesions located

A

within a dermatome

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95
Q

what are two different types of sensory receptors in the PNS

A

simple: free nerve ending (dendrite or sensory neuron)
complex: specialized cell

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96
Q

what are the five classifications of receptors

A

mechanoreceptors
thermoreceptors
chemoreceptors
photoreceptors
nociceptors

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97
Q

what is echolocation

A

using echos to help with navigation without sight

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98
Q

what kind of pressure does a pacinian corpuscle respond to

A

deep pressure

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99
Q

what is a proprioceptor

A

encapsulated nerve endings that monitor stretch in locomotory organs (muscles, tendons)

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100
Q

what do proprioceptors give awareness of

A

movement

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101
Q

what does the cerebellum do with information from proprioceptors

A

uses the information to determine where our body parts are in space

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102
Q

what is the root hair plexus

A

free nerve ending wrapped around hair follicle

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103
Q

what does the root hair plexus respond to

A

movement of the hair

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104
Q

what are three different types of mechanoreceptors

A

pacinian corpuscle
proprioceptors
root hair plexus

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105
Q

what are thermoreceptors

A

free nerve endings that respond to temperature changes

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106
Q

where are thermoreceptors located

A

throughout the body

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107
Q

what are nociceptors

A

free nerve endings that respond to mechanical, thermal, or chemical stimuli

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108
Q

what is pain

A

the emotional way that our brain interprets stimulus from nociceptors

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109
Q

what are itch receptors

A

recently discovered free nerve endings

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110
Q

what do itch receptors respond to

A

inflammatory chemicals

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111
Q

what is the major difference between nociception and itch

A

pain elicits a withdraw reflex and itch elicits a scratch reflex

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112
Q

what do chemoreceptors respond to

A

certain chemicals

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113
Q

what has chemoreceptors that respond to chemicals of food

A

taste buds

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114
Q

what is the gustatory pathway

A

chemoreceptor of taste bud –> spinal cord –> thalamus –> gustatory cortex in insula

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115
Q

what do photoreceptors respond to

A

light

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116
Q

where are photoreceptors found

A

retina of the eye

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117
Q

what are the peripheral nerves

A

cranial nerves and spinal nerves

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118
Q

what do the spinal nerves split into

A

the dorsal ramus and the ventral ramus

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119
Q

what forms the nerve plexuses

A

the ventral rami

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120
Q

what is the exception to the rule that the ventral rami form the nerve plexuses

A

the thoracic region
- ventral rami innervate the thoracic cage

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121
Q

what does the dorsal ramus do

A

innervate muscles of the back

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122
Q

what is a nerve plexus

A

a network of nerves that supply specific regions of the body

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123
Q

what are the four nerve plexuses

A

cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral

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124
Q

what is the cervical plexus formed from

A

ventral rami C1-C5

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125
Q

what does the cervical plexus innervate

A

back of the neck and diaphragm

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126
Q

what will happen with damage to the phrenic nerve

A

impaired breathing because the phrenic nerve stimulates the diaphragm

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127
Q

what is the brachial plexus formed from

A

ventral rami C5-T1

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128
Q

what does the brachial plexus innervate

A

upper limbs

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129
Q

what is the lumbar plexus formed from

A

ventral rami L1-L4

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130
Q

what does the lumbar plexus innervate

A

anterior region of the lower limbs

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131
Q

what is the sacral plexus formed from

A

ventral rami L4-S4

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132
Q

what does the sacral plexus innervate

A

posterior region of the lower limbs

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133
Q

what is the sciatic nerve formed from

A

the sacral plexus

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134
Q

what is polio

A

virus that can target motor neurons

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135
Q

what determines the level of paralysis in polio patients

A

which motor neurons are infected

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136
Q

what are iron lungs

A

machines that helped those whose respiratory muscles were paralyzed

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137
Q

what is postpolio syndrome

A

the lose of function of motor neurons after having polio

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138
Q

what causes postpolio syndrome

A

during infection with polio, motor neuron is destroyed but the neighboring neuron is not
-after recovery, the surviving neurons will extend axonal branches to muscles missing innervation and will then over-exert and lose function

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139
Q

what are the three special senses receptor types

A

chemoreceptors
mechanoreceptors
photoreceptors

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140
Q

what must be present to receive the information in order to detect a stimulus

A

a receptor

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141
Q

what are the two types of receptors

A

sensory nerve endings
specialized cells adjacent to sensory nerves

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142
Q

what does a stimulus generate

A

receptor potential

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143
Q

what does a receptor potential trigger

A

an action potential

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144
Q

what is a main difference between receptor potentials and action potentials

A

receptor potentials can be weak or strong

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145
Q

where does the action potential travel to

A

the brain to be “sensed”

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146
Q

what do mechanoreceptors detect

A

changes in pressure or movement

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147
Q

what do thermoreceptors detect

A

temperature change

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148
Q

what do nociceptors detect

A

pain

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149
Q

what do chemoreceptors detect

A

changes in chemical concentrations

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150
Q

what do photoreceptors detect

A

light energy

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151
Q

where are special senses localized and confined to

A

the head region

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152
Q

where are taste receptors found

A

taste buds in the mucosa of the mouth and pharynx

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153
Q

what are the three papillae that contain taste buds

A

circumvallate
fungiform
foliate

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154
Q

what papillae do not have taste buds

A

filiform

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155
Q

what do gustatory epithelial cells have

A

long microvilli called gustatory hairs that extend through taste pore

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156
Q

what do basal epithelial cells do

A

replace old and damaged cells

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157
Q

what do dissolved molecules in saliva enter

A

taste pore

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158
Q

what happens when molecules bind to receptors on gustatory hair cells

A

action potentials are generated, sensory neurons are stimulated, signals are sent to the CNS

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159
Q

what are the 5 taste types

A

sweet, sour, salty, bitter, umami

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160
Q

what is flavor

A

a combination of taste, smell, and texture

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161
Q

what is the gustatory pathway

A

taste receptors –> sensory nerve fibers in cranial nerves –> brainstem –> thalamus –> gustatory cortex (insula)

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162
Q

which special sense does not go through the thalamus

A

smell

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163
Q

where are olfactory receptors located

A

olfactory epithelium that covers superior nasal concha and superior nasal septum

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164
Q

what kind of neurons are olfactory sensory cells

A

bipolar neurons

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165
Q

what is the purpose of olfactory stem cells

A

continually form new olfactory sensory neurons

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166
Q

what does each bipolar olfactory neuron have

A

apical dendrite that is near the surface of the epithelium and olfactory cilia

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167
Q

where are chemoreceptors located

A

on olfactory cilia

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168
Q

what is the purpose of mucus

A

trap and dissolve molecules from inhaled air

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169
Q

what are the extensions of sensory neurons in the olfactory system

A

filaments of olfactory nerve

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170
Q

where do the filaments of olfactory nerve enter the CNS

A

through the cribriform plate of ethmoid bone

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171
Q

what do the filaments of the olfactory nerve synapse with in the olfactory bulb

A

mitral cells

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172
Q

what is the glomerulus

A

where the filaments of olfactory nerve synapse with mitral cells

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173
Q

where do the extensions from mitral cells relay olfactory information to via the olfactory tract

A

limbic system
primary olfactory cortex of the temporal lobe

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174
Q

what is anosmia

A

absence of smell

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175
Q

what are three causes of anosmia

A

blow to head/whiplash
colds/allergies
zinc deficiency

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176
Q

what are uncinate fits

A

olfactory hallucinations

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177
Q

what is the cause of uncinate fits

A

brain disorders

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178
Q

what is the dominant sense in humans

A

vision

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179
Q

what is the function of eyebrows

A

shade
prevent sweat from running into eyes

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180
Q

what are the palpebrae

A

eyelids

181
Q

what is the purpose of eyelashes

A

keep foreign objects out of eye
blinking reflex

182
Q

what is the purpose of the sebaceous glands in palpebrae

A

lubricate surface of the eye

183
Q

what is a sty

A

infection of the sebaceous glands in eyelids that are associated with eyelashes

184
Q

what is the palpebral fissure

A

space between the eyelids

185
Q

what is the lacrimal caruncles

A

pink raised portion

186
Q

what is the conjunctiva

A

transparent mucous membrane that convers the inner surface of eyelids and anterior surface of the eyeball

187
Q

what is conjunctivitis

A

bacterial or viral infection of the conjunctiva

188
Q

what is the lacrimal apparatus made of

A

lacrimal gland and ducts that drain lacrimal fluid

189
Q

where is the lacrimal gland located

A

superolateral region of orbit (above eye)

190
Q

what kind of cells produce lacrimal fluid (tears)

A

serous cells

191
Q

what do tears enter as they move across the eye

A

puncta

192
Q

what is the path of tears from the puncta to the nasal cavity

A

lacrimal punctum –> lacrimal canaliculi –> lacrimal sac –> nasolacrimal duct –> nasal cavity

193
Q

what is the movement of the eye controlled by

A

6 extrinsic eye muscles

194
Q

what kind of muscles are the extrinsic eye muscles

A

skeletal muscles

195
Q

where do the extrinsic eye muscles attach

A

outer surface of the eyeball (sclera)

196
Q

what is strabismus

A

misaligned eyes (cross-eyed)

197
Q

what is a strabismus caused by

A

problem with one or more of the extrinsic eye muscles

198
Q

what are three results of a strabismus

A

double vision
lack of 3D vision
amblyopia (reduced vision in weaker eye)

199
Q

what are the three layers of the eye

A

fibrous tunic (outermost)
vascular tunic
sensory tunic (innermost)

200
Q

what is the fibrous tunic an extension of

A

the dura mater

201
Q

what are the functions of the fibrous tunic

A

protection and mechanical support

202
Q

is the fibrous tunic vascular

A

no it is avascular

203
Q

what are the two parts of the fibrous tunic

A

sclera and cornea

204
Q

what is the sclera made of

A

dense irregular CT –> opaque (white of eye)

205
Q

what is the cornea made of

A

dense regular CT –> transparent (where you see through)

206
Q

what is the sclera covered by

A

conjunctiva

207
Q

what kind of membrane is the conjunctiva

A

mucous membrane (stratified columnar with goblet cells)

208
Q

what are the three parts of the vascular tunic

A

choroid
iris
ciliary body

209
Q

what is the choroid

A

a vascular dark surface that absorbs light

210
Q

what is the iris made of

A

smooth muscle

211
Q

what does the iris do

A

contracts and enlarges to regulate light entry into eye ball (pupil changes size)

212
Q

what are melanocytes

A

brown pigment of eye color

213
Q

what is the difference between dark and light colored eyes

A

dark colored eyes have more pigment in the anterior region of the iris and light colored eyes have little to no pigment in the anterior region

214
Q

what is the ciliary body made of

A

ciliary muscle
suspensory ligaments

215
Q

what kind of muscle is the ciliary muscle

A

smooth muscle

216
Q

what do the suspensory ligaments do

A

control the shape of the lens by releasing tension to focus light on the back of the eye

217
Q

what do the capillaries within the suspensory ligaments produce

A

aqueous humor

218
Q

what is accommdation

A

lens changes shape when looking at things up close

219
Q

what happens when looking at close objects

A

ciliary muscle contracts
suspensory ligaments slacken
lens becomes round
parasympathetic control

220
Q

what happens when looking at distant objects

A

ciliary muscle relaxes
suspensory ligaments become taut
lens is flattened
sympathetic control

221
Q

what happens to the lens with age

A

it becomes less elastic (presbyopia)

222
Q

what are the two layers of the sensory tunic

A

pigmented layer and neural layer

223
Q

what is the pigmented layer of the sensory tunic

A

a single epithelial layer that contains melanin granules

224
Q

what does the pigmented layer do

A

absorbs light and nourishes the neural layer

225
Q

what kind of cells are contained in the neural layer

A

photoreceptor cells
bipolar cells
ganglion cells

226
Q

how are the direction of light and direction of stimulus related in the eye

A

they are opposite of each other

227
Q

what are photoreceptor cells activated by

A

light

228
Q

what are the two types of photoreceptors

A

rods and cones

229
Q

what are rods sensitive to

A

light

230
Q

where are rods located

A

in the periphery of the retina

231
Q

what are cones sensitive to

A

color
-blue light
-red light
-green light

232
Q

do cones function best in bright or dim light

A

bright light

233
Q

where are cones located

A

in the central part of the retina

234
Q

what are bipolar cells activated by

A

rods and cones

235
Q

what are ganglion cells activated by

A

bipolar cells

236
Q

what transmits the impulse to the brain through the optic nerve

A

axons of ganglion cells

237
Q

what do axons of ganglion cells form

A

optic nerve

238
Q

what is the pathway of stimulation from light to the brain

A

photoreceptors –> bipolar cells –> ganglion cells –> optic nerve –> brain

239
Q

what are pigments broken down by

A

different wavelengths of light

240
Q

what do cells in the retina that are not involved with vision contain

A

melanopsin

241
Q

where do signals from the circadian photoreception cells go to

A

the suprachiasmatic nucleus

242
Q

what does the suprachiasmatic nucleus signal

A

signals the pineal gland to release melatonin

243
Q

what is the visual pathway starting at the optic nerve

A

optic nerve –> optic chiasma –> optic tract –? thalamus –> optic radiations –> occipital lobe (primary visual cortex)

244
Q

what is the blind spot

A

region of retina without rods and cones where neurons leave the eyeball

245
Q

what is the optic disc

A

location where optic nerve leaves the eye
blindspot

246
Q

where is the fovea centralis located

A

in the center of the macula lutea

247
Q

where is the greatest visual acuity

A

fovea centralis

248
Q

what is age-generated macular degeneration

A

progressive deterioration of macula lutea portion of the retina

249
Q

where do we want light that enters the eye to hit

A

fovea centralis

250
Q

what happens if the focal point does not land on the fovea centralis

A

the image will be blurry

251
Q

what kind of epithelium makes up the lens

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

252
Q

what is the purpose of the ciliary body

A

change shape to focus on fovea centralis

253
Q

what does the lens separate

A

anterior segment from posterior segment

254
Q

what does the anterior segment contain

A

aqueous humor

255
Q

what does the posterior segment contain

A

vitreous humor

256
Q

what are the two chambers of the anterior segment

A

anterior chamber and posterior chamber

257
Q

what is the anterior chamber

A

portion of eye anterior to iris

258
Q

what is the posterior chamber

A

portion of eye between iris and lens

259
Q

what is aqueous humor

A

blood filtrate from ciliary bodies

260
Q

what does aqueous humor do

A

supplies nutrients and oxygen to lens and cornea

261
Q

what removes aqueous humor

A

scleral venous sinus

262
Q

what is the pathway of aqueous humor

A
  1. ciliary body produces aqueous humor
  2. aqueous humor circulated through anterior segment of the eye
  3. scleral venous sinus removes aqueous humor
263
Q

what is a glaucoma

A

condition where aqueous humor is drained slower than it is produced

264
Q

what happens to the intraocular pressure with a glaucoma

A

it is increased

265
Q

what happens when intraocular pressure is inceased

A

damages optic nerve and can cause irreversible blindness

266
Q

what is vitreous humor

A

mostly water with some collagen

267
Q

what does vitreous humor do

A

supports lens and retina and helps maintain the shape of the eyeball

268
Q

what is an emmetropic eye

A

normal vision where light focuses on the retina

269
Q

what is a myopic eye

A

nearsighted; eye too long so image focuses in front of retina

270
Q

what is a hyperopic eye

A

farsighted; eye too short so image focuses behind retina

271
Q

what is presbyopia

A

lens is less elastic with age

272
Q

what happens during lasik surgery

A

surface of cornea is reshaped using a laser to re-direct light properly onto retinal surface

273
Q

what is astigmatism

A

abnormal shape of corneal surface causing light rays to diffract differently

274
Q

what is the result of astigmatism

A

two or more focal points

275
Q

what is a detached retina

A

a hole or small tear in the retina that allows vitreous humor to leak between the pigmented and neural layers of the retina

276
Q

what is the result of a detached retina

A

photoreceptor cells will eventually die if neural layer is not reattached to the nourishing underlying layer

277
Q

what is a cataract

A

where the lens becomes cloudy

278
Q

why do cataracts occur

A

age-related damage to internal part of lens
excessive sunlight, smoking, oral steroids

279
Q

what is the treatment for a cataract

A

lens replacement

280
Q

what are the sensory functions of the ear

A

hearing
balance/equilibrium

281
Q

what are the three regions of the ear

A

external ear
middle ear
inner ear

282
Q

what is the role of the external ear

A

collects and directs sound waves

283
Q

what is the role of the middle ear

A

amplifies and transmits sound waves

284
Q

what is the role of the inner ear

A

location for sensory organs for hearing and equilibrium

285
Q

what is the auricle

A

outer fleshy portion

286
Q

what is the role of the auricle

A

protection

287
Q

what is the auricle made of

A

elastic cartilage

288
Q

what is the lobule

A

earlobe; no cartilage

289
Q

what is the external acoustic meatus

A

the air filled canal

290
Q

what kind of epithelium is in the acoustic meatus

A

stratified squamous

291
Q

what kind of glands are in the acoustic meatus

A

ceruminous glands and sebaceous glands that secrete cerumen

292
Q

what does the middle ear contain

A

auditory ossicles

293
Q

what are the auditory ossicles

A

malleus
incus
stapes

294
Q

what connects the middle ear with the pharynx

A

pharyngotympanic tube

295
Q

what are the two skeletal muscles that help damped sound

A

tensor tympani (attaches to malleus)
stapedius (attaches to stapes)

296
Q

what is the internal ear made of

A

the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth

297
Q

what are the parts of the bony labyrinth

A

semicircular canals
vestibule
cochlea

298
Q

what is the membranous labyrinth

A

membrane-walled sacs and ducts that fit loosely within the bony labyrinth

299
Q

what kind of epithelium is the membranous labyrinth made of

A

simple squamous

300
Q

what are the components of the membranous labyrinth

A

semicircular ducts
utricle and saccule
cochlear duct

301
Q

what is the membranous labyrinth filled with

A

endolymph

302
Q

what fills the space outside of the membranous labyrinth

A

perilymph

303
Q

what is the central pillar of bone in the cochlea

A

modiolus

304
Q

what is located in the modiolus

A

the cochlear nerve

305
Q

what does the cochlear duct have

A

sensory receptors for hearing

306
Q

what is the cochlear duct filled with

A

endolymph

307
Q

what are the two perilymph-filled chambers that surround the cochlear duct

A

scala vestibuli and scala tympani

308
Q

what does the base of the cochlear duct sit on

A

the basilar membrane

309
Q

what is another name for the organ of corti

A

spiral organ

310
Q

what is contained in the spiral organ

A

one row of inner hair cells
three rows of outer hair cells
stereocilia at the tips of hair cells
fibers of the cochlear nerve at the base of hair cells

311
Q

what are the stereocilia at the tips of the hair cells in the spiral organ embedded in

A

the tectorial membrane

312
Q

what is the order of the vibration of sound waves in order to hear

A

the tympanic membrane –> ossicles vibrate –> stapes pushes on oval window –> perilymph in scala vestibuli moves –> sound waves in hearing range go through cochlear duct –> AP stimulate cochlear nerve

313
Q

what causes the pitch of sound waves

A

deflection of the basilar membrane at different places

314
Q

where do low pitch (low frequency) sounds deflect

A

deep into cochlea

315
Q

where do high pitch (high frequency) sounds deflect

A

near entrance of cochlea

316
Q

what are the utricle and saccule

A

membranous structures found within a bony vestibule

317
Q

what is a macula

A

region of sensory epithelium that is contained in the utricle and saccule

318
Q

what does the utricle respond to

A

acceleration in a horizontal direction (head tilt yes)

319
Q

what does the saccule respond to

A

vertical movements (up/down an elevator)

320
Q

what are the utricle and saccule filled with

A

endolymph

321
Q

what are the 5 structures of the maculae

A

hair cells
stereocilia
supporting cells
otolith membrane
otoliths

322
Q

what do the stereocilia do in the maculae

A

embedded in the otolithic membrane to initiate an impulse when bent

323
Q

what are the supporting cells of the maculae

A

simple columnar epithelium that provides protection and support

324
Q

what is the otolith membrane

A

disc that sits on top of sensory epithelium and shifts in response to movement (bends stereocilia)

325
Q

what are otoliths

A

calcium carbonate crystals that add weight to membrane and cause a more dramatic shift

326
Q

where are the semicircular ducts located

A

within the bony semcircular canals

327
Q

what are the semicircular canals involved with

A

rotational acceleration of the head

328
Q

what is the ampulla a part of

A

semicircular canals

329
Q

what is inside each ampulla

A

crista ampullaris

330
Q

what is contained in the crista ampullaris

A

receptor cells that measure rotational acceleration

331
Q

what are the 4 main structures of the crista ampullaris

A

supporting cells
hair cells
stereocilia
ampullary cupula

332
Q

what is the ampullary cupula

A

gelatinous mass that tips under rotational forces, bending the stereocilia

333
Q

what is vertigo

A

the feeling of motion when you are not moving

334
Q

what are some causes of vertigo

A

alcohol consumption
infection
otolith from maculae can become dislodged and eventually end up near crista ampullaris where they impact cupula function

335
Q

what are the functions of the urinary system

A

filters blood and removes excess fluids, metabolic wastes, and ions

336
Q

what are the macroscopic components of the urinary system

A

kidneys
ureters
urinary bladder
urethra

337
Q

where are the kidneys located

A

behind the parietal peritoneum (retroperitoneal)

338
Q

what bones offer some protection to the kidneys

A

lower ribs

339
Q

what are the functions of the kidney

A

filter blood: removing metabolic wastes, toxins, and ions
regulate volume and chemical makeup of blood

340
Q

what is the kidney surrounded by

A

fibrous capsule made of dense irregular CT

341
Q

what is surrounding the fibrous capsule of the kidney

A

perirenal fat capsule

342
Q

what is the outer layer of the kidney called

A

renal cortex

343
Q

what are renal columns

A

extensions of the renal cortex into renal medulla

344
Q

what is the inner layer of the kidney called

A

renal medulla

345
Q

what is the renal medulla divided into

A

renal pyramids

346
Q

what separated the renal medullas

A

renal columns

347
Q

what is the tip of the renal pyramid called

A

papilla

348
Q

where does urine produced in the renal pyramids drain into

A

minor calyx

349
Q

where do the minor calices drain into

A

major calyx

350
Q

where do the major calices drain

A

renal pelvis –> ureter

351
Q

what is the main structural and functional unit of the kidney

A

nephron

352
Q

what two main things is each nephron composed of

A

renal corpuscle
renal tubule

353
Q

what is contained in the renal corpuscle

A

glomerular capsule and glomerulus (tuft of capillaries)

354
Q

what three segments is the renal tubule divided into

A

proximal convoluted tubule
nephron loop (loop of henle)
distal tubule

355
Q

what drains into the collecting duct

A

distal tubule

356
Q

what happens in the collecting duct

A

urine is concentrated

357
Q

what are the two different types of nephrons

A

cortical nephrons and juxtamedullary nephrons

358
Q

what is characteristic of cortical nephrons

A

located almost entirely in cortex
(most nephorons are cortical)

359
Q

what is characteristic of juxtamedullary nephrons

A

the renal corpuscle is near cortex-medullary border
nephron loop dips deeply into medulla

360
Q

what do long nephron loops produce

A

concentrated urine

361
Q

what do peritubular capillaries surround

A

renal tubules

362
Q

what are peritubular capillaries designed for

A

absorption and secretion

363
Q

what kind of nephrons have peritubular capillaries

A

cortical

364
Q

what do vasa recta surround

A

tubules of juxtamedullary nephrons

365
Q

what does the vasa recta branch from

A

the efferent arteriole of the nephron

366
Q

what is the function of the vasa recta

A

involved with concentrating urine

367
Q

what are the three steps of urine formation

A
  1. filtration
  2. resorption
  3. secretion
368
Q

what happens in the process of filtration

A

movement of fluids/wastes from blood capillaries into nephron and any particles small enough to move through do

369
Q

what happens in the process of resorption

A

nutrients, water, ions recovered by the body and move from the nephron back into peritubular capillaries

370
Q

what happens in the process of secretion

A

additional molecules actively and selectively moved from peritubular capillaries into the nephron to be excreted

371
Q

where does filtration occur

A

renal corpuscle (made of glomerulus and surrounded by glomerular capsule)

372
Q

what is the glomerulus

A

a ball of fenestrated capillaries

373
Q

what are the two layers of the glomerular capsule

A

parietal layer (forms outer layer of capsule)
visceral layer (surrounds capillaries)

374
Q

what is the visceral layer of the renal corpuscle made of

A

podocytes

375
Q

how does the filtrate get into capsule space

A

filtration slits

376
Q

what three things does the filtration membrane consist of

A

fenestrated epithelium
filtration slits
basement membrane

377
Q

what is the basement membrane of the filtration membrane made of

A

fused basal laminae of epithelium and podocyte epithelium

378
Q

what pushed small molecules through the filtration membrane

A

pressure within the arterial system

379
Q

what is filtrate

A

the small proteins and molecules that are able to pass through the filtration membrane

380
Q

what is the proximal convoluted tubule involved in

A

resorption and secretion

381
Q

what is the proximal convoluted tubule made of

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

382
Q

what is the thin segment of the descending nephron loop involved in

A

resorption and secretion

383
Q

t is the thin segment of the descending nephron loop made of

A

simple squamous epithelium

384
Q

what is the ascending nephron loop involved in

A

resorption and secretion

385
Q

what are the walls of the ascending nephron loop made of

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

386
Q

what is the distal convoluted tubule involved in

A

resorption and secretion

387
Q

what are the walls of the distal convoluted tubule made of

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

388
Q

what empties into one collecting duct

A

several nephron

389
Q

what is the collecting duct made of

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

390
Q

what are kidney stones

A

precipitate of urine (most commonly from calcium)

391
Q

what happens if kidney stones block ureter

A

urine can collect in renal pelvis

392
Q

what is the role of the ureter

A

drains urine from renal pelvis

393
Q

ureter lined with

A

transitional epithelium

394
Q

what is the urinary bladder

A

muscular sac that collects and stores urine

395
Q

what are the three muscles of the urinary bladder

A

detrusor muscle
internal urethral sphincter
external urethral sphincter

396
Q

what is the role of the detrusor

A

signals contraction when bladder is stretched (parasympathetic control)

397
Q

what is the role of the internal urethral sphincter

A

signals contraction when bladder is filling (under sympathetic control)
-smooth muscle –> involuntary

398
Q

what is the role of the external urethral sphincter

A

to help us control urine output
-skeletal muscle –> voluntary

399
Q

what is the role of the urethra

A

drains the urinary bladder

400
Q

what is the female urethra made of

A

transitional epithelium close to bladder and stratified squamous near opening of body

401
Q

what is the role of the internal urethral sphincter in the female urethra

A

keeps urethra closed when urine is not passing through

402
Q

what does the male urethra carry

A

urine and semen

403
Q

what are the three different regions of the male urethra

A

prostatic urethra
intermediate part of urethra (membranous urethra)
spongy urethra

404
Q

what is the main role of all primary reproductive organs

A

produce gametes

405
Q

what is the male primary reproductive organ

A

testes (produce sperm)

406
Q

what is the female primary reproductive organ

A

ovaries (produce oocytes/eggs)

407
Q

what is the scrotum

A

a pouch outside the body that contains testis and epididymis

408
Q

where is sperm produced

A

testis

409
Q

where is the site for sperm storage and maturation

A

epididymis

410
Q

what two muscles control the placement of the scrotum

A

dartos muscle and cremastor muscle

411
Q

what does the dartos muscle do

A

smooth muscle that wrinkles scrotal skin to increase thickness for warmth

412
Q

what does the cremastor muscle do

A

skeletal muscle that elevated testes for warmth

413
Q

what is the pampiniform plexus

A

venous network that absorbs hear from arterial blood supply to testis

414
Q

where does the testes descend through during pregnancy

A

inguinal canal

415
Q

what is the testis divided into

A

multiple lobules

416
Q

what does each lobule contain

A

one to four seminiferous tubules which produce sperm

417
Q

what is the passageway of sperm starting at the epididymis

A

epididymis –> ductus deferens –> inguinal canal

418
Q

where is the ductus deferens located

A

in the spermatic cord

419
Q

hat is the spermatic cord

A

tube of fascia that contains blood vessels, nerves, and the ductus deferens

420
Q

what does the prostatic urethra pass through

A

prostate gland

421
Q

what does the membranous urethra pass through

A

the pelvic floor

422
Q

what does the spongy urethra pass through

A

penile tissue

423
Q

where does the male urethra end

A

external urethral orifice

424
Q

what is the penis made of

A

erectile tissue

425
Q

what is erectile tissue

A

smooth muscle and connective tissue surrounded by dense CT
(vascular spaces fill with blood)

426
Q

what is the corpus cavernosum

A

paired, primary erectile bodies

427
Q

what is the purpose of the corpus spongiosum

A

keeps urethra open during ejactulation

428
Q

what is the vulva

A

external genitalia

429
Q

what are the labia majora and labia minora

A

outer folds
inner folds

430
Q

what is the clitoris

A

erectile tissue

431
Q

what is released from the ovary into the pelvic cavity

A

an oocyte

432
Q

what takes the oocyte from the ovary to the uterus

A

uterine tube

433
Q

where does fertilization occur

A

in the uterine tube

434
Q

hat lines the uterine tube

A

ciliated columnar epithelium

435
Q

what are fimbriae

A

ciliated edges of uterine tube that create a current to draw oocyte up into tube

436
Q

how does the egg move through the uterine tube

A

assistance of cilia and smooth muscle contractions

437
Q

where does the fertilized embryo implant

A

uterus

438
Q

where does embryonic development occur

A

uterus

439
Q

where does the uterus sit

A

on top of the urinary bladder

440
Q

what are the three regions of the uterus

A

fundus
body
cervix

441
Q

t are the three layers of the uterine wall

A

perimetrium
myometrium
endometrium

442
Q

what is the perimetrium of the uterus

A

outer layer; visceral peritoneum (serous membrane)

443
Q

what is the myometrium of the uterus

A

smooth muscle layer

444
Q

hat is the endometrium of the uterus

A

inner lining that changes in response to hormones
simple columnar epithelium on top of the functional and basal layers

445
Q

what is the functional layer of the endometrium

A

lamina propria that thickens and sheds due to hormonal control

446
Q

what is the basal layer of the endometrium

A

region of lamina propria that does not shed

447
Q

what is the cervix

A

lower portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina

448
Q

what is the vagina

A

external opening of the female reproductive system

449
Q

what is the vagina lined with

A

stratified squamous epithelium