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Anatomy > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the hierarchy of structural organization

A

chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

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2
Q

what is the tissue level

A

group of cells that work together for a common function

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3
Q

what is the organ level

A

a discrete structure made of more than one tissue functioning together

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4
Q

what is the organ system level

A

group of organs functioning together

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5
Q

what are the functions of the plasma membrane

A
  1. separates intracellular components (cytoplasm) from extracellular components
  2. regulates what can enter/exit the cell
  3. provides a protective barrier for the cell
  4. involved in intercellular communication
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6
Q

what are the 4 things that make up the structure of the plasma membrane

A

phospholipid bilayer, proteins, cholesterol. glycocalyx

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7
Q

what are the two layers of the phospholipid bilayer

A

hydrophobic tails (no water)
hydrophilic heads (water)

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8
Q

where is the cytoplasm

A

between the plasma membrane and the nucleus

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9
Q

what is the cytoplasm made of

A

cytosol, organelles, inclusions

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10
Q

what is the purpose of the rough ER

A

the ribosomes attached to the RER make proteins

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11
Q

does the smooth ER have ribosomes

A

no

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12
Q

what is the function of the golgi apparatus

A

receives material from RER in membrane-bound vesicles, then sorts, processes, and packages proteins and membranes

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13
Q

what is the function of the mitochondria

A

ATP is produced

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14
Q

what is the function of the lysosomes

A

contain digestive enzymes, breakdown of products

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15
Q

what are the three different parts of the cytoskeleton

A

microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments

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16
Q

describe microtubules

A

hollow tubes of tubulin protein, largest diameter, responsible for the shape of the cell and organelle attachment

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17
Q

describe intermediate filaments

A

protein fibers wound like a rope, medium size, resists pulling forces

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18
Q

describe microfilaments

A

smallest in diameter, made of protein actin, involved in cell movement

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19
Q

what are cytoplasmic inclusions

A

inclusions: temporary structures
contents vary depending on cell function

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20
Q

what is the function of the nucleus

A

contains DNA

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21
Q

what is the function of the nucleolus

A

produces ribosomal RNA, site of ribosome subunit assembly, subunits leave nucleus through nuclear pores

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22
Q

how do cells connect to eachother

A

cell junctions

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23
Q

what are tight junctions

A

junction on apical cell regions that prevents substances from moving between adjacent cells

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24
Q

what are desmosomes

A

junctions that bind adjacent cells together
linker proteins zip together
tissue acts as one sheet

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25
Q

what are gap junctions

A

allow ions and small molecules to move from cell to cell through small channels, involved in intercellular communication

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26
Q

what is arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia

A

desmosomes typically connect cardiac muscle cells but the mutation affects the linker proteins on desmosomes. presents in right ventricle and the muscle tissue in right ventricle becomes very think which results in right ventricular failure

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27
Q

what are the special characteristics of epithelial tissue

A

polarity, cellularity, cell junctions, connective tissue support, avascular, innervated, highly regenerative

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28
Q

what is a tissue

A

group of cells of similar structure that perform a common function

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29
Q

what are the four tissue types

A

nervous, connective, epithelial, muscle

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30
Q

which side of the epithelial tissue will face the lumen. which side will face away from the lumen

A

apical surface will face toward lumen
basal surface will face away from the lumen

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31
Q

does epithelial tissue have blood. does it have nerves

A

no it is avascular
yes it is innervated

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32
Q

how does epithelial tissue have a highly regenerative capacity

A

uses blood supply from the underlying connective tissue

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33
Q

what is the basal lamina

A

noncellular sheet made of proteins

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34
Q

what are the functions of the basal lamina

A

selective filter
scaffolding for new, migrating epithelial cells

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35
Q

what is the basement membrane made of

A

basal lamina and reticular fibers

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36
Q

what does the basement membrane do

A

separates the epithelial tissue from the connective tissue

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37
Q

describe microvilli

A

folds of plasma membrane
increase surface area to increase absorption or secretion
dont move
smaller than cilia

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38
Q

describe cilia

A

whip like, highly mobile extensions of plasma membrane
moves fluid/substances in one direction

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39
Q

what is celiac disease

A

genetic autoimmune disease where the body attacks and destroys the villi and microvilli of the small intestine in response to gluten

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40
Q

in naming epithelial tissue, how do you describe 1 layer? 2 layers?

A

1 layer: simple
2 layers: stratified

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41
Q

in naming epithelial tissue, how do you describe 1 layer? 2 layers?

A

1 layer: simple
2 layers: stratified

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42
Q

what are the different names given to the shapes of epithelial cells

A

squamous: flat
cuboidal: cube-shaped
columnar: taller than wide

*stratified epithelium is named for the cell shape on the apical surface

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43
Q

describe simple squamous epithelium (functions, shape, layers)

A

single layer, flattened cells
diffusion in lungs
filtration in kidneys
secretion in serous membranes

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44
Q

describe simple cuboidal epithelium (functions, shape, layers)

A

single layer, cube shaped cells
absorption in kidneys
secretion in some glands

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45
Q

describe simple columnar epithelium (functions, shape, layers)

A

single layer, tall cells
may have cilia or microvilli
absorption in GI tract
movement in lungs or uterine tubes
secretion of mucus

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46
Q

describe pseudostratified columnar epithelium (functions, shape, layers)

A

single later, varying heights
all cells sit on basement membrane (one layer)
secretion and movement in respiratory tract
usually ciliated

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47
Q

describe stratified epithelia

A

two or more layers
basal layer: germinating layer
apical layer: oldest cells
often associated with protection

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48
Q

describe stratified squamous epithelium (functions, shape, layers)

A

multiple layers
apical layer flat
may be keratinized
protection of epidermis of skin, oral cavity, esophagus

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49
Q

describe stratified cuboidal epithelium (functions, shape, layers)

A

two layers, cube shaped
protection and secretion of salivary glands

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50
Q

describe stratified columnar epithelium (functions, shape, layers)

A

several layers, apical layer tall
not common
protection in male urethra
secretion in ducts of some glands

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51
Q

describe transitional epithelium (functions, shape, layers)

A

multiple layers, change shape when stretched
unique to urinary system
lines urinary bladder to allow distention

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52
Q

what are the different types of epithelium

A

membranous epithelium and glandular epithelium

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53
Q

what is membranous epithelium

A

majority of body coverings and linings

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54
Q

what is glandular epithelium

A

specialized epithelial tissue that produces glandular secretions

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55
Q

what are the two types of glands

A

endocrine and exocrine

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56
Q

what are all glands lined by

A

epithelium

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57
Q

what are the characteristics of endocrine glands

A

lack ducts because they release hormones directly into the bloodstream
(hormones pass into surrounding tissues and blood vessels)

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58
Q

what are the characteristics of exocrine glands

A

secrete via ducts into body cavities or onto a body surface

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59
Q

what are the two different types of exocrine glands

A

unicellular glands and multicellular glands

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60
Q

what are the characteristics of unicellular glands

A

shaped like a goblet
produce mucus
found in respiratory and digestive tracts

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61
Q

what are the types of multicellular glands

A

structure names: simple (unbranched) or compound (branched)
shape of secretory units names: tubular (tube shaped) or alveolar (spherical)

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62
Q

what are the different kinds of connective tissue

A

loose connective tissue, bone, cartilage, blood

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63
Q

what are the functions of connective tissue

A

connects other tissues and organs together, forms skeleton, carries and stores nutrients, supports blood vessels and nerves

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64
Q

what is the extracellular matrix composed of

A

ground substance and protein fibers

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65
Q

is the extracellular matrix considered a living part of connective tissue

A

no, it is is non living part of CT

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66
Q

what is ground substance

A

substance in the extracellular matrix that varies with the tissue
jelly-like: CT proper and cartilage
fluid: blood
mineralized: bone

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67
Q

what do protein fibers do for the extracellular matrix

A

provide strength and flexibility

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68
Q

what are the types of protein fibers in the extracellular matrix

A

collagen fibers, elastic fibers, reticular fibers

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69
Q

what are the characteristics of collagen fibers

A

strongest
most abundant
ex: found in tendons

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70
Q

what are the characteristics of elastic fibers

A

ability to stretch and recoil

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71
Q

what are the characteristics of reticular fibers

A

short
support network
surround things in the body

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72
Q

what embryonic tissue does all connective tissue originate from

A

mesenchyme

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73
Q

what does the suffix “blast” mean

A

producing the EC matrix

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74
Q

what does the suffix “cyte” mean

A

maintaining the EC matrix

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75
Q

what does the suffix “clast” mean

A

breaking down the EC matrix

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76
Q

what does the prefix “fibro” mean

A

cell type in CT proper

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77
Q

what does the prefix “chondro” mean

A

cell type in cartilage

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78
Q

what does the prefix “osteo” mean

A

cell type in bone

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79
Q

what does the prefix “adipo” mean

A

cell type in adipose (fat)

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80
Q

what are other cell types in CT tissues besides the main four

A

defense cells (macrophages and other WBC)

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81
Q

do blood cells produce the liquid part of blood? if not what do they do

A

no they do not produce the liquid part of blood
they carry gases and are involved in defense and clotting

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82
Q

where does plasma (the liquid in blood) come from

A

the GI tract

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83
Q

where are blood cells produced

A

in red bone marrow

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84
Q

what are the classes of connective tissue

A

connective tissue proper, cartilage, bone, blood

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85
Q

what are the types of connective tissue proper

A

loose CT
dense CT

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86
Q

what are the types of cartilage

A

hyaline
fibrocartilage
elastic

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87
Q

what are the types of bone

A

compact
spongy

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88
Q

what are the types of loose connective tissue

A

areolar
adipose
reticular

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89
Q

what are the types of dense connective tissue

A

regular
irregular
elastic

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90
Q

which connective tissue is the most widespread

A

areolar (loose CT -> CT proper)

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91
Q

what are the functions of areolar CT

A

ground substance holds fluid
serves as packing material around organs
involved in immunity and inflammation

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92
Q

what is the fluid that is found in areolar CT called

A

interstitial fluid (fluid surrounds cells in a tissue)

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93
Q

where is areolar tissue found

A

underneath most epithelia
surrounding nerves and blood vessels

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94
Q

what is adipose tissue made from

A

many adipocytes filled with lipids

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95
Q

why is adipose tissue well vascularized

A

the body needs access to fat for energy and it accessing fat by the blood supply

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96
Q

what are the functions of adipose tissue

A

protection of organs
energy source

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97
Q

where is adipose tissue located

A

hypodermis
visceral fat
around highly active organs (ex: kidney, heart)

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98
Q

what are the two types of adipose tissue

A

white adipose
brown adipose

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99
Q

what is the difference between white adipose and brown adipose

A

white adipose: most fat, stores lipids as nutrients
brown adipose: produces heat and is a nutrient consumer

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100
Q

where is brow adipose located

A

between shoulder blades, anterior of neck, anterior abdominal wall

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101
Q

do babies have more white or brown adipose

A

brown

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102
Q

what kind of fibers does reticular CT contain

A

reticular fibers

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103
Q

what is the function of reticular CT and how is it achieved

A

forms a soft internal skeleton by creating a 3D network filled with cells

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104
Q

where is reticular CT located

A

lymphoid organs (spleen, bone marrow, lymph nodes)

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105
Q

what is the major characteristic of dense regular CT

A

collagen fibers run parallel to each other

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106
Q

what is the major function of dense regular CT

A

provides strength in one direction

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107
Q

where is dense regular CT located

A

tendons and ligaments (slow to heal because limited blood supply)

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108
Q

what is the main characteristic of dense irregular CT

A

collagen fibers run in many different directions (not parallel)

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109
Q

what is the main function of dense irregular CT

A

able to resist strong tensions from different directions

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110
Q

where is dense irregular CT found

A

dermis
joint capsules
overlying capsules of kidney and spleen

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111
Q

what type of fibers are in dense elastic CT

A

elastic fibers

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112
Q

what is the function of dense elastic CT

A

withstand stretch and capable of recoil

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113
Q

where is dense elastic CT found

A

elastic arteries (ex: aorta)

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114
Q

what are the characteristics of cartilage and where is it found

A

firm flexible tissue
found in parts of the skeleton

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115
Q

what is the matrix of cartilage mostly made of and why

A

water because it allows for compression and rebound

116
Q

what is bone made of

A

calcium salts (mineralized) and collagen fibers
cells (cytes, blasts, clasts)

117
Q

why is blood considered connective tissue

A

it developed from mesenchyme and consists of blood cells surrounded by a nonliving matrix (plasma)

118
Q

what are leukocytes

A

white blood cells
immune response

119
Q

what are erythrocytes

A

red blood cells
carry oxygen

120
Q

what are thrombocytes

A

plasma
clotting

121
Q

what does fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva mean

A

fibers are replaced by bone tissue

122
Q

what becomes difficult with fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva

A

movement

123
Q

what are membranes made of

A

epithelial and underlying CT proper

124
Q

what are the three types of membranes

A

cutaneous (skin)
mucous
serous

125
Q

what is the cutaneous membrane

A

skin

126
Q

what tissue types is the cutaneous membrane made of

A

epidermis (stratified squamous) and dermis (dense irregular CT)

127
Q

what does the mucous membrane cover

A

lines organs and cavities that open to the outside of the body

128
Q

what is the lamina propria

A

epithelial sheet that covers underlying loose areolar tissue

129
Q

what does the epithelial sheet produce in the mucus membrane

A

mucus

130
Q

where are mucous membranes found

A

respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems

131
Q

what do serous membranes cover

A

line closed cavities and their organs

132
Q

what kind of tissue are serous membranes made from

A

simple squamous overlying loose areolar

133
Q

what does the epithelium of a serous membrane produce and why

A

slippery serous fluid that reduces friction

134
Q

what are some examples of where you can find serous membranes

A

surrounding the lungs
surrounding the heart

135
Q

what are the different components of the serous membrane

A

visceral serous membrane
parietal serous membrane
serous fluid

136
Q

where is the visceral serous membrane found

A

closest to the organ

137
Q

where is the parietal serous membrane found

A

farthest from the organ

138
Q

where is serous fluid found

A

between the visceral and parietal serous membranes

139
Q

what are different types of serous membranes

A

pericardium
pleura
peritoneum

140
Q

where is the pericardium found

A

heart

141
Q

where is the pleura found

A

lungs

142
Q

where is the peritoneum found

A

abdominal/pelvic cavity

143
Q

what is the pericardial cavity filled with and why

A

pericardial fluid to reduce friction with contractions

144
Q

what is pericarditis

A

inflammation of the pericardium
-slippery fluid is not there so it creates friction with each contraction

145
Q

what fills the pleura cavity and why

A

pleural fluid to reduce friction with breathing

146
Q

what is pleurisy

A

inflammation of the pleura

147
Q

what is a pneumothorax

A

air of blood fills the pleural cavity
can cause a lung to collapse or pull away from the thoracic wall
-lungs do not stay inflated

148
Q

what fills the peritoneum

A

peritoneal fluid

149
Q

what does the visceral peritoneum cover

A

organs

150
Q

what does the parietal peritoneum line

A

abdominopelvic wall and diaphragm

151
Q

what is peritonitis

A

inflammation of the peritoneum

152
Q

what does the integument cover

A

the surface of the entire body

153
Q

is the hypodermis a part of the integument

A

no

154
Q

what are the functions of the integument

A

protection (prevents bumps/scrapes, keeps out microorganisms, prevents dehydration, protects against UV radiation)
regulates body temp
excretion of wastes through sweat
synthesizes vitamin D
sensory reception

155
Q

what are the different kinds of epidermal cells

A

keratinocytes
melanocytes
tactile epithelial cells (merkel cells)
dendritic cells

156
Q

what is the most abundant type of epidermal cell

A

keratinocyte

157
Q

what do keratinocytes produce

A

keratin

158
Q

what do melanocytes produce

A

melanin

159
Q

where are melanocytes located

A

stratum basale

160
Q

what is melanin consumed by

A

nearby keratinocytes

161
Q

what are tactile epithelial cells (merkel cells)

A

sensory touch receptors that are associated with a nerve ending

162
Q

where are tactile epithelial cells found

A

stratum basale

163
Q

what are dendritic cells

A

part of the immune system

164
Q

where are dendritic cells primarily found

A

stratum spinosum

165
Q

what are the epidermal layers from superficial to deep

A

stratum corneum
stratum lucidum
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosum
stratum basale

166
Q

what are characteristics of the stratum corneum

A

many layers thick
dead keratinocytes full of keratin
glycolipids between the cells add waterproofing

167
Q

what are the characteristics of stratum lucidum

A

only in thick skin (palms, soles)
appear as translucent band

168
Q

what are the characteristics of stratum granulosum

A

1-5 layers flattened keratinocytes
contain keratohyalin granules (protection) and lamellar granules (waterproofing)

169
Q

what are the characteristics of the stratum spinosum

A

several layers of cells
spiny looking cells caused by tissue preparation
some dendritic cells

170
Q

what are characteristics of stratum basale

A

deepest, 1 layer
high mitotic activity
mostly keratinocytes but has some melanocytes and tactile epithelial cells
desmosomes hold cells together

171
Q

what are keratohyaline granules

A

form keratin (tough protein) for protection

172
Q

what are lamellated granules

A

produce a waterproofing glycolipid which is moved outside the cell

173
Q

what are the characteristics of thick skin

A

all 5 epithelial strata
found in areas subject to pressure or friction
does not have hair

174
Q

where is thick skin found

A

palms of hands, soles of feet, fingertips

175
Q

what are characteristics of thin skin

A

more flexible and thinner layers (no stratum lucidum)
covers rest of body
has hair

176
Q

what causes a callus

A

the stratum corneum is thicker

177
Q

what causes corns

A

stratum corneum is thicker over a bony prominence

178
Q

what causes a blister

A

small fluid pocket between the dermis and epidermis

179
Q

what are the layers of the dermis

A

papillary layer
reticular layer

180
Q

what kind of tissue is the papillary layer made of

A

loose areolar CT

181
Q

what is the purpose of the papillae on the papillary layer

A

increase surface area to facilitate diffusion of nutrients to the epidermis

182
Q

what part of the papillary layer strengthens the dermal-epidermal connection to reduce blister formation

A

papillae

183
Q

what is the purpose of the ridges visible on palms, soles, and ends of digits

A

increase friction for gripping
sweat pores produce fingerprints

184
Q

what kind of tissue is the reticular layer of the dermis made of

A

dense irregular CT

185
Q

what kind of fibers are found in the reticular layer of the dermis for strength

A

collagen fibers

186
Q

what are cleavage lines

A

offer strength to the dermis in the direction of the collagen fibers by being oriented in different directions on different parts of the body

187
Q

what are striae

A

stretch marks: the pulling of cleavage lines apart so you can see in between them

188
Q

does the hypodermis have blood vessels

A

yes

189
Q

what are other names for the hypodermis

A

superficial fascia
subcutaneous layer

190
Q

what kind of tissue is the hypodermis made of

A

areolar and adipose CT

191
Q

what is the purpose of the hypodermis

A

connects skin to underlying structures
offers protection from bumps

192
Q

describe each degree of burn

A

first degree: only epidermis damaged
second degree: epidermis and upper part of dermis (often has blisters)
third degree: both epidermis and all of dermis is damaged
fourth degree: epidermis, dermis, and underlying tissues are damaged

193
Q

what are the three different types of skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma
squamous cell carcinoma
melanoma

194
Q

describe basal cell carcinoma

A

abnormal cells of stratum basale grow into dermis and hypodermis
most common
metastasis unlikely

195
Q

describe squamous cell carcinoma

A

arises from keratinocytes of stratum spinosum
grows quickly, can metastisize

196
Q

describe melanoma

A

arises from melanocytes
have ability to migrate to other parts of the body
quick to metastisize

197
Q

what are nails made of

A

hard keratin

198
Q

what is the nail plate

A

part of nail you can see

199
Q

what is the nail root

A

the part of the nail hidden right under the skin (proximal nail fold)

200
Q

what is the nail bed and why is it pink

A

the part that the nail sits on
pink because of the blood supply in dermis

201
Q

what is the nail matrix

A

the site of growth (behind the nail root)

202
Q

what is the eponychium

A

the cuticle

203
Q

what are the functions of hair

A

sense light touch
protect head from direct sunlight and heat loss
eyelashes protect eyes
nose hairs filter air

204
Q

what are the two different types of hair

A

vellus (fine body hair)
terminal (course hair)

205
Q

what is hair made of

A

dead keratinized cells

206
Q

what are the three regions of hair

A

root (below skin)
shaft (above skin)
hair follicle (extends from epidermis into dermis and surrounds hair root)

207
Q

what are the layers of hair

A

cuticle (outermost layer, site of split ends)
cortex (several layers of flattened cells)
medulla (large cells and air spaces, centermost)

208
Q

what are the components of the hair follicle

A

dermal: connective tissue root sheath
glassy membrane: basement membrane
epidermal: external epithelial root sheath and internal epithelial root sheath

209
Q

what is the root hair plexus and when is it stimulated

A

a knot of sensory nerve endings that wraps around each hair bulb
stimulated when the hair shaft is bent

210
Q

what is the dermal papilla

A

has very rich capillary supply
provides nutrients to the newly dividing cells of the hair matrix

211
Q

where are new hair cells formed

A

hair matrix

212
Q

how does hair grow

A

in cycles that have a growth stage and a resting stage

213
Q

what determines hair color

A

melanocytes on dermal papilla produce pigment granules that are added to hair
different colors are due to varying amounts and types of melanin

214
Q

what is alopecia

A

hair loss

215
Q

what is androgenic alopecia

A

male pattern baldness

216
Q

what are the arrector pili muscles

A

smooth muscle attached to the hair follicle
occurs in response to cold or fear

217
Q

what is piloerection

A

when hair stands up
evolutionarily used to make small animals (cats) look larger

218
Q

what are the two types of glands found in the skin

A

sebaceous glands and sweat glands

219
Q

what are sebaceous glands and where are they found

A

produce sebum that is emptied into hair follicle
found everywhere except palms and soles

220
Q

what is sebum

A

oily substance that softens hair
has antibacterial properties
production is stimulated by androgens (hormones)

221
Q

what is the difference between eccrine and apocrine sweat glands

A

eccrine: produce sweat that empties into body via pore
apocrine: empties into hair follicles via a long duct

222
Q

where are apocrine glands found

A

axillary, genital, anal regions

223
Q

which type of sweat glands are most numerous

A

eccrine (aka sudoriferous)

224
Q

what are the components of the skeletal system

A

bones and cartilage
also nerves, blood vessels, epithelial tissue

225
Q

what are the three types of cartilage

A

hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage

226
Q

what is hyaline cartilage made of and what is its function

A

made of mostly collagen fibers
is a firm matrix that resists compression

227
Q

which cartilage type is most abundant

A

hyaline

228
Q

where is hyaline cartilage found

A

nose, articular cartilage of a joint, costal (ribs), thyroid, cricoid, trachea

229
Q

where is elastic cartilage found

A

external ear, epiglottis

230
Q

what is elastic cartilage’s function and what is it made of

A

mostly elastic fibers, some collagen
it is able to withstand repeated bending

231
Q

where is fibrocartilage found

A

intervertebral discs, public symphysis, meniscus

232
Q

what is fibrocartilage made of and what is its function

A

higher concentration of collagen fibers, no elastic fibers
resists tension and absorbs compressive forces

233
Q

what is cauliflower ear

A

perichondrium separates from the deeper elastic cartilage resulting in a hematoma and swelling

234
Q

what are the functions of the skeleton

A

support, movement, protection, mineral reservoir, hemopoiesis (produces new blood cells), energy storage (fat stored in yellow bone marrow), endocrine (osteoblasts secrete hormones to regulate blood sugar)

235
Q

what are the two types of bone

A

compact and spongy

236
Q

what is spongy bone and where is it found

A

loosely organized rods of bone called trabeculae
found in epiphyses of long bones and in the interior of flat, short, or irregular bones

237
Q

what is compact bone and where is it found

A

lines the outer surface of bones

238
Q

what is spongy bone better for

A

resisting forces from multiple directions
forming a lighter skeleton

239
Q

what is compact bone better for

A

resisting forces in one direction
storage of minerals in the matrix

240
Q

what are trabeculae, what do they contain, and what are the spaces in between trabeculae called

A

the “bone” part in spongy bone
they contain osteocytes
the spaces contain red bone marrow

241
Q

trabeculae are formed in response to __________

A

stressed placed on the bone (gravity/weight)

242
Q

what is compact bone made of

A

osteons

243
Q

what is an osteon

A

make up compact bone
long, cylindrical
run parallel to long axis of the bone

244
Q

what are the concentric circles in an osteon called

A

lamellae

245
Q

what form between adjacent lamellae

A

lacunae

246
Q

what lives in lacunae

A

osteocytes (surrounded by extracellular matrix)

247
Q

what are lacunae connected by and what is the purpose

A

canaliculi
allow movement of nutrients and communication between osteocytes

248
Q

what is in the central canal of an osteon

A

blood vessels (vein, artery) and nerves

249
Q

how do blood vessels reach the central canals

A

perforating canals

250
Q

how do nutrients get to osteocytes

A

diffuse through canaliculis

251
Q

what are interstitial lamellae

A

remnants of old osteons

252
Q

what are circumferential lamellae

A

rings around the circumference of diaphysis

253
Q

what causes compact bone to be strong

A

the collagen fibers in adjacent lamellae run perpendicular to one another

254
Q

what are examples of long bones

A

ulna, radius, femur

255
Q

what are examples of short bones

A

talus (tarsal)
capitate (carpal)

256
Q

what are examples of flat bones

A

scapula, sternum

257
Q

what are examples of irregular bones

A

sphenoid bones in skull, vertebra

258
Q

where are spongy and compact bone found in long bones

A

spongy: epiphysis
compact: diaphysis

259
Q

what is the epiphyseal line/plate

A

separates epiphysis from diaphysis

260
Q

what is articular cartilage

A

cartilage that covers the articulating surface of the bone

261
Q

what is the medullary cavity

A

in diaphysis
in adults: filled with yellow marrow (adipocytes)
in children: filled with red bone marrow (hematopoiesis)

262
Q

what is the periosteum

A

surrounds outer compact bone (except where the articular cartilage is present)

263
Q

what is the periosteum made of

A

dense irregular CT

264
Q

what attached the periosteum to bone

A

perforating fibers

265
Q

where are osteoblasts and osteoclasts located

A

under the endosteum

266
Q

what is the endosteum

A

lines inner surfaces of the bone (including trabeculae)

267
Q

what is the endosteum made of

A

thinner dense CT

268
Q

how does blood supply get to long bones

A

nutrient arteries (pierce periosteum) –> perforating arteries (inside perforating canal) –> central canal
–> canaliculi –> osteoclasts

269
Q

what is the difference between the epiphyseal plate and the epiphyseal line

A

the plate is the growth plate, site of active growth in long bone
the line is when the growth plate becomes ossified (the growth length is complete)

270
Q

what are the layers of the epiphyseal plate of a growing long bone

A

epiphysis
resting zone
proliferation zone
hypertrophic zone
calcification zone
ossification zone
diaphysis

271
Q

what occurs in the proliferation zone (long bones)

A

cartilage cells undergo mitosis

272
Q

what occurs in the hypertrophic zone (long bones)

A

older cartilage cells enlarge

273
Q

what occurs in the calcification zone (long bone)

A

matrix becomes calcified, cartilage cells die, matrix begins deteriorating

274
Q

what occurs in the ossification zone

A

new bone formation is occuring

275
Q

what is intramembranous ossification

A

in fetal development when connective tissue membranes are replaced by bone
most of skull and clavicle form this way

276
Q

what are fontanels

A

remnants of CT membrane in baby (soft spots on head)

277
Q

what are the 4 steps of intramembranous ossification

A
  1. ossification centers develop in fibrous CT
  2. organic component is secreted then is calcified
  3. immature bone is formed
  4. woven bone is remodeled into compact bone
278
Q

what is endochondral ossification

A

part of fetal bone growth that most of the skeleton forms from
uses hyaline cartilage as a template
epiphyseal plate is remnant of hyaline skeleton

279
Q

where does remodeling of bones occur

A

under periosteum and endosteum

280
Q

how do osteoclasts release minerals from the matrix

A

secrete HCl with dissolves and releases the minerals

281
Q

how do osteoblasts fill matrix with minerals

A

lay down organic osteoid

282
Q

what are the 4 steps of bone fracture healing

A
  1. hematoma forms
  2. fibrocartilaginous callus forms (dense CT with hyaline and fibrocartilage)
  3. bony callus forms (trabeculae of spongy bone first to form)
  4. bone remodeling occurs
283
Q

what is osteoporosis

A

pits on surface of bone indicate where osteoclasts have broken down the matrix
osteoclasts outpace osteoblasts
causes: low hormone levels, limited Ca, genetic

284
Q

what is osteomalacia

A

bowed long bones in children
results because of nutritional or UV deficiency
not enough calcium to form hard matrix (vitamin D deficiency)

285
Q

what is paget’s disease

A

excessive remodeling of bone in an unorganized fashion
deformed –> immature woven bone replaces compact bone
enlarged bone
causes: genetic or viral

286
Q

what is part of your axial skeleton

A

skull, vertebral column, thoracic cage

287
Q

what is part of your appendicular skeleton

A

pectoral girdle
upper limbs
pelvic girdle
lower limbs

Anatomy (5 decks)

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