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Anatomy > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the four functions of the respiratory system

A
  1. bring in oxygen and remove carbon dioxide
  2. sound production
  3. smell
  4. protection of airway via coughing and sneezing
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2
Q

what are the three types of respiration

A

ventilation, gas exchange, oxygen utilization by cells

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3
Q

what is ventilation

A

breathing (inhalation and exhalation)

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4
Q

what is gas exchange`

A

external and internal respiration

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5
Q

what does external respiration occur between

A

air and red blood cells in the lungs

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6
Q

where does the gas exchange occur in internal respiration

A

between red blood cells and the body tissues outside of the lungs

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7
Q

what are the two zones that the respiratory system is divided into

A

conducting zone
respiratory zone

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8
Q

what is the conducting zone

A

the respiratory passages that transport air
-filter out dust
-humidify and warm incoming air

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9
Q

what is the respiratory zone

A

site of gas exchange in the lungs

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10
Q

what are the structures of the conducting zone in order of passage of inhalation

A

nasal cavity
pharynx
larynx
trachea
main bronchi
lobar bronchi
segmental bronchi
bronchioles
terminal bronchioles

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11
Q

which structures of the conducting zone are closest to the respiratory zone

A

bronchioles and terminal bronchioles

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12
Q

what structures of the conducting zone are a part of the respiratory tree

A

main bronchi, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles

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13
Q

what structures are a part of the respiratory zone

A

respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli

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14
Q

what is a cluster of alveoli called

A

alveolar sac

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15
Q

what kind of membrane are the lungs lines with

A

pleural membranes

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16
Q

what is the visceral pleura

A

the serous membrane surrounding the lungs

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17
Q

what is the parietal pleura

A

serous membrane lining the cavity

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18
Q

what two things are included in the parietal pleura

A

thoracic wall
mediasteum

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19
Q

what is located between the visceral and parietal pleura

A

pleural fluid

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20
Q

what is the purpose of pleural fluid

A

causes the lungs to inflate with breathing (vacuum)

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21
Q

what is a pneumothorax

A

when the negative pressure between the visceral and parietal pleura is broken and a lung collapses

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22
Q

what is pleural effusion

A

the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity

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23
Q

what are the support structures of the external nose

A

nasal bones, hyaline cartilage, dense CT

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24
Q

what are the three functions of the nose and nasal cavity

A

filter, warm, humidify air
smell
speech

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25
Q

where is the olfactory mucosa located

A

near roof of nasal cavity

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26
Q

what is housed in the olfactory mucosa

A

receptors for smell

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27
Q

what does the respiratory mucosa line

A

most of the respiratory passageway
-opens to outside of body

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28
Q

what kind of epithelium is the respiratory mucosa

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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29
Q

what kind of cells are in the respiratory mucosa to produce mucus

A

goblet cells

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30
Q

what is underlying the epithelium in the respiratory mucosa

A

lamina propria

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31
Q

what two kinds of cells are in the underlying lamina propria of the respiratory mucosa

A

mucus cells: secrete mucus
serous cells: secrete digestive enzyme

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32
Q

what is the reason for the lamina propria of the respiratory mucosa being so vascular

A

to warm air

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33
Q

what two things make up the mucous membrane

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
lamina propria

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34
Q

why does the respiratory mucosa have sticky mucus

A

to trap pathogens and debris

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35
Q

what is the mucociliary escalator referring to

A

the cilia constantly moving sheets of mucus to posterior region of nasal cavity

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36
Q

what happens to cilia when it is cold

A

the cold air slows the cilia down

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37
Q

where are the external nares and vestibule located

A

the opening to the nasal cavity

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38
Q

what are the external nares and vestibule lined with

A

vibrissae (protective hairs)

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39
Q

what are the nasal conchae

A

bony ridges that create air turbulance

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40
Q

why does the nasal conchae need to create air turbulance

A

to fling pathogens onto mucus lined epithelium and warm the air

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41
Q

where are the olfactory receptor cells located

A

passing through the cribriform plate onto the olfactory mucosa

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42
Q

how is smell created

A

odorants bind to the receptors on the olfactory receptor cells

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43
Q

where does the nasal cavity end

A

posterior nasal aperture

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44
Q

what are paranasal sinuses

A

air filled cavities in bone

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45
Q

what are the two main functions of the sinuses

A

lighten the skull
warm/moisten the air

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46
Q

how many openings into the nasal cavity do the sinuses have

A

one

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47
Q

what kind of epithelium are the sinuses lined with

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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48
Q

what are the four paranasal sinuses

A

frontal
ethmoid
sphenoid
maxillary

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49
Q

where is the frontal sinus located

A

right above eyes

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50
Q

where are the ethmoid sinuses located

A

between eyes more forward than sigmoid

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51
Q

where are the sigmoid sinuses located

A

between eyes but further back where the pituitary gland starts

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52
Q

where are the maxillary sinuses located

A

next to nose (cheeks)

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53
Q

what does the nasal meatus contain

A

an opening for sinus into nasal cavity

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54
Q

what is a sinus infection

A

inflammation of epithelium caused by virus or bacteria

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55
Q

what happens to the meatus with a sinus infection

A

it becomes blocked

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56
Q

what is a nasal septum

A

bone and cartilage that separates nasal cavity in half

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57
Q

what is a deviated septum

A

when the cartilage separating the nasal cavity becomes misaligned

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58
Q

what happens to the air flow with a deviated septum

A

it is disrupted

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59
Q

what are the three sections of the pharynx

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

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60
Q

what section is the nasopharynx

A

posterior nares to soft palate

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61
Q

what section is the oropharynx

A

soft palate to epiglottis

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62
Q

what section is the laryngopharynx

A

epiglottis to superior esophagus

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63
Q

which regions of the pharynx have passage of food and liquid

A

oropharynx and laryngopharynx

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64
Q

what kind of epithelium makes up the nasopharynx

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

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65
Q

what primarily passes through the nasopharynx

A

air

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66
Q

what kind of epithelium makes up the oropharynx

A

stratified squamous

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67
Q

what primarily passes through the oropharynx

A

food and air

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68
Q

what kind of epithelium makes up the laryngopharynx

A

stratified squamous

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69
Q

what primarily passes through the laryngopharynx

A

food and air

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70
Q

what are the pharyngeal tonsils

A

lymphoid tissue in the nasopharynx

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71
Q

what is the pharyngotympanic tube

A

connects to middle ear

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72
Q

what closes off the nasopharynx during swallowing to prevent food from moving into the nasal cavity

A

uvula

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73
Q

what are the palatine tonsils

A

the tonsils that are more superior

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74
Q

what are the lingual tonsils

A

tonsils that are more inferior and are located at back of the tongue

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75
Q

what is tonsillitis

A

inflammation of palatine tonsils

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76
Q

what is connected by the laryngopharynx

A

pharynx with openings to larynx (air) and esophagus (food)

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77
Q

what kind of cartilage is the epiglottis made of

A

elastic cartilage

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78
Q

what does the epiglottis cover

A

the larynx when swallowing food

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79
Q

what type of cartilage is thyroid cartilage

A

hyaline cartilage

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80
Q

what is attached to the thyroid cartilage

A

attachment site for vocal folds

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81
Q

what kind of cartilage is the cricoid cartilage

A

hyaline

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82
Q

where is the cricoid cartilage located

A

under the thyroid cartilage

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83
Q

what kind of cartilage is arytenoid cartilage

A

hyaline

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84
Q

what does the arytenoid cartilage do

A

anchors vocal folds posteriorly

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85
Q

what are the vocal folds

A

true vocal cords; actually vibrate and make sound

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86
Q

what are the vocal folds made of

A

elastic fibers covered with mucosa

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87
Q

what are the vocal folds suspended between

A

thyroid and arytenoid cartilages

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88
Q

what happens to the vocal folds as air passes over

A

they vibrate

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89
Q

why do males have deeper voices

A

the vocal folds are longer so the vibrations are slower

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90
Q

what are vestibular folds

A

false vocal cords

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91
Q

what are the vestibular folds made of

A

folds of mucosa that support vocal folds

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92
Q

what is the rima glottidis

A

space between open vocal folds

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93
Q

what is the glottis

A

vocal folds and rima glottidis

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94
Q

what creates sound

A

the vibrations of vocal folds as air moves past them

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95
Q

what creates a higher pitch

A

longer and thinner vocal fold

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96
Q

what 4 structures contribute to making sound

A

pharynx, nasal cavity, oral cavity, sinuses

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97
Q

as you breathe in air, what happens to vocal folds

A

they move apart

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98
Q

as air moves through the vocal folds, what happens to them

A

they close

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99
Q

what is laryngitis

A

excess mucus and inflammation prevent proper vibration of vocal folds

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100
Q

what were castrati (1600s-1800s)

A

male sopranos
castrated before puberty
lower testosterone levels
larynx does not enlarge

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101
Q

what does the trachea connect

A

larynx and lungs

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102
Q

what kind of epithelium is in the trachea

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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103
Q

does the trachea contain goblet cells

A

yes

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104
Q

what kind of rings make up the trachea

A

hyaline cartilage rings

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105
Q

what are the hyaline cartilage rings in the trachea joined by

A

fibroelastic CT

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106
Q

what shape are the rings in the trachea

A

C shaped

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107
Q

what is the purpose of the rings of the trachea

A

to keep tracheal lumen open when we swallow food

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108
Q

what are the two specialized mucus-secreting structures in the trachea

A

goblet cells - epithelium
seromucous glands - submucosa

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109
Q

what are the effects of smoking on cilia

A

they can be paralyzed or destroyed by toxins in cigarette smoke

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110
Q

what is the path in which cilia moves mucus away from lungs

A

up (away from lungs) then down (into esophagus)

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111
Q

what surrounds the lumen of the trachea

A

mucous membrane

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112
Q

what layer of the trachea is under the mucous membrane

A

submucosa with seromucous glands

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113
Q

what kind of cartilage makes up the trachea

A

hyaline cartilage

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114
Q

what is the covering of the trachea called

A

adventitia

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115
Q

what is the trachealis muscle

A

smooth muscle that completes posterior of trachea

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116
Q

what is the carina

A

last ring of tracheal cartilage

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117
Q

what happens at the carina of the trachea

A

the trachea branches into left and right main bronchi

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118
Q

what initiates the cough reflex

A

the carina of the trachea has epithelial cells that are very sensitive to irritants and excess mucus

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119
Q

what are the 4 segments of the bronchial tree

A

main (primary) bronchi - 1 per lung
lobar (secondary) bronchi - 1 per lobe
segmental (tertiary) bronchi - 1 per bronchopulmonary segment
bronchioles

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120
Q

do the bronchioles have cartilage

A

no

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121
Q

what happens to the cartilage rings in the main primary bronchi

A

they are replaced by irregular cartilage plates

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122
Q

what kind of epithelium makes up the main bronchi

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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123
Q

what is the difference between the right and left bronchus

A

the right bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical than the left

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124
Q

which bronchus do inhaled substances usually enter

A

the right primary bronchus

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125
Q

how many lobes does the right lung have

A

3 lobes

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126
Q

how many lobar bronchi does the right lung have

A

3

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127
Q

how many lobes does the lobar bronchus serve

A

1 lobe

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128
Q

how many lobes does the left lung have

A

2 lobes

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129
Q

how many lobar bronchi does the left lung have

A

2

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130
Q

what does the segmental bronchus serve

A

the bronchopulmonary segment

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131
Q

what are the lobes divided into

A

segments

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132
Q

can segments of the lungs function independently of other segments

A

yes

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133
Q

if one segment is diseased, will it move to other segments

A

no

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134
Q

how do the lungs regulate air flow

A

the smooth muscle contracts and relaxes

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135
Q

is smooth muscle present around the alveoli

A

no

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136
Q

what is the cartilage transition as you go down the pulmonary airway tree

A

regular plates (bronchi open) –> irregular plates (won’t stay open as regularly) –> no cartilage (broncho-constriction)

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137
Q

what can lead to broncho-constriction

A

if there is smooth muscle and no cartilage

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138
Q

what is the epithelium transition as you go down the pulmonary airway tree

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar –> simple columnar –> simple cuboidal –> simple squamous

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139
Q

what are the two phases of bronchial asthma

A

early phase and late phase

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140
Q

what are the steps of the early phase of bronchial asthma

A
  1. allergens, cold air, etc cause mast cells to release inflammatory chemicals
  2. contraction of bronchial smooth muscle (bronchoconstriction)
  3. increase in mucus secretion in airways
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141
Q

what are the steps of the late phase of bronchial asthma

A
  1. white blood cells accumulate in bronchi and bronchioles
  2. inflammatory chemicals are released
  3. mucosa is damaged
  4. increased release of mucus
  5. bronchoconstriction is increased
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142
Q

what are the two treatments for bronchial asthma

A

bronchodilators
anti-inflammatories

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143
Q

what happens in the respiratory zone

A

external gas exchange

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144
Q

what does the epithelium switch (from –> to) in the respiratory zone

A

simple cuboidal to simple squamous

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145
Q

what are the 4 structures of the respiratory zone

A

respiratory bronchioles
alveolar duct
alveoli
alveolar sac (alveolar duct and alveoli)

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146
Q

what is the alveolar sac

A

cluster of alveoli on a duct

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147
Q

what do alveoli do for the lungs

A

increase the volume of lungs and surface area for gas exchange

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148
Q

what surrounds the alveoli

A

capillary network

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149
Q

what type of cells are type I alveolar cells

A

flat cells, simple squamous epithelium, part of respiratory membrane

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150
Q

what type of cells are type II alveolar cells

A

cuboidal cells, not part of respiratory membrane

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151
Q

where does gas exchange occur in the respiratory zone

A

across the respiratory membrane

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152
Q

what is contained in the respiratory membrane

A

alveolar epithelium + capillary epithelium + fused basement membranes of both epithelia

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153
Q

what type of epithelium is alveolar epithelium

A

simple squamous

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154
Q

what type of epithelium is capillary epithelium

A

simple squamous

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155
Q

what do type II cells secrete

A

surfactant

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156
Q

what does surfactant do to the alveoli

A

decrease surface tension and allows alveoli to inflate more easily

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157
Q

what do macrophages do

A

phagocytize inhaled particles (get rid of bad things in the lungs)

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158
Q

what do the alveolar pores do

A

equalize the pressure between alveoli

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159
Q

what is a lobule

A

1 larger bronchiole and all of its branches

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160
Q

what is the shape of a lung lobule

A

hexagonal

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161
Q

what is the stroma

A

elastic CT that surrounds lobules

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162
Q

what happens to the diaphragm with inspiration

A

it moves inferiorly (down) as it contracts

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163
Q

what happens to the ribs and sternum with inspiration

A

the ribs elevate and the sternum flares as external intercostals contract to create room

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164
Q

what happens to the thoracic volume with inspiration

A

it increases

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165
Q

what happens to the air pressure in the lungs with inspiration

A

it decreases

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166
Q

what happens to the diaphragm with expiration

A

it moves superiorly (up) as it relaxes

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167
Q

what happens to the ribs and sternum with expiration

A

they depress as the external intercostals relax

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168
Q

what happens to the thoracic volume with expiration

A

it decreases

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169
Q

what happens to the air pressure in the lungs with expiration

A

it increases

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170
Q

is inspiration an active or passive process

A

active (requires ATP)

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171
Q

is expiration an active or passive process

A

passive (no ATP/energy required)

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172
Q

what type of cells are not fully functional until ~35 weeks of development

A

type II cells

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173
Q

why do premature infants have difficulty inflating collapsed alveoli

A

insufficient production of surfactant

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174
Q

what is the primary cause of lung cancer

A

smoking

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175
Q

what does smoking damage

A

the cilia
increased mucus production
depresses lungs macrophages

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176
Q

what is the most effective treatment for lung cancer

A

removal of diseased tissue

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177
Q

what is COPD

A

flow of air into and out of lungs is difficult or obstructed

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178
Q

what are the two types of COPD

A

chronic bronchitis
emphysema

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179
Q

what are the indications for chronic bronchitis

A

increased mucus secretion, inflammation, formation of scar tissue

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180
Q

what is dyspnea

A

labored or difficult breathing

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181
Q

what does emphysema mean

A

to inflate

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182
Q

what causes permanent enlargement of alveoli

A

alveolar walls are destroyed by lysosomal enzymes produced by macrophages

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183
Q

what does fibrosis (scarring) of lungs cause

A

difficulty with expiration

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184
Q

what are COPD patients referred to as

A

blue bloater

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185
Q

what are emphysema patients referred to as

A

pink puffer

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186
Q

what are the three components of the cardiovascular system

A

heart
blood vessels
blood

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187
Q

what do the components of a cardiac muscle cell resemble

A

skeletal muscle cell

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188
Q

how many nuclei does a cardiac muscle cell have

A

one

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189
Q

is cardiac muscle branched

A

yes

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190
Q

what are two different things that cardiac muscle cells can do

A
  1. contract
  2. conduct an impulse
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191
Q

what is an intercalated disc made of

A

gap junctions and desmosomes

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192
Q

what is the purpose of the gap junction in an intercalated disc

A

allows for quick communication between cells for coordinated contraction

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193
Q

what is the purpose of the desmosome in an intercalated disc

A

distribute the tension when the cells contract

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194
Q

what is another name for a desmosome in an intercalated disc

A

fascia adheren

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195
Q

what is the function of the heart

A

pumps blood

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196
Q

what is the function of the arteries

A

carry blood away from heart

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197
Q

what is the function of the veins

A

carry blood toward heart

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198
Q

what is the function of blood

A

transports nutrients, wastes, etc

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199
Q

what is the pulmonary circuit

A

the route between the heart and lungs

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200
Q

what does the pulmonary circuit allow the blood to do

A

pick up oxygen

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201
Q

what is the order of the pulmonary circuit

A

right ventricle –> pulmonary trunk –> pulmonary arteries –> lungs –> pulmonary veins –> left atrium

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202
Q

where does the gas exchange occur in the lungs

A

capillary beds

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203
Q

what is the systematic circuit

A

route between the heart and the body tissues

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204
Q

what is the purpose of the systematic circuit

A

brings oxygen to the cells

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205
Q

what is the order of the systematic circuit

A

left ventricle –> aorta –> cells of body –> veins –> right atrium

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206
Q

what are the four distinct chambers of the heart

A

right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle

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207
Q

what is the pericardium

A

a triple layered sac that encloses the heart

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208
Q

what is the outer layer of the pericardium called

A

fibrous pericardium

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209
Q

what is the inner layer of the pericardium called

A

serous pericardium

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210
Q

what are the 2 main functions of the fibrous pericardium

A

anchors heart
prevents overfilling

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211
Q

what is the fibrous pericardium made of

A

dense irregular CT

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212
Q

what is the heart wall made of

A

closest to heart
epicardium (serous layer of pericardium)
myocardium (muscle)
endocardium
heart chamber

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213
Q

the serous pericardium is made of what 3 things

A

visceral pericardium
pericardial cavity
parietal pericardium

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214
Q

what is the purpose of the pericardial cavity

A

to reduce friction between contracting heart and outer wall of pericardial sac

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215
Q

what is the pericardial cavity filled with

A

pericardial fluid

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216
Q

what is cardiac tamponade

A

aka pericardial effusion
occurs when there is excess pericardial fluid

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217
Q

what is the epicardium

A

visceral pericardium

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218
Q

what is the myocardium

A

cardiac muscle tissue

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219
Q

what is the endocardium made of

A

simple squamous epithelium

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220
Q

why is the endocardium made of simple squamous epithelium

A

so that blood will move smoothly through the heart

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221
Q

which side of the heart has high O2

A

left

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222
Q

which side of the heart has low O2

A

right

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223
Q

does the superior vena cava have O2? where is it coming from?

A

low O2
coming from upper part of body

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224
Q

does the pulmonary trunk have high or low O2

A

low O2

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225
Q

what is the pulmonary trunk connecting

A

the heart to the lungs
blood heart –> lungs

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226
Q

does the inferior vena cava have O2? where is it coming from?

A

low O2
coming from lower part of body

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227
Q

do the pulmonary arteries have O2

A

low O2
have not been to lungs yet

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228
Q

do the pulmonary veins have O2

A

high O2
coming to the heart from the lungs

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229
Q

what are papillary muscles

A

projections of cardiac muscle in both ventricles

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230
Q

what are papillary muscles attached to

A

atrioventricular valves

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231
Q

how are papillary muscles attached to atrioventricular valves

A

chordae tendineae

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232
Q

what is chordae tendineae made out of

A

dense regular CT

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233
Q

which ventricle has a thicker myocardium

A

left

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234
Q

why does the left ventricle have a thicker myocardium

A

it pumps blood to the entire body

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235
Q

where are the atrioventricular valves located

A

between the atria and the ventricles

236
Q

what are the two atrioventricular valves

A

tricuspid (right)
bicuspid (left) -> aka mitral valve

237
Q

what are the cusps formed by? what are the reinforced by

A

formed by endocardium
reinforced by dense CT

238
Q

what is the purpose of the atrioventricular valves

A

to keep blood moving in one direction (atria to ventricles)

239
Q

what keeps the valves from inverting into atria with ventricular contractions

A

chordae tendineae and papillary muscles

240
Q

what is the purpose of the semilunar valves

A

to keep blood from flowing backwards towards ventricles

241
Q

what happens to the semilunar valves as the ventricles relax

A

blood fills the cusps and the valves close

242
Q

where is the pulmonary semilunar valve located

A

between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk

243
Q

where is the aortic semilunar valve located

A

between the left ventricle and the aorta

244
Q

what is the lub sound of the heart

A

closing of AV valves (tricuspid and bicuspid)

245
Q

what is the dub sound of the heart

A

closing of semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic)

246
Q

what is a heart murmur

A

whooshing or clicking sound as blood flows backward into chamber

247
Q

what can cause a heart murmur

A

an incompetent valve

248
Q

what is a mitral valve prolapse

A

most common
weakness in collagen of valve or chordae tendineae

249
Q

what is stenosis

A

narrowed opening between valves caused by calcium deposits or illness

250
Q

what is the fibrous skeleton

A

the barrier between atria and ventricles that prevents an electrical impulse from passing

251
Q

what is the one electrical pathway from atria to ventricles

A

AV node

252
Q

what is autorhymicity

A

cardiac muscles do not have to depend on external stimulation

253
Q

what conducts electrical impulses through the heart

A

nodes and bundles
cardiac conduction system

254
Q

what node is known as the pacemaker

A

SA node

255
Q

where is the SA (sinoatrial) node located

A

in the right atrium

256
Q

which node initiates electrical impulse

A

SA node

257
Q

what node does the SA node stimulate

A

AV node

258
Q

what does the AV node do

A

delays the impulse so that blood can get into ventricles, then stimulates

259
Q

what is the AV bundle

A

the long part of the AV node in middle of heart

260
Q

what are the right and left bundle branches

A

where the AV bundle splits

261
Q

where are purkinje fibers located

A

in the outer portion of the myocardium

262
Q

how do the atria contract

A

top to bottom (simultaneously)

263
Q

how do the ventricles contract

A

bottom to top (simultaneously)

264
Q

what happens during depolarization

A

excitation

265
Q

what happens during repolarization

A

resting

266
Q

what is the P wave

A

atrial depolarization

267
Q

what is the QRS wave

A

ventricle depolarization
(atrial repolarization is hidden in large R wave)

268
Q

what is the T wave

A

ventricular repolarization

269
Q

what is systole

A

contraction / forcing blood out

270
Q

what is diastole

A

relaxation / filling with blood

271
Q

in the first step of the heartbeat, what is the atrial state

A

systole (atria contracting)

272
Q

in the first step of the heartbeat, what is the ventricle state

A

diastole (ventricles relaxing)

273
Q

in the first step of the heartbeat, what is the state of the AV valves

A

open
blood going from atria to ventricle

274
Q

in the first step of the heartbeat, what is the state of the SL valves

A

closed
keeps blood from going backwards

275
Q

in the second step of the heartbeat, what is the atrial state

A

diastole
atria relax

276
Q

in the second step of the heartbeat, what is the ventricle state

A

systole
ventricles contract

277
Q

in the second step of the heartbeat, what is the state of the AV valves

A

closed
“lub”

278
Q

in the second step of the heartbeat, what is the state of the SL valves

A

open
pushing blood out of heart

279
Q

in the third step of the heartbeat, what is the atrial state

A

diastole
atria relaxed

280
Q

in the third step of the heartbeat, what is the ventricle state

A

diastole
ventricles relaxed

281
Q

in the third step of the heartbeat, what is the state of the AV valves

A

open

282
Q

in the third step of the heartbeat, what is the state if the SL valves

A

closed
“dub”

283
Q

what two arteries provide external blood supply to heart

A

right coronary artery
left coronary artery

284
Q

where do cardiac veins drain blood to

A

coronary sinus

285
Q

where does the coronary sinus empty into

A

right atrium

286
Q

what artery supplies the left ventricle (known as the widow maker)

A

anterior interventricular artery

287
Q

what is atherosclerosis

A

buildup of plaque in the arteries

288
Q

what does atherosclerosis cause

A

narrowing of arteries making blood flow more difficult

289
Q

what is the most common cause of arteriosclerosis (hardening of arteries)

A

antherosclerosis

290
Q

what is the common cause of atherosclerosis

A

damage to inner surface (endothelium)
-cholesterol, calcium, lipids attach to damaged lining and harden into plaques

291
Q

what is a myocardial infarction

A

heart attack

292
Q

what is a heart attack the result of

A

blood not reaching cardiac muscle tissue

293
Q

what can a heart attack be caused by

A

a thrombus (stationary blood clot)

294
Q

what does a thrombus result in

A

ischemia: restriction in blood supply resulting in oxygen and glucose deprivation of tissues

295
Q

what is a coronary bypass

A

going around / bypassing the blocked artery

296
Q

what is an example of an alternative to bypass surgery

A

balloon angioplasty

297
Q

what happens with a balloon angioplasty

A

balloon is put in artery to push blockage aside and mesh is put in to keep the artery open

298
Q

what is the function of the blood vessels

A

transport blood

299
Q

what do the blood vessels circuit between

A

heart and capillaries

300
Q

what is the function of the lymph vessels

A

transport lymph

301
Q

are lymph vessels one way or a circuit

A

one way

302
Q

what are the layers of the blood vessel walls

A

tunica intima, tunica media, tunica externa

303
Q

what is the tunica intima endothelium layer made of

A

simple squamous epithelium

304
Q

what is the tunica intima subendothelial layer made of

A

loose areolar CT

305
Q

what is the tunica media made of

A

smooth muscle

306
Q

is the tunica media bigger in arteries or veins

A

arteries

307
Q

how is the tunica media arranged

A

circularly

308
Q

what is the tunica externa made of

A

loose areolar CT

309
Q

is the tunica externa thicker in arteries or veins

A

veins

310
Q

what is the vasa vasorum

A

when large vessels have their own blood supply

311
Q

what does the tunica intima of veins form

A

valves

312
Q

what does the tunica media of an artery have more of

A

elastic fibers

313
Q

do arteries or veins appear rounder in cross-section? why?

A

arteries because arterial walls are thicker

314
Q

where are elastic arteries found

A

right off the ventricles

315
Q

what is the purpose of elastic arteries

A

they allow expansion and recoil to smooth out pressure surges

316
Q

which layer of the vessel wall has the most elastin

A

tunica media

317
Q

what do muscular arteries supply

A

organs and skeletal muscles

318
Q

do muscular arteries have all three tunics

A

yes

319
Q

why does the tunica media of a muscular artery have less elastin and more smooth muscle

A

more control over lumen size of vessel to adjust blood flow to organs

320
Q

what are examples of muscular arteries

A

radial artery, femoral artery

321
Q

what are arterioles

A

branches of muscular arteries

322
Q

how do arterioles regulate blood flow to capillaries

A

they constrict and dialate quickly

323
Q

what are the characteristics of larger arterioles

A

they have all three tunics and elastic in the tunica intima

324
Q

what are the characteristics of the smaller arterioles

A

they have a tunica media and tunica intima (endothelium) only

325
Q

what is the approx size of a capillary

A

diameter of a red blood cell

326
Q

what layers do capillaries have

A

just a tunica intima (endothelium)

327
Q

what kind of epithelium does the tunica intima of a capillary have

A

simple squamous
-thin because needs to have good diffusion of gases

328
Q

what do capillaries often form

A

capillary beds

329
Q

what kind of sphincters do capillaries have

A

precapillary sphincters

330
Q

what do precapillary sphincters do

A

regulate blood flow to capillary beds

331
Q

what happens to blood if precapillary sphincters are closed

A

blood will flow through the metarteriole (connects the terminal arteriole to the postcapillary venule)

332
Q

if blood flows through the metarteriole, what happens to the capillary beds

A

there is no blood supply to the capillary beds

333
Q

why would blood go through the metarteriole

A

response for the blood/glucose needs of the tissues
-if tissue does not need blood, the capillary bed that supplies that tissue will be bypassed

334
Q

do capillaries have a basement membrane (CT)

A

yes

335
Q

what are the three types of capillary

A

continuous, fenestrated, sinusoidal

336
Q

where are continuous capillaries found

A

skeletal muscles, skin, nervous system

337
Q

what connects the cells of a continuous capillary

A

tight junctions that decrease permeability

338
Q

what are the areas in a continuous capillary that there are no cell junctions (allow small molecules to pass in and out)

A

intercellular clefts

339
Q

does a continuous capillary have a complete basement membrane

A

yes

340
Q

does a continuous capillary have pericytes

A

yes

341
Q

what is a pericyte

A

stem cells that help control permeability of the capillary and give rise to new blood vessels

342
Q

what are the three types of junctions or clefts that fenestrated capillaries have

A

tight junctions, intercellular clefts, pores

343
Q

what are fenestrations

A

pores through endothelial cells in fenestrated capillaries

344
Q

what is caused by fenestrated capillaries having pores

A

they are more permeable and more things can get through them

345
Q

where are fenestrated capillaries found

A

where there is a high rate of molecular exchange between tissue and blood
(ex. small intestine)

346
Q

what do sinusoid capillaries allow passage of

A

large materials (proteins, blood cells)

347
Q

are sinusoid capillaries continuous? permeable?

A

they are discontinuous and the most permeable capillary

348
Q

what do the large intercellular clefts and fewer tight junctions mean for the blood in the capillary

A

the blood will slow and there will be multiple exchanges across walls

349
Q

do sinusoid capillaries have a complete basement membrane

A

no

350
Q

where are sinusoid capillaries found

A

spleen, bone marrow, lymph nodes, liver

351
Q

what kind of capillaries does the blood brain barrier have

A

low permeability continuous capillaries

352
Q

do capillaries that form the BBB have intercellular clefts

A

no, they have tight junctions

353
Q

what kinds of molecules are allowed through the BBB

A

vital molecules (ex. glucose)

354
Q

what kind of molecules can pass through the endothelial cells and into the brain

A

non charged, lipid soluble molecules

355
Q

what can disrupt the BBB

A

prolonged emotional stress

356
Q

how can prolonged emotional stress disrupt the BBB

A

tight junctions are opened and toxic substances are able to enter the brain

357
Q

how many capillaries beds does blood pass through before returning to the heart

A

two

358
Q

what is an example of a portal system

A

hepatic portal system
-2 capillary beds before blood returns to heart

359
Q

do veins have thinner or thicker walls than arteries

A

thinner

360
Q

what is the result of the thinner walls of veins

A

lower blood pressure

361
Q

is the lumen of a vein smaller or larger than an artery

A

larger

362
Q

is the tunica media of a vein larger or smaller than an artery

A

smaller

363
Q

what do venules do

A

drain capillaries

364
Q

what are venules made of

A

only endothelium (tunica intima)

365
Q

what layer can larger venules have

A

tunica media (in addition to the tunica intima)

366
Q

what do medium veins do

A

drain venules

367
Q

what tunics do medium veins have

A

all three

368
Q

which tunic of medium veins forms valves

A

endothelium (tunica intima)

369
Q

what do large veins do

A

receive blood from medium veins

370
Q

which tunics do large veins have

A

all three

371
Q

which tunic of large veins forms valves

A

endothelium (tunica intima)

372
Q

are large veins under high or low pressure

A

extremely low pressure

373
Q

do veins have valves

A

yes (folds of tunica intima)

374
Q

what is the function of veins

A

keep blood moving toward heart under low pressure

375
Q

what are two mechanisms to counteract low venous pressure

A

valves and squeezing of veins by adjacent organs

376
Q

what are varicose veins caused by

A

incompetent valves in veins

377
Q

what veins are most likely to be affected in regards to varicose veins

A

superficial veins of lower leg

378
Q

what are anastomoses

A

alternative pathways for blood to reach a given body channel

379
Q

where do anastomoses occur

A

brain, abdominal organs, heart

380
Q

are vein or arterial anastomoses more common

A

vein

381
Q

what is the systolic portion of a blood pressure

A

arterial pressure when left ventricle contracts

382
Q

what is the diastolic portion of a blood pressure

A

arterial pressure when the left ventricle relaxes

383
Q

what is a deep vein thrombosis

A

stationary clot on venous cusps

384
Q

what can cause a deep vein thrombosis

A

inactivity or abnormal clotting

385
Q

what happens if a deep vein thrombosis is dislodged

A

it becomes an embolus (clot that is moving)

386
Q

what is an aneurysm

A

sac like ballooning of an artery or vein

387
Q

where is the most common place for an aneurysm

A

abdominal aorta

388
Q

what are the functions of blood

A

distributes/.removes oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, wastes, hormones, etc
regulates body temperature
prevents infection

389
Q

what are the three cellular components of blood

A

erythrocytes (red blood cells)
leukocytes (white blood cells)
platelets (thrombocytes)

390
Q

what is the liquid part of blood

A

plasma

391
Q

what two components of blood make up the buffy coat

A

white blood cells and platelets

392
Q

what is considered to be blood’s extracellular matrix

A

plasma

393
Q

what is plasma made of

A

water, dissolved solutes, proteins

394
Q

where does blood cell formation occur

A

red bone marrow

395
Q

what are erythrocytes

A

red blood cells

396
Q

do erythrocytes have a nucleus/organelles

A

no

397
Q

how do red blood cells get energy

A

anaerobically through glycolysis

398
Q

why do red blood cells have a biconcave structure

A

large surface area for diffusion of gas

399
Q

what is needed to produce new red blood cells

A

iron to form heme group

400
Q

what is the most common type of anemia

A

iron deficiency (low O carrying capacity)

401
Q

why does iron deficiency result in low O carrying capacity

A

if there is not enough iron, hemoglobin is not made which results in lower oxygen delivery to tissues

402
Q

what causes sickle cell disease

A

hemoglobin molecule is off by one amino acid

403
Q

what happens when red blood cells sickle

A

block blood flow through vessels
fragile
cause severe pain, even stroke

404
Q

what can the abnormal cytoskeleton of RBC in sickle cell disease diminish chances of

A

dying from malaria parasite

405
Q

what are leukocytes

A

white blood cells

406
Q

do white blood cells have a nucleus and organelles

A

yes

407
Q

how can white blood cells move through capillary walls

A

diapeedesis

408
Q

what is the main purpose of white blood cells

A

immune response
-increase in number with infection

409
Q

what are platelets

A

cell fragments

410
Q

what are platelets important for

A

blood clotting

411
Q

in response to proteins (antigens) that are foreign, what does your body produce

A

antibodies

412
Q

what is the universal receiver blood type

A

AB

413
Q

what is the universal donor blood type

A

O

414
Q

what can mismatched blood transfusions cause

A

agglutination and hemolysis (lysing of RBC)

415
Q

what is the Rh factor

A

a protein that is either present or absent on red blood cells

416
Q

are A B antibodies able to pass through the placenta

A

no

417
Q

are Rh antibodies able to pass through the placenta

A

yes

418
Q

when is Rh factor a problem for pregnancy

A

Rh (-) woman and Rh (+) man

419
Q

what are the three functions of the nervous system

A

sensory input
interpretation and integration of sensory input
motor output

420
Q

what is the flow of impulses through the nervous system

A

sensory input –> integration –> motor response

421
Q

what are the two primary functions of the CNS

A

integration/interpretation of sensory input
dictates motor response

422
Q

what is the CNS made of

A

brain and spinal cord

423
Q

what is the main function of the PNS

A

neurons transport sensory input toward CNS and motor output away from CNS

424
Q

what are the two divisions of the PNS

A

afferent (sensory ; in)
efferent (motor ; out)

425
Q

what is included in the PNS

A

cranial and spinal nerves

426
Q

what are visceral functions of the nervous system

A

associated with organs within body cavitites

427
Q

what are the somatic functions of the nervous system

A

associated with all other structures (muscles and skin)

428
Q

what are the general characteristics of the somatic sensory division of the nervous system

A

touch
pain
pressure
vibration
temperature
proprioception from skin, body wall, and limbs

429
Q

what are the general characteristics of the visceral sensory division of the nervous system

A

stretch
pain
temperature
chemical changes
irritation in viscera
nausea/hunger

430
Q

what are the general characteristics of the somatic motor division of the nervous system

A

motor innervation to skeletal muscles

431
Q

what are the general characteristics of the visceral motor division of the nervous system

A

motor innervation to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands

432
Q

what are the characteristics of a neuron

A

able to respond to stimulus
able to carry an electrical impulse
excitable cells

433
Q

what are the characteristics of neuroglia

A

help neurons function more efficiently
non excitable cells

434
Q

what is the soma and what does it contain

A

cell body
single nucleus and organelles

435
Q

what are dendrites

A

receptive (input) regions

436
Q

which direction to dendrites carry inforamtion

A

toward cell body

437
Q

which direction do axons carry information

A

away from cell body

438
Q

how many axons does a neuron have

A

one

439
Q

what is at the axon terminal

A

synapse

440
Q

what often surrounds axons

A

myelin sheath

441
Q

what is a multipolar neuron

A

many dendrites, single axon

442
Q

what kinds of neurons are multipolar

A

motor neurons and interneurons

443
Q

what is an interneuron

A

in between sensory and motor neurons

444
Q

what is a bipolar neuron

A

single dendrite, single axon

445
Q

what kinds of neurons are bipolar

A

special sensory neurons

446
Q

what is a unipolar neuron

A

single axon connected via short process to cell body

447
Q

what kind of cells are unipolar

A

sensory neurons

448
Q

what does an afferent neuron do

A

brings impulses toward CNS

449
Q

what are cell bodies clustered in outside of CNS

A

ganglia

450
Q

what are efferent neurons

A

takes impulse away from CNS

451
Q

where are the cell bodies of a efferent neuron located

A

in CNS

452
Q

where are interneurons located

A

in CNS

453
Q

what neuroglia are in the CNS

A

astrocytes
microglia
ependymal cells
oligodendrocytes

454
Q

what neuroglia are in the PNS

A

satellite cells
schwann cells

455
Q

where are astrocytes found

A

surrounding capillaries and neurons to make them less permeable

456
Q

what glia forms the BBB

A

astrocytes

457
Q

what glia regulates NT levels

A

astrocytes

458
Q

what glia increases blood flow

A

astrocytes

459
Q

what do astrocytes produce

A

BDNF
-promotes neural growth

460
Q

what is the least abundant glia in the CNS

A

microglia

461
Q

what are microglia

A

macrophages

462
Q

what is the function of microglia

A

consume microorganisms and dead neurons

463
Q

where do microglia originate

A

red bone marrow

464
Q

what do ependymal cells form

A

simple epithelium that lines hollow portions of brain and spinal cord
-ventricles of brain
-central canal of spinal cord

465
Q

what do ependymal cells have that circulate CSF in the CNS

A

cilia

466
Q

what do oligodendrocytes form

A

myelin sheaths in the CNS

467
Q

how many axons do the processes of oligodendrocytes wrap around

A

more than one

468
Q

what do satellite cells do

A

surround cell bodies in the PNS

469
Q

what do satellite cells prevent

A

crossover when many cell bodies are crowded together

470
Q

what are ganglia full of

A

cell bodies

471
Q

what do schwann cells create

A

myelin sheaths in the PNS

472
Q

what do myelin sheaths do

A

speed up the rate of the action potential
-also insulate axons from each other

473
Q

how many schwann cells will one axon have

A

more than one

474
Q

what are the gaps in between schwann cells called

A

nodes of ranvier

475
Q

what is saltatory conduction

A

the action potentials jumping over the myelin from node to node

476
Q

what is the biggest characteristic of an unmyelinated axon

A

the schwann cells party encloses 15 or more axons

477
Q

what is multiple sclerosis

A

autoimmune disease where myelin is attacked in the CNS

478
Q

what is the overall outcome of multiple sclerosis

A

action potentials are disrupted causing motor and sensory issues

479
Q

what is a glioma

A

brain tumor derived from glial cells
(tumors are not often caused by neurons because of their limited capacity to regenerate or undergo mitosis)

480
Q

what is the difference between a nerve and a nerve tract

A

nerve: axons of sensory and motor neurons in PNS
nerve tract: axons of interneurons in CNS

481
Q

what kind of neurons do most nerves contain

A

both sensory and motor neurons

482
Q

what are two examples of nerves that are not mixed

A

optic nerve (only sensory)
hypoglossal nerve (only motor)

483
Q

what are the three main components of a nerve

A

cells
connective tissue
blood vessels

484
Q

what is the epineurium made of

A

dense irregular CT

485
Q

what is the perineurium made of

A

fibrous CT

486
Q

what is the endoneurium made of

A

thin reticular CT (over myelin)

487
Q

what is a synapse

A

site where neurons communicate with each other or with other cell types

488
Q

what does the nerve impulse travel from and to

A

from the presynaptic axon terminal to the postsynaptic dendrite

489
Q

where do presynaptic axons end

A

at axon terminals

490
Q

what are contained within axon terminals

A

synaptic vesicles containing NT (chemical messengers)

491
Q

where are NT released into

A

synaptic cleft

492
Q

what binds the NT

A

receptors on postsynaptic cell

493
Q

what is an axodendritic synapse

A

presynaptic axon to postsynaptic dendrite

494
Q

what is a axosomatic synapse

A

presynaptic axon to postsynaptic cell body

495
Q

what type of synapse is a gap junction

A

electrical synapse (faster)

496
Q

what is tic douloureux

A

when a blood vessel compresses the trigeminal nerve causing a loss of myelination of sensory nerve fibers
-light touch is perceived as pain

497
Q

if an axon in the PNS is damaged, how can it regenerate

A

schwann cells help the axon sprout through a regeneration tube for partial recovery

498
Q

can neurons regenerate in the CNS

A

yes; new evidence for neural stem cells in the brain

499
Q

what are two ways that we presently study the brain

A

fMRI
PET scan

500
Q

what does a fMRI look at

A

increased blood flow to areas of the brain

501
Q

what does a PET scan look at

A

glucose utilization

502
Q

what are the three connective tissues surrounding the brain from ,most superficial to closest to the brain

A

dura mater
arachnoid mater
pia mater

(brain)

503
Q

what do meninges surround

A

brain and spinal cord

504
Q

what is the dura mater made of

A

dense irregular CT

505
Q

what are the two layers of the dura mater

A

meningeal layer (true external covering)
periosteal layer (attached to skull)

506
Q

what is the dural sinus

A

the blood sinus contained between layers where blood can drain

507
Q

what is the arachnoid mater made of

A

reticular CT

508
Q

which meninge has the most blood supply

A

arachnoid layer

509
Q

what is the pia mater made of

A

loose areolar CT

510
Q

is the pia mater vascularized

A

yes

511
Q

what is the subdural space

A

the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid layer that contains a think film of fluid

512
Q

where do hemotomas occur

A

subdural space

513
Q

what is the subarachnoid space

A

space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

514
Q

what does the subarachnoid space contain

A

CSF

515
Q

what are the three main functions of CSF

A

floats and cushions CNS
provides nutrients
removes wastes

516
Q

where is CSF produced

A

in the choroid plexus by ependymal cells

517
Q

how is CSF produced

A

filtration of plasma from blood capillaries in pia mater

518
Q

what are the five CSF filled structures in the brain

A

lateral ventricles
third ventricle
cerebral aquaduct
fourth ventricle
central canal

519
Q

what are arachnoid granulations

A

portions of arachnoid mater that extend through dura mater into dural sinuses

520
Q

what happens in arachnoid granulations

A

CSF that has circulated through CNS is returned to the blood

521
Q

what kind of movement does CSF resemble

A

pulsatile movement that matches pulse of blood flow

522
Q

what is hydrocephalus

A

when CSF is overproduces and increases intercranial pressure

523
Q

what is meningitis

A

inflammation of meninges that can spread to nervous tissue of the brain

524
Q

is viral or bacterial meningitis most severe

A

baterial

525
Q

what are the tight junctions of the BBB formed by

A

foots of astrocytes

526
Q

what kind of substances can enter BBB

A

lipid soluble

527
Q

what is white matter made of

A

myelinated axons

528
Q

what does white matter form

A

fiber tracts (CNS)

529
Q

what is gray matter composed of

A

dendrites
cell bodies
glial cells
unmyelinated axons

530
Q

is the cerebral cortex made of white or gray matter

A

gray matter

531
Q

are the nuclei in brain made of white or gray matter

A

gray matter

532
Q

are the fiber tracts in the spinal cord made of white or gray matter

A

white matter

533
Q

what does the telencephalon develop into

A

cerebrum
-cerebral hemispheres

534
Q

what does the diencephalon develop into

A

thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus

535
Q

what does the mesencephalon develop into

A

brain stem
-midbrain

536
Q

what does the metencephalon develop into

A

brain stem
-pons
cerebellum

537
Q

what does the myelencephalon develop into

A

brain stem
-medulla oblongata

538
Q

what is the fiber tract in the cerebrum that allows communication between hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

539
Q

what are the three primary types of processing areas in the cerebral cortex

A

sensory
motor
association

540
Q

what are sulci

A

small indentations

541
Q

what are gyri

A

ridges

542
Q

what are fissures

A

deep indentations

543
Q

why does the brain have so many gyri and sulci

A

to increase surfact area

544
Q

what does the longitudinal fissure divide

A

right and left hemisphere

545
Q

what does the central sulcus divide

A

frontal and parietal lobes

546
Q

what does the transverse cerebral fissure divide

A

cerebellum and cerebral hemispheres

547
Q

what are the two main functions of the frontal lobe

A

voluntary motor control
higher order cognitive functions

548
Q

where is the primary motor cortex found

A

anterior to central culcus

549
Q

what is the function of the primary motor cortex

A

conscious control of skeletal muscles

550
Q

what is the motor hommunculus

A

map of body’s motor control on the brain

551
Q

where is the prefrontal cortex located

A

very front of the frontal lobe

552
Q

what type of area is the prefrontal cortex

A

association area

553
Q

what are the three main functions of the prefrontal cortex

A

processing of emotions
working memory
solving complex problems

554
Q

what does damage to the prefrontal cortex lead to

A

mental and personality disorders

555
Q

where is brocas area located

A

on the side of the frontal lobe

556
Q

what is the main function of brocas area

A

motor control of speaking
(emotional overtones to spoken words)

557
Q

what is the main function of the parietal lobe

A

input and interpretation of sensory information coming from somatic senses

558
Q

where is the primary somatosensory cortex located

A

behind the central sulcus in the parietal lobe

559
Q

what is the main function of the primary somatosensory cortex

A

receives input from somatic sensory receptors of the body

560
Q

what would damage to the primary somatosensory cortex cause

A

inability to identify an object by touch

561
Q

what is the sensory hommunculus

A

map of body’s sensory input on brain

562
Q

what is the main function of the temporal lobe

A

receives and interprets sound and sensory information from inner ear
-receives and interprets smell from nasal cavity

563
Q

where is the primary auditory cortex found and what does it do

A

in temporal lobe
conscious awareness of sound

564
Q

where is the auditory association area and what does it do

A

in temporal lobe
evaluation of sound

565
Q

where is wernickes area and what does it fo

A

in temporal lobe
recognition of spoken words

566
Q

where is the primary oflactory cortex found and what does it do

A

temporal lobe
conscious awareness of smells

567
Q

what does the occipital lobe do

A

receives and interprets stimuli from retina of eye

568
Q

where is the primary visual cortex located

A

very bottom of occipital lobe near cerebellum

569
Q

what does the primary visual cortex do

A

receives information coming from receptors in retina

570
Q

what is the main function of the insula

A

has a gustatory complex and receives/interprets information from taste receptors of oral cavity

571
Q

what are the two main features of parkinsons disease

A

loss of dopamine producing cells of substantia nigra
clustering of a protein in tight deposits called Lewy bodies

572
Q

what is the limbic system

A

the emotional brain made up by structures in the cerebrum and diencephalon

573
Q

what are two limbic system structures in the temporal lobe

A

amygdaloid body and hippocampus

574
Q

what is the function of the amygdaloid body

A

memory of fears, regulates anger, proper responses to social cues

575
Q

what is the function of the hippocampus

A

conversion of short term memories to long term memories

576
Q

what are the two main sructures that the limbic system interacts with

A

olfactory cortex
hypothalamus

577
Q

what is the main function of the thalamus

A

relay center for most sensory information

578
Q

what is the main function of the epithalamus (pineal gland)

A

secretes melatonin

579
Q

what is the main function of the hypothalamus

A

visceral control center
-hinger/thirst
-body temperature
-smooth muscle/cardiac muscle/glands
-limbic control center

580
Q

what structure in the brain regulates the release of hormones from pituitary gland

A

hypothalamus

581
Q

what is the main function of the cerebellum

A

smooths and coordinates muscle movements by knowing planned movements and where body is in space

582
Q

what part of the brain is involved with balance, fine motor control, and motor memory

A

cerebellum

583
Q

what are the three components of the brain stem

A

medulla oblongata
pons
midbrain

584
Q

what are the main functions of the medulla oblongata

A

basic life support functions
-cardiac
-vasomotor (blood pressure)
-respiratory

585
Q

what is a stroke

A

interruption of blood flow to a region of the brain resulting in neuronal cell death

Anatomy (5 decks)

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