Exam 3 Flashcards
(585 cards)
1
Q
what are the four functions of the respiratory system
A
- bring in oxygen and remove carbon dioxide
- sound production
- smell
- protection of airway via coughing and sneezing
2
Q
what are the three types of respiration
A
ventilation, gas exchange, oxygen utilization by cells
3
Q
what is ventilation
A
breathing (inhalation and exhalation)
4
Q
what is gas exchange`
A
external and internal respiration
5
Q
what does external respiration occur between
A
air and red blood cells in the lungs
6
Q
where does the gas exchange occur in internal respiration
A
between red blood cells and the body tissues outside of the lungs
7
Q
what are the two zones that the respiratory system is divided into
A
conducting zone
respiratory zone
8
Q
what is the conducting zone
A
the respiratory passages that transport air
-filter out dust
-humidify and warm incoming air
9
Q
what is the respiratory zone
A
site of gas exchange in the lungs
10
Q
what are the structures of the conducting zone in order of passage of inhalation
A
nasal cavity
pharynx
larynx
trachea
main bronchi
lobar bronchi
segmental bronchi
bronchioles
terminal bronchioles
11
Q
which structures of the conducting zone are closest to the respiratory zone
A
bronchioles and terminal bronchioles
12
Q
what structures of the conducting zone are a part of the respiratory tree
A
main bronchi, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles
13
Q
what structures are a part of the respiratory zone
A
respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli
14
Q
what is a cluster of alveoli called
A
alveolar sac
15
Q
what kind of membrane are the lungs lines with
A
pleural membranes
16
Q
what is the visceral pleura
A
the serous membrane surrounding the lungs
17
Q
what is the parietal pleura
A
serous membrane lining the cavity
18
Q
what two things are included in the parietal pleura
A
thoracic wall
mediasteum
19
Q
what is located between the visceral and parietal pleura
A
pleural fluid
20
Q
what is the purpose of pleural fluid
A
causes the lungs to inflate with breathing (vacuum)
21
Q
what is a pneumothorax
A
when the negative pressure between the visceral and parietal pleura is broken and a lung collapses
22
Q
what is pleural effusion
A
the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
23
Q
what are the support structures of the external nose
A
nasal bones, hyaline cartilage, dense CT
24
Q
what are the three functions of the nose and nasal cavity
A
filter, warm, humidify air
smell
speech
25
where is the olfactory mucosa located
near roof of nasal cavity
26
what is housed in the olfactory mucosa
receptors for smell
27
what does the respiratory mucosa line
most of the respiratory passageway
-opens to outside of body
28
what kind of epithelium is the respiratory mucosa
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
29
what kind of cells are in the respiratory mucosa to produce mucus
goblet cells
30
what is underlying the epithelium in the respiratory mucosa
lamina propria
31
what two kinds of cells are in the underlying lamina propria of the respiratory mucosa
mucus cells: secrete mucus
serous cells: secrete digestive enzyme
32
what is the reason for the lamina propria of the respiratory mucosa being so vascular
to warm air
33
what two things make up the mucous membrane
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
lamina propria
34
why does the respiratory mucosa have sticky mucus
to trap pathogens and debris
35
what is the mucociliary escalator referring to
the cilia constantly moving sheets of mucus to posterior region of nasal cavity
36
what happens to cilia when it is cold
the cold air slows the cilia down
37
where are the external nares and vestibule located
the opening to the nasal cavity
38
what are the external nares and vestibule lined with
vibrissae (protective hairs)
39
what are the nasal conchae
bony ridges that create air turbulance
40
why does the nasal conchae need to create air turbulance
to fling pathogens onto mucus lined epithelium and warm the air
41
where are the olfactory receptor cells located
passing through the cribriform plate onto the olfactory mucosa
42
how is smell created
odorants bind to the receptors on the olfactory receptor cells
43
where does the nasal cavity end
posterior nasal aperture
44
what are paranasal sinuses
air filled cavities in bone
45
what are the two main functions of the sinuses
lighten the skull
warm/moisten the air
46
how many openings into the nasal cavity do the sinuses have
one
47
what kind of epithelium are the sinuses lined with
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
48
what are the four paranasal sinuses
frontal
ethmoid
sphenoid
maxillary
49
where is the frontal sinus located
right above eyes
50
where are the ethmoid sinuses located
between eyes more forward than sigmoid
51
where are the sigmoid sinuses located
between eyes but further back where the pituitary gland starts
52
where are the maxillary sinuses located
next to nose (cheeks)
53
what does the nasal meatus contain
an opening for sinus into nasal cavity
54
what is a sinus infection
inflammation of epithelium caused by virus or bacteria
55
what happens to the meatus with a sinus infection
it becomes blocked
56
what is a nasal septum
bone and cartilage that separates nasal cavity in half
57
what is a deviated septum
when the cartilage separating the nasal cavity becomes misaligned
58
what happens to the air flow with a deviated septum
it is disrupted
59
what are the three sections of the pharynx
nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
60
what section is the nasopharynx
posterior nares to soft palate
61
what section is the oropharynx
soft palate to epiglottis
62
what section is the laryngopharynx
epiglottis to superior esophagus
63
which regions of the pharynx have passage of food and liquid
oropharynx and laryngopharynx
64
what kind of epithelium makes up the nasopharynx
pseudostratified ciliated columnar
65
what primarily passes through the nasopharynx
air
66
what kind of epithelium makes up the oropharynx
stratified squamous
67
what primarily passes through the oropharynx
food and air
68
what kind of epithelium makes up the laryngopharynx
stratified squamous
69
what primarily passes through the laryngopharynx
food and air
70
what are the pharyngeal tonsils
lymphoid tissue in the nasopharynx
71
what is the pharyngotympanic tube
connects to middle ear
72
what closes off the nasopharynx during swallowing to prevent food from moving into the nasal cavity
uvula
73
what are the palatine tonsils
the tonsils that are more superior
74
what are the lingual tonsils
tonsils that are more inferior and are located at back of the tongue
75
what is tonsillitis
inflammation of palatine tonsils
76
what is connected by the laryngopharynx
pharynx with openings to larynx (air) and esophagus (food)
77
what kind of cartilage is the epiglottis made of
elastic cartilage
78
what does the epiglottis cover
the larynx when swallowing food
79
what type of cartilage is thyroid cartilage
hyaline cartilage
80
what is attached to the thyroid cartilage
attachment site for vocal folds
81
what kind of cartilage is the cricoid cartilage
hyaline
82
where is the cricoid cartilage located
under the thyroid cartilage
83
what kind of cartilage is arytenoid cartilage
hyaline
84
what does the arytenoid cartilage do
anchors vocal folds posteriorly
85
what are the vocal folds
true vocal cords; actually vibrate and make sound
86
what are the vocal folds made of
elastic fibers covered with mucosa
87
what are the vocal folds suspended between
thyroid and arytenoid cartilages
88
what happens to the vocal folds as air passes over
they vibrate
89
why do males have deeper voices
the vocal folds are longer so the vibrations are slower
90
what are vestibular folds
false vocal cords
91
what are the vestibular folds made of
folds of mucosa that support vocal folds
92
what is the rima glottidis
space between open vocal folds
93
what is the glottis
vocal folds and rima glottidis
94
what creates sound
the vibrations of vocal folds as air moves past them
95
what creates a higher pitch
longer and thinner vocal fold
96
what 4 structures contribute to making sound
pharynx, nasal cavity, oral cavity, sinuses
97
as you breathe in air, what happens to vocal folds
they move apart
98
as air moves through the vocal folds, what happens to them
they close
99
what is laryngitis
excess mucus and inflammation prevent proper vibration of vocal folds
100
what were castrati (1600s-1800s)
male sopranos
castrated before puberty
lower testosterone levels
larynx does not enlarge
101
what does the trachea connect
larynx and lungs
102
what kind of epithelium is in the trachea
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
103
does the trachea contain goblet cells
yes
104
what kind of rings make up the trachea
hyaline cartilage rings
105
what are the hyaline cartilage rings in the trachea joined by
fibroelastic CT
106
what shape are the rings in the trachea
C shaped
107
what is the purpose of the rings of the trachea
to keep tracheal lumen open when we swallow food
108
what are the two specialized mucus-secreting structures in the trachea
goblet cells - epithelium
seromucous glands - submucosa
109
what are the effects of smoking on cilia
they can be paralyzed or destroyed by toxins in cigarette smoke
110
what is the path in which cilia moves mucus away from lungs
up (away from lungs) then down (into esophagus)
111
what surrounds the lumen of the trachea
mucous membrane
112
what layer of the trachea is under the mucous membrane
submucosa with seromucous glands
113
what kind of cartilage makes up the trachea
hyaline cartilage
114
what is the covering of the trachea called
adventitia
115
what is the trachealis muscle
smooth muscle that completes posterior of trachea
116
what is the carina
last ring of tracheal cartilage
117
what happens at the carina of the trachea
the trachea branches into left and right main bronchi
118
what initiates the cough reflex
the carina of the trachea has epithelial cells that are very sensitive to irritants and excess mucus
119
what are the 4 segments of the bronchial tree
main (primary) bronchi - 1 per lung
lobar (secondary) bronchi - 1 per lobe
segmental (tertiary) bronchi - 1 per bronchopulmonary segment
bronchioles
120
do the bronchioles have cartilage
no
121
what happens to the cartilage rings in the main primary bronchi
they are replaced by irregular cartilage plates
122
what kind of epithelium makes up the main bronchi
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
123
what is the difference between the right and left bronchus
the right bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical than the left
124
which bronchus do inhaled substances usually enter
the right primary bronchus
125
how many lobes does the right lung have
3 lobes
126
how many lobar bronchi does the right lung have
3
127
how many lobes does the lobar bronchus serve
1 lobe
128
how many lobes does the left lung have
2 lobes
129
how many lobar bronchi does the left lung have
2
130
what does the segmental bronchus serve
the bronchopulmonary segment
131
what are the lobes divided into
segments
132
can segments of the lungs function independently of other segments
yes
133
if one segment is diseased, will it move to other segments
no
134
how do the lungs regulate air flow
the smooth muscle contracts and relaxes
135
is smooth muscle present around the alveoli
no
136
what is the cartilage transition as you go down the pulmonary airway tree
regular plates (bronchi open) --> irregular plates (won't stay open as regularly) --> no cartilage (broncho-constriction)
137
what can lead to broncho-constriction
if there is smooth muscle and no cartilage
138
what is the epithelium transition as you go down the pulmonary airway tree
pseudostratified ciliated columnar --> simple columnar --> simple cuboidal --> simple squamous
139
what are the two phases of bronchial asthma
early phase and late phase
140
what are the steps of the early phase of bronchial asthma
1. allergens, cold air, etc cause mast cells to release inflammatory chemicals
2. contraction of bronchial smooth muscle (bronchoconstriction)
3. increase in mucus secretion in airways
141
what are the steps of the late phase of bronchial asthma
1. white blood cells accumulate in bronchi and bronchioles
2. inflammatory chemicals are released
3. mucosa is damaged
4. increased release of mucus
5. bronchoconstriction is increased
142
what are the two treatments for bronchial asthma
bronchodilators
anti-inflammatories
143
what happens in the respiratory zone
external gas exchange
144
what does the epithelium switch (from --> to) in the respiratory zone
simple cuboidal to simple squamous
145
what are the 4 structures of the respiratory zone
respiratory bronchioles
alveolar duct
alveoli
alveolar sac (alveolar duct and alveoli)
146
what is the alveolar sac
cluster of alveoli on a duct
147
what do alveoli do for the lungs
increase the volume of lungs and surface area for gas exchange
148
what surrounds the alveoli
capillary network
149
what type of cells are type I alveolar cells
flat cells, simple squamous epithelium, part of respiratory membrane
150
what type of cells are type II alveolar cells
cuboidal cells, not part of respiratory membrane
151
where does gas exchange occur in the respiratory zone
across the respiratory membrane
152
what is contained in the respiratory membrane
alveolar epithelium + capillary epithelium + fused basement membranes of both epithelia
153
what type of epithelium is alveolar epithelium
simple squamous
154
what type of epithelium is capillary epithelium
simple squamous
155
what do type II cells secrete
surfactant
156
what does surfactant do to the alveoli
decrease surface tension and allows alveoli to inflate more easily
157
what do macrophages do
phagocytize inhaled particles (get rid of bad things in the lungs)
158
what do the alveolar pores do
equalize the pressure between alveoli
159
what is a lobule
1 larger bronchiole and all of its branches
160
what is the shape of a lung lobule
hexagonal
161
what is the stroma
elastic CT that surrounds lobules
162
what happens to the diaphragm with inspiration
it moves inferiorly (down) as it contracts
163
what happens to the ribs and sternum with inspiration
the ribs elevate and the sternum flares as external intercostals contract to create room
164
what happens to the thoracic volume with inspiration
it increases
165
what happens to the air pressure in the lungs with inspiration
it decreases
166
what happens to the diaphragm with expiration
it moves superiorly (up) as it relaxes
167
what happens to the ribs and sternum with expiration
they depress as the external intercostals relax
168
what happens to the thoracic volume with expiration
it decreases
169
what happens to the air pressure in the lungs with expiration
it increases
170
is inspiration an active or passive process
active (requires ATP)
171
is expiration an active or passive process
passive (no ATP/energy required)
172
what type of cells are not fully functional until ~35 weeks of development
type II cells
173
why do premature infants have difficulty inflating collapsed alveoli
insufficient production of surfactant
174
what is the primary cause of lung cancer
smoking
175
what does smoking damage
the cilia
increased mucus production
depresses lungs macrophages
176
what is the most effective treatment for lung cancer
removal of diseased tissue
177
what is COPD
flow of air into and out of lungs is difficult or obstructed
178
what are the two types of COPD
chronic bronchitis
emphysema
179
what are the indications for chronic bronchitis
increased mucus secretion, inflammation, formation of scar tissue
180
what is dyspnea
labored or difficult breathing
181
what does emphysema mean
to inflate
182
what causes permanent enlargement of alveoli
alveolar walls are destroyed by lysosomal enzymes produced by macrophages
183
what does fibrosis (scarring) of lungs cause
difficulty with expiration
184
what are COPD patients referred to as
blue bloater
185
what are emphysema patients referred to as
pink puffer
186
what are the three components of the cardiovascular system
heart
blood vessels
blood
187
what do the components of a cardiac muscle cell resemble
skeletal muscle cell
188
how many nuclei does a cardiac muscle cell have
one
189
is cardiac muscle branched
yes
190
what are two different things that cardiac muscle cells can do
1. contract
2. conduct an impulse
191
what is an intercalated disc made of
gap junctions and desmosomes
192
what is the purpose of the gap junction in an intercalated disc
allows for quick communication between cells for coordinated contraction
193
what is the purpose of the desmosome in an intercalated disc
distribute the tension when the cells contract
194
what is another name for a desmosome in an intercalated disc
fascia adheren
195
what is the function of the heart
pumps blood
196
what is the function of the arteries
carry blood away from heart
197
what is the function of the veins
carry blood toward heart
198
what is the function of blood
transports nutrients, wastes, etc
199
what is the pulmonary circuit
the route between the heart and lungs
200
what does the pulmonary circuit allow the blood to do
pick up oxygen
201
what is the order of the pulmonary circuit
right ventricle --> pulmonary trunk --> pulmonary arteries --> lungs --> pulmonary veins --> left atrium
202
where does the gas exchange occur in the lungs
capillary beds
203
what is the systematic circuit
route between the heart and the body tissues
204
what is the purpose of the systematic circuit
brings oxygen to the cells
205
what is the order of the systematic circuit
left ventricle --> aorta --> cells of body --> veins --> right atrium
206
what are the four distinct chambers of the heart
right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle
207
what is the pericardium
a triple layered sac that encloses the heart
208
what is the outer layer of the pericardium called
fibrous pericardium
209
what is the inner layer of the pericardium called
serous pericardium
210
what are the 2 main functions of the fibrous pericardium
anchors heart
prevents overfilling
211
what is the fibrous pericardium made of
dense irregular CT
212
what is the heart wall made of
closest to heart
epicardium (serous layer of pericardium)
myocardium (muscle)
endocardium
heart chamber
213
the serous pericardium is made of what 3 things
visceral pericardium
pericardial cavity
parietal pericardium
214
what is the purpose of the pericardial cavity
to reduce friction between contracting heart and outer wall of pericardial sac
215
what is the pericardial cavity filled with
pericardial fluid
216
what is cardiac tamponade
aka pericardial effusion
occurs when there is excess pericardial fluid
217
what is the epicardium
visceral pericardium
218
what is the myocardium
cardiac muscle tissue
219
what is the endocardium made of
simple squamous epithelium
220
why is the endocardium made of simple squamous epithelium
so that blood will move smoothly through the heart
221
which side of the heart has high O2
left
222
which side of the heart has low O2
right
223
does the superior vena cava have O2? where is it coming from?
low O2
coming from upper part of body
224
does the pulmonary trunk have high or low O2
low O2
225
what is the pulmonary trunk connecting
the heart to the lungs
blood heart --> lungs
226
does the inferior vena cava have O2? where is it coming from?
low O2
coming from lower part of body
227
do the pulmonary arteries have O2
low O2
have not been to lungs yet
228
do the pulmonary veins have O2
high O2
coming to the heart from the lungs
229
what are papillary muscles
projections of cardiac muscle in both ventricles
230
what are papillary muscles attached to
atrioventricular valves
231
how are papillary muscles attached to atrioventricular valves
chordae tendineae
232
what is chordae tendineae made out of
dense regular CT
233
which ventricle has a thicker myocardium
left
234
why does the left ventricle have a thicker myocardium
it pumps blood to the entire body
235
where are the atrioventricular valves located
between the atria and the ventricles
236
what are the two atrioventricular valves
tricuspid (right)
bicuspid (left) -> aka mitral valve
237
what are the cusps formed by? what are the reinforced by
formed by endocardium
reinforced by dense CT
238
what is the purpose of the atrioventricular valves
to keep blood moving in one direction (atria to ventricles)
239
what keeps the valves from inverting into atria with ventricular contractions
chordae tendineae and papillary muscles
240
what is the purpose of the semilunar valves
to keep blood from flowing backwards towards ventricles
241
what happens to the semilunar valves as the ventricles relax
blood fills the cusps and the valves close
242
where is the pulmonary semilunar valve located
between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
243
where is the aortic semilunar valve located
between the left ventricle and the aorta
244
what is the lub sound of the heart
closing of AV valves (tricuspid and bicuspid)
245
what is the dub sound of the heart
closing of semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic)
246
what is a heart murmur
whooshing or clicking sound as blood flows backward into chamber
247
what can cause a heart murmur
an incompetent valve
248
what is a mitral valve prolapse
most common
weakness in collagen of valve or chordae tendineae
249
what is stenosis
narrowed opening between valves caused by calcium deposits or illness
250
what is the fibrous skeleton
the barrier between atria and ventricles that prevents an electrical impulse from passing
251
what is the one electrical pathway from atria to ventricles
AV node
252
what is autorhymicity
cardiac muscles do not have to depend on external stimulation
253
what conducts electrical impulses through the heart
nodes and bundles
cardiac conduction system
254
what node is known as the pacemaker
SA node
255
where is the SA (sinoatrial) node located
in the right atrium
256
which node initiates electrical impulse
SA node
257
what node does the SA node stimulate
AV node
258
what does the AV node do
delays the impulse so that blood can get into ventricles, then stimulates
259
what is the AV bundle
the long part of the AV node in middle of heart
260
what are the right and left bundle branches
where the AV bundle splits
261
where are purkinje fibers located
in the outer portion of the myocardium
262
how do the atria contract
top to bottom (simultaneously)
263
how do the ventricles contract
bottom to top (simultaneously)
264
what happens during depolarization
excitation
265
what happens during repolarization
resting
266
what is the P wave
atrial depolarization
267
what is the QRS wave
ventricle depolarization
(atrial repolarization is hidden in large R wave)
268
what is the T wave
ventricular repolarization
269
what is systole
contraction / forcing blood out
270
what is diastole
relaxation / filling with blood
271
in the first step of the heartbeat, what is the atrial state
systole (atria contracting)
272
in the first step of the heartbeat, what is the ventricle state
diastole (ventricles relaxing)
273
in the first step of the heartbeat, what is the state of the AV valves
open
blood going from atria to ventricle
274
in the first step of the heartbeat, what is the state of the SL valves
closed
keeps blood from going backwards
275
in the second step of the heartbeat, what is the atrial state
diastole
atria relax
276
in the second step of the heartbeat, what is the ventricle state
systole
ventricles contract
277
in the second step of the heartbeat, what is the state of the AV valves
closed
"lub"
278
in the second step of the heartbeat, what is the state of the SL valves
open
pushing blood out of heart
279
in the third step of the heartbeat, what is the atrial state
diastole
atria relaxed
280
in the third step of the heartbeat, what is the ventricle state
diastole
ventricles relaxed
281
in the third step of the heartbeat, what is the state of the AV valves
open
282
in the third step of the heartbeat, what is the state if the SL valves
closed
"dub"
283
what two arteries provide external blood supply to heart
right coronary artery
left coronary artery
284
where do cardiac veins drain blood to
coronary sinus
285
where does the coronary sinus empty into
right atrium
286
what artery supplies the left ventricle (known as the widow maker)
anterior interventricular artery
287
what is atherosclerosis
buildup of plaque in the arteries
288
what does atherosclerosis cause
narrowing of arteries making blood flow more difficult
289
what is the most common cause of arteriosclerosis (hardening of arteries)
antherosclerosis
290
what is the common cause of atherosclerosis
damage to inner surface (endothelium)
-cholesterol, calcium, lipids attach to damaged lining and harden into plaques
291
what is a myocardial infarction
heart attack
292
what is a heart attack the result of
blood not reaching cardiac muscle tissue
293
what can a heart attack be caused by
a thrombus (stationary blood clot)
294
what does a thrombus result in
ischemia: restriction in blood supply resulting in oxygen and glucose deprivation of tissues
295
what is a coronary bypass
going around / bypassing the blocked artery
296
what is an example of an alternative to bypass surgery
balloon angioplasty
297
what happens with a balloon angioplasty
balloon is put in artery to push blockage aside and mesh is put in to keep the artery open
298
what is the function of the blood vessels
transport blood
299
what do the blood vessels circuit between
heart and capillaries
300
what is the function of the lymph vessels
transport lymph
301
are lymph vessels one way or a circuit
one way
302
what are the layers of the blood vessel walls
tunica intima, tunica media, tunica externa
303
what is the tunica intima endothelium layer made of
simple squamous epithelium
304
what is the tunica intima subendothelial layer made of
loose areolar CT
305
what is the tunica media made of
smooth muscle
306
is the tunica media bigger in arteries or veins
arteries
307
how is the tunica media arranged
circularly
308
what is the tunica externa made of
loose areolar CT
309
is the tunica externa thicker in arteries or veins
veins
310
what is the vasa vasorum
when large vessels have their own blood supply
311
what does the tunica intima of veins form
valves
312
what does the tunica media of an artery have more of
elastic fibers
313
do arteries or veins appear rounder in cross-section? why?
arteries because arterial walls are thicker
314
where are elastic arteries found
right off the ventricles
315
what is the purpose of elastic arteries
they allow expansion and recoil to smooth out pressure surges
316
which layer of the vessel wall has the most elastin
tunica media
317
what do muscular arteries supply
organs and skeletal muscles
318
do muscular arteries have all three tunics
yes
319
why does the tunica media of a muscular artery have less elastin and more smooth muscle
more control over lumen size of vessel to adjust blood flow to organs
320
what are examples of muscular arteries
radial artery, femoral artery
321
what are arterioles
branches of muscular arteries
322
how do arterioles regulate blood flow to capillaries
they constrict and dialate quickly
323
what are the characteristics of larger arterioles
they have all three tunics and elastic in the tunica intima
324
what are the characteristics of the smaller arterioles
they have a tunica media and tunica intima (endothelium) only
325
what is the approx size of a capillary
diameter of a red blood cell
326
what layers do capillaries have
just a tunica intima (endothelium)
327
what kind of epithelium does the tunica intima of a capillary have
simple squamous
-thin because needs to have good diffusion of gases
328
what do capillaries often form
capillary beds
329
what kind of sphincters do capillaries have
precapillary sphincters
330
what do precapillary sphincters do
regulate blood flow to capillary beds
331
what happens to blood if precapillary sphincters are closed
blood will flow through the metarteriole (connects the terminal arteriole to the postcapillary venule)
332
if blood flows through the metarteriole, what happens to the capillary beds
there is no blood supply to the capillary beds
333
why would blood go through the metarteriole
response for the blood/glucose needs of the tissues
-if tissue does not need blood, the capillary bed that supplies that tissue will be bypassed
334
do capillaries have a basement membrane (CT)
yes
335
what are the three types of capillary
continuous, fenestrated, sinusoidal
336
where are continuous capillaries found
skeletal muscles, skin, nervous system
337
what connects the cells of a continuous capillary
tight junctions that decrease permeability
338
what are the areas in a continuous capillary that there are no cell junctions (allow small molecules to pass in and out)
intercellular clefts
339
does a continuous capillary have a complete basement membrane
yes
340
does a continuous capillary have pericytes
yes
341
what is a pericyte
stem cells that help control permeability of the capillary and give rise to new blood vessels
342
what are the three types of junctions or clefts that fenestrated capillaries have
tight junctions, intercellular clefts, pores
343
what are fenestrations
pores through endothelial cells in fenestrated capillaries
344
what is caused by fenestrated capillaries having pores
they are more permeable and more things can get through them
345
where are fenestrated capillaries found
where there is a high rate of molecular exchange between tissue and blood
(ex. small intestine)
346
what do sinusoid capillaries allow passage of
large materials (proteins, blood cells)
347
are sinusoid capillaries continuous? permeable?
they are discontinuous and the most permeable capillary
348
what do the large intercellular clefts and fewer tight junctions mean for the blood in the capillary
the blood will slow and there will be multiple exchanges across walls
349
do sinusoid capillaries have a complete basement membrane
no
350
where are sinusoid capillaries found
spleen, bone marrow, lymph nodes, liver
351
what kind of capillaries does the blood brain barrier have
low permeability continuous capillaries
352
do capillaries that form the BBB have intercellular clefts
no, they have tight junctions
353
what kinds of molecules are allowed through the BBB
vital molecules (ex. glucose)
354
what kind of molecules can pass through the endothelial cells and into the brain
non charged, lipid soluble molecules
355
what can disrupt the BBB
prolonged emotional stress
356
how can prolonged emotional stress disrupt the BBB
tight junctions are opened and toxic substances are able to enter the brain
357
how many capillaries beds does blood pass through before returning to the heart
two
358
what is an example of a portal system
hepatic portal system
-2 capillary beds before blood returns to heart
359
do veins have thinner or thicker walls than arteries
thinner
360
what is the result of the thinner walls of veins
lower blood pressure
361
is the lumen of a vein smaller or larger than an artery
larger
362
is the tunica media of a vein larger or smaller than an artery
smaller
363
what do venules do
drain capillaries
364
what are venules made of
only endothelium (tunica intima)
365
what layer can larger venules have
tunica media (in addition to the tunica intima)
366
what do medium veins do
drain venules
367
what tunics do medium veins have
all three
368
which tunic of medium veins forms valves
endothelium (tunica intima)
369
what do large veins do
receive blood from medium veins
370
which tunics do large veins have
all three
371
which tunic of large veins forms valves
endothelium (tunica intima)
372
are large veins under high or low pressure
extremely low pressure
373
do veins have valves
yes (folds of tunica intima)
374
what is the function of veins
keep blood moving toward heart under low pressure
375
what are two mechanisms to counteract low venous pressure
valves and squeezing of veins by adjacent organs
376
what are varicose veins caused by
incompetent valves in veins
377
what veins are most likely to be affected in regards to varicose veins
superficial veins of lower leg
378
what are anastomoses
alternative pathways for blood to reach a given body channel
379
where do anastomoses occur
brain, abdominal organs, heart
380
are vein or arterial anastomoses more common
vein
381
what is the systolic portion of a blood pressure
arterial pressure when left ventricle contracts
382
what is the diastolic portion of a blood pressure
arterial pressure when the left ventricle relaxes
383
what is a deep vein thrombosis
stationary clot on venous cusps
384
what can cause a deep vein thrombosis
inactivity or abnormal clotting
385
what happens if a deep vein thrombosis is dislodged
it becomes an embolus (clot that is moving)
386
what is an aneurysm
sac like ballooning of an artery or vein
387
where is the most common place for an aneurysm
abdominal aorta
388
what are the functions of blood
distributes/.removes oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, wastes, hormones, etc
regulates body temperature
prevents infection
389
what are the three cellular components of blood
erythrocytes (red blood cells)
leukocytes (white blood cells)
platelets (thrombocytes)
390
what is the liquid part of blood
plasma
391
what two components of blood make up the buffy coat
white blood cells and platelets
392
what is considered to be blood's extracellular matrix
plasma
393
what is plasma made of
water, dissolved solutes, proteins
394
where does blood cell formation occur
red bone marrow
395
what are erythrocytes
red blood cells
396
do erythrocytes have a nucleus/organelles
no
397
how do red blood cells get energy
anaerobically through glycolysis
398
why do red blood cells have a biconcave structure
large surface area for diffusion of gas
399
what is needed to produce new red blood cells
iron to form heme group
400
what is the most common type of anemia
iron deficiency (low O carrying capacity)
401
why does iron deficiency result in low O carrying capacity
if there is not enough iron, hemoglobin is not made which results in lower oxygen delivery to tissues
402
what causes sickle cell disease
hemoglobin molecule is off by one amino acid
403
what happens when red blood cells sickle
block blood flow through vessels
fragile
cause severe pain, even stroke
404
what can the abnormal cytoskeleton of RBC in sickle cell disease diminish chances of
dying from malaria parasite
405
what are leukocytes
white blood cells
406
do white blood cells have a nucleus and organelles
yes
407
how can white blood cells move through capillary walls
diapeedesis
408
what is the main purpose of white blood cells
immune response
-increase in number with infection
409
what are platelets
cell fragments
410
what are platelets important for
blood clotting
411
in response to proteins (antigens) that are foreign, what does your body produce
antibodies
412
what is the universal receiver blood type
AB
413
what is the universal donor blood type
O
414
what can mismatched blood transfusions cause
agglutination and hemolysis (lysing of RBC)
415
what is the Rh factor
a protein that is either present or absent on red blood cells
416
are A B antibodies able to pass through the placenta
no
417
are Rh antibodies able to pass through the placenta
yes
418
when is Rh factor a problem for pregnancy
Rh (-) woman and Rh (+) man
419
what are the three functions of the nervous system
sensory input
interpretation and integration of sensory input
motor output
420
what is the flow of impulses through the nervous system
sensory input --> integration --> motor response
421
what are the two primary functions of the CNS
integration/interpretation of sensory input
dictates motor response
422
what is the CNS made of
brain and spinal cord
423
what is the main function of the PNS
neurons transport sensory input toward CNS and motor output away from CNS
424
what are the two divisions of the PNS
afferent (sensory ; in)
efferent (motor ; out)
425
what is included in the PNS
cranial and spinal nerves
426
what are visceral functions of the nervous system
associated with organs within body cavitites
427
what are the somatic functions of the nervous system
associated with all other structures (muscles and skin)
428
what are the general characteristics of the somatic sensory division of the nervous system
touch
pain
pressure
vibration
temperature
proprioception from skin, body wall, and limbs
429
what are the general characteristics of the visceral sensory division of the nervous system
stretch
pain
temperature
chemical changes
irritation in viscera
nausea/hunger
430
what are the general characteristics of the somatic motor division of the nervous system
motor innervation to skeletal muscles
431
what are the general characteristics of the visceral motor division of the nervous system
motor innervation to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands
432
what are the characteristics of a neuron
able to respond to stimulus
able to carry an electrical impulse
excitable cells
433
what are the characteristics of neuroglia
help neurons function more efficiently
non excitable cells
434
what is the soma and what does it contain
cell body
single nucleus and organelles
435
what are dendrites
receptive (input) regions
436
which direction to dendrites carry inforamtion
toward cell body
437
which direction do axons carry information
away from cell body
438
how many axons does a neuron have
one
439
what is at the axon terminal
synapse
440
what often surrounds axons
myelin sheath
441
what is a multipolar neuron
many dendrites, single axon
442
what kinds of neurons are multipolar
motor neurons and interneurons
443
what is an interneuron
in between sensory and motor neurons
444
what is a bipolar neuron
single dendrite, single axon
445
what kinds of neurons are bipolar
special sensory neurons
446
what is a unipolar neuron
single axon connected via short process to cell body
447
what kind of cells are unipolar
sensory neurons
448
what does an afferent neuron do
brings impulses toward CNS
449
what are cell bodies clustered in outside of CNS
ganglia
450
what are efferent neurons
takes impulse away from CNS
451
where are the cell bodies of a efferent neuron located
in CNS
452
where are interneurons located
in CNS
453
what neuroglia are in the CNS
astrocytes
microglia
ependymal cells
oligodendrocytes
454
what neuroglia are in the PNS
satellite cells
schwann cells
455
where are astrocytes found
surrounding capillaries and neurons to make them less permeable
456
what glia forms the BBB
astrocytes
457
what glia regulates NT levels
astrocytes
458
what glia increases blood flow
astrocytes
459
what do astrocytes produce
BDNF
-promotes neural growth
460
what is the least abundant glia in the CNS
microglia
461
what are microglia
macrophages
462
what is the function of microglia
consume microorganisms and dead neurons
463
where do microglia originate
red bone marrow
464
what do ependymal cells form
simple epithelium that lines hollow portions of brain and spinal cord
-ventricles of brain
-central canal of spinal cord
465
what do ependymal cells have that circulate CSF in the CNS
cilia
466
what do oligodendrocytes form
myelin sheaths in the CNS
467
how many axons do the processes of oligodendrocytes wrap around
more than one
468
what do satellite cells do
surround cell bodies in the PNS
469
what do satellite cells prevent
crossover when many cell bodies are crowded together
470
what are ganglia full of
cell bodies
471
what do schwann cells create
myelin sheaths in the PNS
472
what do myelin sheaths do
speed up the rate of the action potential
-also insulate axons from each other
473
how many schwann cells will one axon have
more than one
474
what are the gaps in between schwann cells called
nodes of ranvier
475
what is saltatory conduction
the action potentials jumping over the myelin from node to node
476
what is the biggest characteristic of an unmyelinated axon
the schwann cells party encloses 15 or more axons
477
what is multiple sclerosis
autoimmune disease where myelin is attacked in the CNS
478
what is the overall outcome of multiple sclerosis
action potentials are disrupted causing motor and sensory issues
479
what is a glioma
brain tumor derived from glial cells
(tumors are not often caused by neurons because of their limited capacity to regenerate or undergo mitosis)
480
what is the difference between a nerve and a nerve tract
nerve: axons of sensory and motor neurons in PNS
nerve tract: axons of interneurons in CNS
481
what kind of neurons do most nerves contain
both sensory and motor neurons
482
what are two examples of nerves that are not mixed
optic nerve (only sensory)
hypoglossal nerve (only motor)
483
what are the three main components of a nerve
cells
connective tissue
blood vessels
484
what is the epineurium made of
dense irregular CT
485
what is the perineurium made of
fibrous CT
486
what is the endoneurium made of
thin reticular CT (over myelin)
487
what is a synapse
site where neurons communicate with each other or with other cell types
488
what does the nerve impulse travel from and to
from the presynaptic axon terminal to the postsynaptic dendrite
489
where do presynaptic axons end
at axon terminals
490
what are contained within axon terminals
synaptic vesicles containing NT (chemical messengers)
491
where are NT released into
synaptic cleft
492
what binds the NT
receptors on postsynaptic cell
493
what is an axodendritic synapse
presynaptic axon to postsynaptic dendrite
494
what is a axosomatic synapse
presynaptic axon to postsynaptic cell body
495
what type of synapse is a gap junction
electrical synapse (faster)
496
what is tic douloureux
when a blood vessel compresses the trigeminal nerve causing a loss of myelination of sensory nerve fibers
-light touch is perceived as pain
497
if an axon in the PNS is damaged, how can it regenerate
schwann cells help the axon sprout through a regeneration tube for partial recovery
498
can neurons regenerate in the CNS
yes; new evidence for neural stem cells in the brain
499
what are two ways that we presently study the brain
fMRI
PET scan
500
what does a fMRI look at
increased blood flow to areas of the brain
501
what does a PET scan look at
glucose utilization
502
what are the three connective tissues surrounding the brain from ,most superficial to closest to the brain
dura mater
arachnoid mater
pia mater
(brain)
503
what do meninges surround
brain and spinal cord
504
what is the dura mater made of
dense irregular CT
505
what are the two layers of the dura mater
meningeal layer (true external covering)
periosteal layer (attached to skull)
506
what is the dural sinus
the blood sinus contained between layers where blood can drain
507
what is the arachnoid mater made of
reticular CT
508
which meninge has the most blood supply
arachnoid layer
509
what is the pia mater made of
loose areolar CT
510
is the pia mater vascularized
yes
511
what is the subdural space
the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid layer that contains a think film of fluid
512
where do hemotomas occur
subdural space
513
what is the subarachnoid space
space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater
514
what does the subarachnoid space contain
CSF
515
what are the three main functions of CSF
floats and cushions CNS
provides nutrients
removes wastes
516
where is CSF produced
in the choroid plexus by ependymal cells
517
how is CSF produced
filtration of plasma from blood capillaries in pia mater
518
what are the five CSF filled structures in the brain
lateral ventricles
third ventricle
cerebral aquaduct
fourth ventricle
central canal
519
what are arachnoid granulations
portions of arachnoid mater that extend through dura mater into dural sinuses
520
what happens in arachnoid granulations
CSF that has circulated through CNS is returned to the blood
521
what kind of movement does CSF resemble
pulsatile movement that matches pulse of blood flow
522
what is hydrocephalus
when CSF is overproduces and increases intercranial pressure
523
what is meningitis
inflammation of meninges that can spread to nervous tissue of the brain
524
is viral or bacterial meningitis most severe
baterial
525
what are the tight junctions of the BBB formed by
foots of astrocytes
526
what kind of substances can enter BBB
lipid soluble
527
what is white matter made of
myelinated axons
528
what does white matter form
fiber tracts (CNS)
529
what is gray matter composed of
dendrites
cell bodies
glial cells
unmyelinated axons
530
is the cerebral cortex made of white or gray matter
gray matter
531
are the nuclei in brain made of white or gray matter
gray matter
532
are the fiber tracts in the spinal cord made of white or gray matter
white matter
533
what does the telencephalon develop into
cerebrum
-cerebral hemispheres
534
what does the diencephalon develop into
thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus
535
what does the mesencephalon develop into
brain stem
-midbrain
536
what does the metencephalon develop into
brain stem
-pons
cerebellum
537
what does the myelencephalon develop into
brain stem
-medulla oblongata
538
what is the fiber tract in the cerebrum that allows communication between hemispheres
corpus callosum
539
what are the three primary types of processing areas in the cerebral cortex
sensory
motor
association
540
what are sulci
small indentations
541
what are gyri
ridges
542
what are fissures
deep indentations
543
why does the brain have so many gyri and sulci
to increase surfact area
544
what does the longitudinal fissure divide
right and left hemisphere
545
what does the central sulcus divide
frontal and parietal lobes
546
what does the transverse cerebral fissure divide
cerebellum and cerebral hemispheres
547
what are the two main functions of the frontal lobe
voluntary motor control
higher order cognitive functions
548
where is the primary motor cortex found
anterior to central culcus
549
what is the function of the primary motor cortex
conscious control of skeletal muscles
550
what is the motor hommunculus
map of body's motor control on the brain
551
where is the prefrontal cortex located
very front of the frontal lobe
552
what type of area is the prefrontal cortex
association area
553
what are the three main functions of the prefrontal cortex
processing of emotions
working memory
solving complex problems
554
what does damage to the prefrontal cortex lead to
mental and personality disorders
555
where is brocas area located
on the side of the frontal lobe
556
what is the main function of brocas area
motor control of speaking
(emotional overtones to spoken words)
557
what is the main function of the parietal lobe
input and interpretation of sensory information coming from somatic senses
558
where is the primary somatosensory cortex located
behind the central sulcus in the parietal lobe
559
what is the main function of the primary somatosensory cortex
receives input from somatic sensory receptors of the body
560
what would damage to the primary somatosensory cortex cause
inability to identify an object by touch
561
what is the sensory hommunculus
map of body's sensory input on brain
562
what is the main function of the temporal lobe
receives and interprets sound and sensory information from inner ear
-receives and interprets smell from nasal cavity
563
where is the primary auditory cortex found and what does it do
in temporal lobe
conscious awareness of sound
564
where is the auditory association area and what does it do
in temporal lobe
evaluation of sound
565
where is wernickes area and what does it fo
in temporal lobe
recognition of spoken words
566
where is the primary oflactory cortex found and what does it do
temporal lobe
conscious awareness of smells
567
what does the occipital lobe do
receives and interprets stimuli from retina of eye
568
where is the primary visual cortex located
very bottom of occipital lobe near cerebellum
569
what does the primary visual cortex do
receives information coming from receptors in retina
570
what is the main function of the insula
has a gustatory complex and receives/interprets information from taste receptors of oral cavity
571
what are the two main features of parkinsons disease
loss of dopamine producing cells of substantia nigra
clustering of a protein in tight deposits called Lewy bodies
572
what is the limbic system
the emotional brain made up by structures in the cerebrum and diencephalon
573
what are two limbic system structures in the temporal lobe
amygdaloid body and hippocampus
574
what is the function of the amygdaloid body
memory of fears, regulates anger, proper responses to social cues
575
what is the function of the hippocampus
conversion of short term memories to long term memories
576
what are the two main sructures that the limbic system interacts with
olfactory cortex
hypothalamus
577
what is the main function of the thalamus
relay center for most sensory information
578
what is the main function of the epithalamus (pineal gland)
secretes melatonin
579
what is the main function of the hypothalamus
visceral control center
-hinger/thirst
-body temperature
-smooth muscle/cardiac muscle/glands
-limbic control center
580
what structure in the brain regulates the release of hormones from pituitary gland
hypothalamus
581
what is the main function of the cerebellum
smooths and coordinates muscle movements by knowing planned movements and where body is in space
582
what part of the brain is involved with balance, fine motor control, and motor memory
cerebellum
583
what are the three components of the brain stem
medulla oblongata
pons
midbrain
584
what are the main functions of the medulla oblongata
basic life support functions
-cardiac
-vasomotor (blood pressure)
-respiratory
585
what is a stroke
interruption of blood flow to a region of the brain resulting in neuronal cell death
