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Anatomy > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the functions of muscle contraction

A

allow material to move through the body
allow parts of the body to move
generation of heat

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2
Q

what are the different types of muscle tissue

A

skeletal, cardiac, smooth

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3
Q

what does the skeletal muscle do

A

moves the skeleton under voluntary control

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4
Q

is skeletal muscle multinucleated? is it striated?

A

yes
yes

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5
Q

what is another term for muscle cell

A

muscle fiber

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6
Q

where is cardiac muscle found

A

in the heart wall

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7
Q

how many nuclei does cardiac muscle have? is it striated?

A

one nucleus per cell
yes, it is striated

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8
Q

are cardiac and smooth muscle under voluntary or involuntary control

A

involuntary

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9
Q

where is smooth muscle found

A

in the walls of hollow organs

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10
Q

how many nuclei does smooth muscle have? is it striated?

A

it has one nucleus per cell
no striations

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11
Q

what are the properties of muscle tissue

A

excitability
contractility
extensibility
elasticity

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12
Q

what does excitability mean in relation to the properties of muscle tissue

A

nerve signal excites the muscle, causing a contraction

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13
Q

what does contractility mean in relation to the properties of muscle tissue

A

when a muscle contracts, it shortens
-occurs at a microscopic level as myofilaments pull past each other

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14
Q

what does extensibility mean in relation to the properties of muscle tissue

A

after contraction, the muscle can go back to resting length (by gravity or an antagonist)

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15
Q

what does elasticity mean in relation to the properties of muscle tissue

A

after being stretched, a muscle recoils passively and resumes its resting length
-when muscle is stretched beyond its resting length, it can return to its resting length (titin)

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16
Q

what do arteries provide to muscle cell

A

provide oxygen and nutrients

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17
Q

what do veins do for the muscle cell

A

remove cellular wastes

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18
Q

what do nerves do in a muscle cell

A

innervate the muscle cell

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19
Q

what are the subunits of the WHOLE muscle called

A

fascicles

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20
Q

what are fascicles made of

A

individual muscle fibers (muscle cells)

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21
Q

what does the epimysium surround?

A

the whole muscle

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22
Q

what is the epimysium made of

A

dense irregular CT

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23
Q

what does the perimysium surround

A

fascicles

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24
Q

what is the perimysium made of

A

fibrous CT

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25
Q

what does the endomysium surround

A

individual muscle fibers

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26
Q

what is the endomysium made of

A

loose CT

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27
Q

what are individual muscle fibers (muscle cells) made of

A

myofibrils

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28
Q

what are myofibrils made of

A

sarcomeres

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29
Q

what are sarcomeres made of

A

proteins called myofilaments

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30
Q

what gives skeletal muscle its striated appearance

A

the sarcomeres

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31
Q

what are the boundaries of the sarcomere called

A

z-disc

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32
Q

what are the two different myofilaments

A

thick filament and thin filament

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33
Q

what is the thick filament made of

A

myosin

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34
Q

what is the thin filament made of

A

actin, troponin, tropomyosin

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35
Q

what is the myosin anchored to

A

the M line

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36
Q

what is the actin anchored to

A

the z line

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37
Q

what is the elastic filament

A

titin that attaches the z disc to the thick filament
-provides elasticity

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38
Q

what binds to the active site during muscle contraction

A

the myosin head

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39
Q

how do myosin heads cause muscle contraction

A

they use leverage to move the thin (actin) filaments inward

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40
Q

which protein blocks the active sites in muscle contraction

A

tropomyosin

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41
Q

how does the actin binding site become unblocked

A

Ca2+ binds to troponin which causes tropomyosin to unblock the binding site

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42
Q

which does not change with contraction?
-I band
-H zone
-A band
-Z disc

A

the A band does not change length with contraction

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43
Q

what is the A band? what will it include?

A

the length of the thick filament (myosin)
-will include thick and thin filaments

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44
Q

what is the H zone? what will it include?

A

the area between thin filaments (actin) within a single sarcomere
-will include only thick filaments

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45
Q

does the H zone change size with contraction

A

the H zone gets smaller with contraction
-it can disappear completely with full contraction

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46
Q

what is the I band? what will it include?

A

the area between 2 thick filaments of adjacent sarcomeres
-will include the Z disc, thin filament, elastic filament

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47
Q

does the I band change length with contraction

A

it gets shorter with contraction but cannot completely disappear because of the elastic filament

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48
Q

what is the M line

A

the middle of the H zone
-filaments hold thick filament (myosin) in place

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49
Q

what is the sarcolemma

A

the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber

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50
Q

what is the sarcoplasm

A

the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber

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51
Q

what direction to myofibrils run in relation to the muscle fibers

A

parallel to each other and the muscle fiber

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52
Q

what are t tubules

A

extensions of the sarcolemma that extend into muscle fiber

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53
Q

what do the t tubules wrap around

A

myofibrils

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54
Q

what do t tubules do for the muscle cell

A

carry electrical stimulus to the myofibrils

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55
Q

where is Ca2+ stored in the muscle

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

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56
Q

what is the sarcoplasmic reticulum? what does it do?

A

modified smooth ER
-stores and releases calcium ions

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57
Q

what is the sliding filament theory

A

during a contraction, actin and myosin myofilaments slide over each other
-thin slide over thick

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58
Q

what is a motor unit

A

1 motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates

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59
Q

what causes a larger/stronger contraction

A

more muscle fibers are stimulated

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60
Q

what is the neuromuscular junction

A

where a motor neuron meets a muscle fiber

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61
Q

what occurs at the neuromuscular junction

A

stimulation of the muscle fiber

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62
Q

what does the motor neuron release to start an action potential

A

ACh

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63
Q

when the action potential travels down the T tubule, what is released

A

Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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64
Q

how does an action potential of a muscle occur

A

ACh is released from vesicles in the axon terminal by exocytosis
- this ACh binds to receptors that open channels to trigger the action potential

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65
Q

what does the action potential ultimately cause

A

sarcomere shortening

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66
Q

how are muscle fibers arranged

A

in a pattern that provides the most efficient movement for an extended action

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67
Q

what does muscle power depend on

A

the total number of muscle fibers in the muscle
-more fibers –> stronger contraction

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68
Q

how much is each muscle fiber able to shorten

A

to about 1/3 of its resting length
-longer muscle fibers are able to shorten more than short muscle fibers

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69
Q

which muscle would you expect to shorten the most during a contraction

A

the one with the longest fibers

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70
Q

which muscle would you expect to apply the most force during a contraction

A

the one with the largest amount of muscle fibers

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71
Q

what are the different fascicle arrangements in muscles

A

parallel
pennate
convergent
circular

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72
Q

which direction do parallel muscles run in

A

parallel to the axis of the muscle

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73
Q

what is on either end of parallel muscles

A

tendons

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74
Q

do parallel muscles have more or less fibers than other types

A

fewer fibers

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75
Q

do parallel muscles have long or short fibers

A

long

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76
Q

what is the major characteristic of pennate muscles

A

the tendon runs the whole length of the muscle

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77
Q

how and where to the fascicles attach in a pennate muscle

A

attach to the tendon at an angle (feather-like)

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78
Q

do pennate muscles have longer or shorter fibers

A

shorter fibers

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79
Q

do pennate muscles have more or less fibers than parallel muscles

A

more fibers

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80
Q

what is the main characteristic of convergent muscles

A

the origin of the muscle is broad (ex. pectoralis major)

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81
Q

where do the fascicles converge in a convergent muscle

A

converge into a tendon at the insertion

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82
Q

what are convergent muscles shaped like

A

a fan

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83
Q

do convergent muscles have more or less fibers than parallel muscles

A

more fibers

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84
Q

do convergent muscles have longer or shorter fibers than pennate

A

longer fibers

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85
Q

which type of muscle arrangement is the weakest

A

parallel (few muscle fibers)

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86
Q

which type of muscle arrangement is the strongest

A

pennate (most muscle fibers)

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87
Q

which type of muscle arrangement can shorten the least

A

pennate (shortest muscle fibers)

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88
Q

which type of muscle arrangement can shorten the most

A

parallel (longer muscle fibers)

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89
Q

how are the fascicles shaped in circular muscles

A

arranged in a ring

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90
Q

what muscles are circular muscles

A

sphincter muscles

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91
Q

what happens to circular muscles when contracted

A

the muscle constricts an orifice (opening), closing it

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92
Q

what is the origin of a muscle

A

attachment site that is not moved, or is moved the least during a muscle contraction

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93
Q

what is the insertion of a muscle

A

the attachment site that is moved when a muscle shortens

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94
Q

what is the action of a muscle

A

the resulting movement of a muscle contraction

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95
Q

what are tendons continuous with

A

the periosteum of bones

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96
Q

what CT does the direct muscle attachment use? what is it connecting?

A

short, dense regular CT fibers connect origin of muscle to bone

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97
Q

what CT does the indirect muscle attachment use? what is it connecting?

A

long, dense regular CT fibers connect insertion of muscle to bone

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98
Q

what are examples of indirect muscle attachments

A

tendons and aponeuroses

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99
Q

what is the aponeuroses

A

flat sheet of muscle (external oblique)

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100
Q

what is visible on the bone where muscles attach

A

raised bone markings

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101
Q

what causes an increase in muscle strength and size

A

with injury (during exercise) satellite cells fuse with muscle fibers and proliferate
-the new satellite cells produce proteins that help repair the damages muscle fibers

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102
Q

do skeletal muscle cells divide

A

no

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103
Q

what are satellite cells

A

stem cells, immature cells that resemble undifferentiated myoblasts

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104
Q

what happens if there is too severe of an injury to the skeletal muscle cells

A

muscle cells will be replaced by scar tissue

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105
Q

what are some characteristics of cardiac muscle (is it striated, multinucleated, voluntary or involuntary)

A

striated, branched, uninucleate, involuntary control

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106
Q

do cardiac muscle cells have regenerative ability

A

some, ~1% a year

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107
Q

what are cardiac muscle cells surrounded by

A

endomysium

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108
Q

what are cardiac muscle cells connected by

A

intercalated discs

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109
Q

what is an intercalated disc made of

A

gap junctions and desmosomes

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110
Q

what is the role of gap junctions in intercalated discs

A

allow for coordinated contractions by allowing action potentials to quickly spread from cell to cell

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111
Q

what is the role of desmosomes in intercalated discs

A

provide strength
site where intermediate filaments attach

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112
Q

what is the inherent rhythmicity of cardiac muscle

A

cardiac muscle cells are able to initiate their own contraction without stimulation from the nervous system

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113
Q

what are smooth muscle cells shaped like

A

small, spindle shaped cells

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114
Q

how many nuclei do smooth muscle cells have

A

uninucleate (one)

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115
Q

are smooth muscle cells striated

A

no

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116
Q

do smooth muscle cells contain myofilaments

A

yes but they are not arranged in sarcomeres

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117
Q

what covers the smooth muscle cell

A

endomysium

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118
Q

do smooth muscle cells have a regenerative capacity

A

yes

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119
Q

what anchors actin and myosin in a smooth muscle cell

A

intermediate filaments

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120
Q

what does a contraction in a smooth muscle cell consist of

A

myosin and actin filaments moving against one another

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121
Q

how is smooth muscle typically arranged

A

in two distinct layers

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122
Q

what are the two distinct layers that smooth muscle cells are arranged in

A

circular layer
longitudinal layer

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123
Q

what is the circular layer in a smooth muscle cell

A

the layer closest to the lumen of the organ

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124
Q

what is the longitudinal layer in a smooth muscle cell

A

the layer that wraps around the circular layer

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125
Q

what is the typical orientation of cells in the layers of smooth muscle

A

typically perpendicular to each other

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126
Q

what is mobility

A

the amount of movement at a joint

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127
Q

what is mobility dependent on

A

the type of materials joining the bones and the articulating surfaces of the bones

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128
Q

what are the three types of joint classification based on mobilty

A

synarthrosis
amphiarthrosis
diarthrosis

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129
Q

what is synarthrosis

A

immobile, mostly axial

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130
Q

what is amphiarthrosis

A

slightly moveable, mostly axial

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131
Q

diarthrosis

A

freely movable, mostly appendicular

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132
Q

what are the three joint classifications based on joint structure

A

fibrous
cartilaginous
synovial

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133
Q

what is the structural classification of joints based on

A

the type of material that binds the bones together and whether or not there is a joint cavity

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134
Q

what are the characteristics of a fibrous joint

A

no joint cavity
dense regular CT connects bones

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135
Q

what are the characteristics of a cartilaginous joint

A

no joint cavity
cartilage connects bones

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136
Q

what are the characteristics of a synovial joint

A

yes joint cavity
ligaments and articular capsule connect bones
ends of bones covered with articular cartilage (hyaline)

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137
Q

what is a suture

A

fibrous joint is held together by short, interconnecting fibers
bone edges interlock

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138
Q

where are sutures found

A

between bones of the skull

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139
Q

what are sutures connected with

A

short dense regular CT fibers

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140
Q

what does synarthrotic mean

A

bones do not move independently

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141
Q

what is the reason for sutures in the skull

A

allow for skull growth

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142
Q

when do skull bones fuse together

A

during middle age

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143
Q

what are syndesmoses

A

fibrous joints where the joint is held together by a ligament

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144
Q

what does syndesmoses mean

A

with ligament

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145
Q

what does amphiarthrotic mean

A

a small amount of movement
(longer fibers=more movement)

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146
Q

what are syndesmoses made of

A

dense regular CT
-longer than sutures

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147
Q

where are syndesmoses usually found

A

between long bones

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148
Q

what is a gomphosis

A

peg-in-socket fibrous joint

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149
Q

where are gomphoses found

A

in teeth
-attach tooth to bone of socket

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150
Q

what are the types of fibrous joints

A

sutures
syndesmoses
gomphoses

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151
Q

what are the types of cartilaginous joints

A

synchondroses
symphyses

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152
Q

what is a synchondroses

A

a cartilaginous joint where bones are united by hyaline cartilage

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153
Q

do synchondroses move

A

no, they are synarthrotic

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154
Q

where are synchondroses found

A

epiphyseal plates
between first rib’s costal cartilage and sternum

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155
Q

what are symphyses

A

cartilaginous joint where the bones are united by fibrocartilage

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156
Q

can symphyses move

A

amphiarthrotic: small amount of movement

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157
Q

what are bones united by in a symphyses joint

A

fibrocartilage pad

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158
Q

where are symphyses joints found

A

intervertebral disc
pubic symphysis

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159
Q

do synovial joints move

A

yes, they are diarthrotic (freely movable)

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160
Q

what are the three things that synovial joints have

A

ligaments
joint cavity
articular capsule (joint capsule)

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161
Q

what do ligaments connect

A

bone to bone

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162
Q

what are ligaments made of

A

dense regular CT

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163
Q

what is the joint cavity

A

potential space with small amount of synovial fluid

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164
Q

what protects the synovial fluid

A

the synovial membrane

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165
Q

what is the articular capsule

A

the outer fibrous layer and the inner synovial membrane

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166
Q

what is the fibrous layer of the articular capsule made of? what is it continuous with?

A

dense irregular CT
continuous with the periosteum

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167
Q

what is the synovial membrane of the articular capsule? what is it made of?

A

the inner lining of the capsule and all other internal joint surfaces not covered in cartilage
loose CT

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168
Q

is the synovial membrane vascular

A

yes

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169
Q

what does the synovial membrane produce

A

synovial fluid

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170
Q

what is synovial fluid

A

blood filtrate
acts as a lubricant within the capsule

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171
Q

what makes the synovial fluid slippery

A

glycoproteins

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172
Q

where is synovial fluid located

A

in articular cartilages (as nutrient source) and in joint cavity

173
Q

what is weeping lubrication

A

pressure placed on cartilages causes synovial fluid to move in and out of articular cartilages

174
Q

why is weeping lubrication important

A

it nourishes the chondrocytes in the articular cartilage

175
Q

where are sensory nerves located in synovial joints

A

in the articular capsule

176
Q

what do sensory nerve fibers detect in the articular capsule of synovial joints

A

some pain
amount of stretch of joint capsule

177
Q

where is the blood supply in a synovial joint

A

most supply to synovial membrane for production of synovial fluid

178
Q

what is an articular disc

A

a disc of fibrocartilage that is found in some synovial joints

179
Q

what is the purpose of an articular disc

A

helps improve the fit of articulating cartilages

180
Q

what is an example of a synovial joint with an articular disc

A

the meniscus of the knee

181
Q

what is the function of a labrum

A

increases stability in a joint

182
Q

what are the two types of labrums

A

glenoid labrum and acetabular labrum

183
Q

what is a glenoid labrum

A

lip of fibrocartilage around glenoid cavity

184
Q

what is an acetabular labrum

A

circular rim of fibrocartilage around acetabulum of hip joint

185
Q

what is the bursa

A

part of the synovial joint
closed fibrous sac lined with synovial membrane and filled with synovial fluid

186
Q

what is the purpose of the bursa

A

reduces friction as parts move over each other

187
Q

where is the bursa found

A

often where ligaments, tendons overlie bone

188
Q

what is bursitis

A

inflammation of the bursa

189
Q

what is a tendon sheath

A

part of the synovial joint
elongated bursa that wraps around tendons in high friction areas

190
Q

what is an example of where a tendon sheath is found

A

in the tendons in the carpal tunnel of the wrist

191
Q

what are the four classifications of synovial joints

A

nonaxial
uniaxial
biaxial
multiaxial

192
Q

what is a nonaxial synovial joint

A

joint can move in multiple directions but only within one plane
no axis of rotation
ex. sacroiliac joints

193
Q

what is a uniaxial synovial joint

A

joint moves only around 1 axis
one axis of rotation
ex. hinge joint

194
Q

what is a biaxial synovial joint

A

joint moves around 2 axes
2 axes of rotation
ex. saddle joints in hands

195
Q

what is a multiaxial synovial joint

A

joint moves around 3 or more axes
3+ axes of rotation
ex. ball in socket joint

196
Q

what is a plane joint

A

a synovial joint that has a side to side gliding movement in one plane
nonaxial

197
Q

what are examples of plane joints

A

intercarpal joints, joints between vertebral articular surfaces, sacroiliac joint

198
Q

what are hinge joints

A

a synovial joint that allows flexion and extension
uniaxial

199
Q

what are examples of hinge joints

A

elbow, interphalangeal joints (fingers)

200
Q

what are pivot joints

A

synovial joints that are responsible for rotational movements
uniaxial

201
Q

what are examples of pivot joints

A

radioulnar joints (palm up to palm down)
atlantoaxial joints (no motion of head)

202
Q

what is a condylar joint

A

synovial joint that allows for flexion/extension and abduction/adduction
biaxial

203
Q

what are examples of condylar joints

A

metacarpophalangeal (knuckle) joints, carpals and radius joint, occipital condyles (eyes), atlas (yes motion of head)

204
Q

what is a saddle joint

A

synovial joint that allows for flexion/extension and abduction/adduction
biaxial

205
Q

what is an example of a saddle joint

A

carpometacarpal joint of thumb

206
Q

what are ball-and-socket joints

A

synovial joints that allow for flexion/extension, adduction/abduction, and rotation
multiaxial

207
Q

what are examples of ball-and-socket joints

A

shoulder, hip

208
Q

what bones make up the knee

A

femur, patella, tibia

209
Q

what are the two joints in the knee

A

femoropatellar, tibiofemoral

210
Q

how many joint capsules/cavities do the joints of the knee share

A

one

211
Q

where is the femoropatellar joint located

A

between the patella and the femur

212
Q

what type of joint is the femoropatellar joint

A

a plane joint: gliding action

213
Q

what muscle does the femoropatellar joint work with to extend the leg

A

quadriceps femoris

214
Q

where is the tibiofemoral joint located

A

between the tibia and the femur

215
Q

what type of joint is the tibiofemoral joint

A

bicondylar hinge joint

216
Q

where is the meniscus located

A

in between the femur and the tibia

217
Q

how many axes does the tibiofemoral joint move in

A

two

218
Q

what are the two most important characteristics of the tibiofemoral joint? why?

A

stability and mobility because it is a weight bearing joint

219
Q

how is stability achieved in the tibiofemoral joint

A

ligaments, tendons, menisci

220
Q

what are the layers of the articular capsule that surrounds the tibiofemoral joint

A

fibrous outer layer
inner synovial membrane (produces synovial fluid)

221
Q

what are the four ligaments that support the tibiofemoral joint

A

tibial (medial) collateral
fibular (lateral) collateral
anterior cruciate ligament
posterior cruciate ligament

222
Q

what does the tibial collateral attach

A

the tibia to the femur

223
Q

what does the fibular collateral attach

A

the fibula to the femur

224
Q

which ligament of the tibiofemoral joint prevents medial movement? lateral movement?

A

medial movement: tibial collateral
lateral movement: fibular collateral

225
Q

where are the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments found

A

between the femur and the tibia
centered in between the two menisci

226
Q

what does the anterior cruciate ligament prevent

A

anterior sliding of the tibia

227
Q

what does the posterior cruciate ligament prevent

A

posterior sliding of the tibia

228
Q

what are the menisci

A

fibrocartilaginous discs that sit on top of the tibia

229
Q

what are the functions of the meniscus

A

greater contact area between tibia and femur
guide and support condyles
increase surface area of weight

230
Q

which ligament is attached to the medial meniscus

A

tibial (medial) collateral ligament

231
Q

what is the triad of three for knee injuries

A
  1. torn tibial collateral ligament
  2. torn medial meniscus
  3. torn anterior cruciate ligament
232
Q

what is the difference between a sprain and a strain

A

sprain: ligament stretched or torn
strain: tendon/muscle stretched or torn

233
Q

what is rheumatoid arthritis? what causes it

A

autoimmune (immune system attacks synovial membranes) chronic inflammatory disorder

234
Q

what does the inflamed synovial membrane cause in rheumatoid arthritis

A

a granular pannus that damages cartilage and bone which can lead to fusion of bones

235
Q

what is osteoarthritis and what causes it

A

articular cartilage breaks down resulting in bone to bone contact
caused by normal aging process

236
Q

what is gouty arthritis and what does it form

A

crystals in synovial joints because of high levels of uric acid in blood
forms a tophus

237
Q

what is carpal tunnel syndrome

A

inflammation of tendon sheaths puts pressure on the median nerve passing through the carpal tunnel

238
Q

what is the primary function of the digestive system

A

to break down food/liquids into smaller units of absorbable nutrients to be used to generate energy

239
Q

what is the alimentary canal

A

structures form long tube that breaks down food

240
Q

what is the role of the accessory digestive organs

A

participate in digestive process but food does not pass through them

241
Q

what are examples of accessory digestive organs

A

liver, pancreas, gallbladder, salivary glands

242
Q

what is ingestion

A

food into mouth

243
Q

what is propulsion

A

movement of food through canal
swallowing and peristalsis

244
Q

what is mechanical digestion

A

physical breakdown of food particles
chewing, churning, segmentation

245
Q

what is peristalsis

A

organizes contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle layers that propels food through the alimentary canal in one direction

246
Q

what is segmentation

A

contractions of smooth muscle move food produce back and forth within canal to allow mixing and further breakdown

247
Q

what is chemical digestion

A

enzymes and chemicals break down food

248
Q

what is absorption

A

particles are transported from canal into blood and lymph capillaries

249
Q

what is defecation

A

indigestible products are eliminated as feces

250
Q

what are the layers of the alimentary canal from lumen to outer layer

A

lumen
mucosa
submucosa
muscularis externa
serosa

251
Q

what are the three layers of the mucosa

A

epithelium
lamina propria
muscularis mucosa

252
Q

which sublayer of the mucosa contains many digestive glands

A

the epithelium

253
Q

which layer of the mucosa is made of loose areolar CT and is capillary rich to provide defense

A

lamina propria

254
Q

which layer of the mucosa helps glands expel contents and supports localized movements

A

muscularis mucosa

255
Q

what kind of CT is the submucosa

A

loose areolar but has more collagen fibers
highly vascularized

256
Q

what is the submucosal nerve plexus

A

where the control of muscle cells and glandular secretions is

257
Q

what are the two layers of the muscularis externa

A

circular (inner)
longitudinal (outer)

258
Q

what are the functions of the layers of the muscularis externa

A

peristalsis and segmentation

259
Q

what is the myenteric nerve plexus

A

innervates muscularis externa and is between the longitudinal and circular muscles

260
Q

what does the enteric nervous system control

A

smooth muscle and glands of the alimentary canal

261
Q

what two nerve plexuses make up the enteric nervous system

A

submucosal nerve plexus
myenteric nerve plexus

262
Q

where is the serosa found

A

around organs within the abdominal cavity

263
Q

what is the serosa made of

A

simple squamous epithelium and thin loose areolar CT

264
Q

what is the esophagus lined with

A

adventitia
fibrous CT

265
Q

where is the enteric nervous system located

A

within the wall of the alimentary canal

266
Q

what chemical mixes with saliva during chemical digestion

A

amylase

267
Q

what kind of epithelium makes up the mouth

A

stratified squamous

268
Q

do the lips have glands? are the keritinized?

A

no glands and are poorly keratinized

269
Q

what is the superior surface of the tongue covered in

A

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

270
Q

what are filiform papillae

A

on front part of tongue with no taste buds

271
Q

what are fungiform papillae

A

on front part of tongue with taste buds

272
Q

what are circumvallate papillae

A

on back of tongue with taste buds

273
Q

what is the lingual frenulum

A

a fold of mucosa layer that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth

274
Q

what is ankyloglossia

A

when the lingual frenulum extends too far forward, speech is difficult

275
Q

what kind of glands are salivary glands

A

exocrine (have duct)

276
Q

what do salivary glands produce

A

saliva

277
Q

what does the enzyme amylase break down

A

carbohydrates

278
Q

what does the enzyme lipase break down

A

fats

279
Q

what do serous cells secrete

A

digestive enzymes

280
Q

what do mucous cells secrete

A

mucus

281
Q

what is the largest salivary gland

A

parotid gland/duct

282
Q

what type of cells does the parotid gland contain

A

serous cells

283
Q

where does the parotid gland empty

A

near 2nd upper molar

284
Q

what is mumps

A

a viral infection where the parotid glands swell

285
Q

what kind of cells does the submandibular glad have

A

equal amounts of serous and mucus

286
Q

where does the submandibular gland empty

A

lateral to the lingual frenulum

287
Q

what kind of cells does the sublingual gland have

A

mostly mucus cells

288
Q

where does the sublingual gland empty

A

below the tongue

289
Q

what does heterodont dentition mean

A

different shapes of teeth for different jobs

290
Q

what are the deciduous teeth

A

baby teeth

291
Q

what are the four types of permanent teeth

A

incisors, canines, premolars, molars

292
Q

what is the crown of the tooth

A

part above the gum line

293
Q

what is the neck of the tooth

A

part contained within the gum tissue

294
Q

what is the root of the tooth

A

contained within the bone

295
Q

what is the pulp of the tooth

A

loose areolar CT with blood vessels and nerves

296
Q

what does the pulp do for the tooth

A

provides nutrients and sensation to the tooth

297
Q

what is dentin in teeth

A

collagen and minerals

298
Q

what is the function of dentin in teeth

A

forms bulk of tooth, has dentinal tubules that can contribute to tooth sensitivity, no cells or blood vessels

299
Q

What is the enamel

A

top layer of the tooth; hardest substance in the body

300
Q

what is the cement of the tooth

A

calcified CT that covers the root

301
Q

what is the periodontal ligament

A

dense CT that attaches cement of tooth to bony socket

302
Q

what is a carie

A

cavity

303
Q

what is a cavity caused by

A

demineralization of enamel and dentin

304
Q

what does a cavity begin with

A

dental plaque

305
Q

why would a root canal procedure be required

A

if the pulp becomes infected

306
Q

what happens to the pulp during the root canal procedure

A

the pulp is drilled out and the tooth is capped

307
Q

what is connected by the pharynx

A

the oral cavity and the esophagus / nasal cavity

308
Q

which two parts of the pharynx relate to the digestive system

A

the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx

309
Q

where is the oropharynx located

A

immediately behind oral cavity

310
Q

what is the oropharynx made of

A

stratified squamous epithelium

311
Q

where is the laryngopharynx located

A

below the oropharynx

312
Q

what is the laryngopharynx made of

A

stratified squamous epithelium

313
Q

what does the esophagus connect

A

the pharynx to the stomach

314
Q

what is the esophagus made of

A

stratified squamous epithelium

315
Q

what lubricated food as it passes through the esophagus

A

mucous glands in submucosa and mucosa

316
Q

what kind of muscle makes up the muscularis externa of the esophagus

A

upper 1/3: skeletal
middle 1/3: mix of smooth and skeletal
lower 1/3: smooth

317
Q

what is a hiatal hernia

A

the superior part of the stomach pushed through the esophageal sphincter (GERD)

318
Q

what is barretts esophagus

A

lower esophageal ulcers and precancerous epithelium due to persistent exposure of acidic stomach contents

319
Q

what does the esophagus have instead of serosa

A

adventitia (fibrous connective tissue)

320
Q

what kind of epithelium is the mucosa lining of the stomach

A

simple columnar epithelium

321
Q

what are rugae

A

the folds of mucosa that increase surface area and allow the stomach to expand

322
Q

where is the cardia of the stomach

A

closest to the heart

323
Q

where is the fundus of the stomach

A

the hump on the top of the stomach

324
Q

what is the pyloric antrum of the stomach

A

the bottom of the stomach

325
Q

what is the pyloric sphincter

A

the valve that regulates movement into the small intestine

326
Q

what is the cardiac sphincter

A

valve that prevents food from moving back into the esophagus

327
Q

what are the three layers of the muscularis externa in the stomach

A

longitudinal, circular, oblique (innermost)

328
Q

what do the mucous neck cells do in the stomach

A

secrete mucus

329
Q

what is the gastric pit in the stomach

A

regions where the epithelium cups downward and meets with the gastric gland

330
Q

what are the specialized cell types of the gastric gland

A

parietal cells, chief cells, enteroendocrine cells, undifferentiated stem cells

331
Q

what do parietal cells of the gastric gland do

A

secrete HCl which destroys bacteria
produce gastric intrinsic factor which is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption in small intestine

332
Q

what do chief cells of the gastric glands secrete

A

pepsinogen and gastric lipase

333
Q

what is the purpose of enteroendocrine cells of the gastric gland

A

release hormones

334
Q

where are undifferentiated stem cells found

A

junction between gastric glands and gastric pits

335
Q

why does the stomach need stem cells close

A

because of harsh environment, stomach cells are replaced every 3-7 days

336
Q

what does pepsin do in the stomach

A

breaks down proteins in food

337
Q

what is the basic pathway of pepsin formation

A

food enters stomach
release of gastrin into bloodstream
chief cells release pepsinogen (inactive)
parietal cells release HCl
HCl reacts with pepsinogen to make pepsin (active)
pepsin breaks down proteins

338
Q

why was alexis st martin studied

A

he had a gastric fistula: abnormal connection between stomach and skin that left an open hole to the stomach

339
Q

what is the longest segment of the alimentary canal

A

small intestine

340
Q

where does most absorption and chemical digestion take place

A

small intestine

341
Q

what are the three segments of the small intestine and where are they in relation to each other

A

duodenum (closest to stomach)
jejunum
ileum (closest to large intestine)

342
Q

which segment of the small intestine is the shortest

A

duodenum

343
Q

which segment of the small intestine is the longest

A

ileum

344
Q

which segment does the most absorption occur

A

jejunum

345
Q

what are the four layers of the small intestine wall

A

mucosa
submucosa
external muscularis
serosa

346
Q

what are the four contributors to the large surface area of the small intestine

A

length, circular folds, villi, microvilli

347
Q

what is the main purpose of the circular folds of the small intestine

A

to slow down chyme to increase nutrient absorption

348
Q

what kind of cells make up the villi

A

absorptive cells

349
Q

the part of the villi that has blood capillaries and a lymphatic capillary is called what

A

lacteal

350
Q

what is the brush border

A

microvilli

351
Q

what part of the villi is highly vascular

A

lamina propia

352
Q

what part of the villi absorbs proteins and carbs

A

capillaries

353
Q

what part of the villi absorbs fats

A

lacteals

354
Q

what part of the villi allows the villi to move within the lumen

A

muscularis mucosa

355
Q

what do the absorptive cells of the villi assemble absorbed lipids into

A

chylomicrons

356
Q

what do chylomicrons do

A

help transport hydrophobic molecules in a hydrophilic environment

357
Q

what is the purpose of the goblet cells on the villi

A

secrete mucus to lubricate chyme

358
Q

what do the enteroendocrine cells of the villi do

A

secrete hormones to control the release of other substances

359
Q

what are intestinal crypts

A

invaginations of mucosa between villi that produce intestinal juice

360
Q

what is the purpose of paneth cells and where are they found

A

destroy unwanted bacteria; found at the base of the intestinal crypt

361
Q

where do the ducts of duodenal glands open

A

into intestinal crypts

362
Q

where are duodenal glands found

A

submucosa of duodenum

363
Q

what are the two areas of lymphoid tissue in the small intestine

A

MALT and aggregated lymphoid nodules

364
Q

what do the lymphoid structures of the small intestine do

A

prevent unwanted bacteria

365
Q

what does the stomach contribute to the duodenum

A

chyme

366
Q

what does the gallbladder contribute to the duodenum

A

bile (breaks down fats)

367
Q

what does the pancreas contribute to the duodenum

A

digestive enzymes, pancreatic juice

368
Q

what is the final control valve of the duodenum called

A

hepatopancreatic sphincter

369
Q

once the chyme enters the duodenum, what happens when fats are detected

A

release of CCK which signals release of stored bile

370
Q

once chyme enters the duodenum, what happens when acids are detected

A

release of secretin signals release of pancreatic juice

371
Q

what is the epiploic of the large intestine

A

fat filled pouched on the outside

372
Q

what are the teniae coli on the large intestine

A

longitudinal strips of smooth muscle that cause puckering of the haustra

373
Q

what are the haustra of the large intestine

A

saclike structures

374
Q

what does the ileocecal valve of the large intestine connect

A

connects ileum to cecum

375
Q

what are the four parts of the colon

A

ascending (R side of body), transverse, descending (L side of body), sigmoid

376
Q

what type of epithelium lines the large intestine

A

simple columnar

377
Q

does the large intestine have circular folds or villi

A

no

378
Q

what do the colonocytes (absorptive cells of the large intestine) primarily absorb

A

water and electrolytes

379
Q

what reduces the friction of fecal movement in the large intestine

A

mucus from stem cells

380
Q

what type of cell is contained in the intestinal crypts of the large intestine

A

stem cells to replace epithelium every 7 days

381
Q

what does the rectum connect

A

sigmoid colon to anal canal

382
Q

what are rectal valves

A

transverse folds that prevent feces being passed with flatus

383
Q

what kind of epithelium is in the anal canal

A

stratified squamous

384
Q

what is the difference between the external and the internal anal sphincter

A

external: skeletal, voluntary
internal: smooth, involuntary

385
Q

what is a hemorrhoid

A

varicose veins of the hemorrhoidal veins in anal canal

386
Q

what are hemorrhoids caused by

A

excessive straining

387
Q

what are the accessory organs of the abdominal cavity

A

liver, gallbladder, pancreas

388
Q

what is the digestive function of the liver

A

produces bile

389
Q

what is the metabolic function of the liver

A

processes blood coming from stomach and intestines

390
Q

what are the four lobes of the liver

A

right, left, quadrate, caudate

391
Q

where is the caudate lobe located in relation to the quadrate lobe

A

caudate lobe is on top back if liver is facing in correct orientation

392
Q

what does the hepatic portal vein of the liver do

A

gathers blood from digestive organs and transports it to the liver

393
Q

what provides O rich blood to liver

A

hepatic artery proper

394
Q

what provides the liver with nutrient rich blood

A

hepatic portal vein

395
Q

what removes blood from the liver after it is processed

A

inferior vena cava

396
Q

where is the bile (produced in the liver) stored

A

gallbladder

397
Q

what are the hexagonally-shaped cells of the liver called

A

lobules

398
Q

what are organized into portal triads in the liver

A

blood vessels and ducts

399
Q

what transports bile out of the lobule

A

bile duct

400
Q

what transports nutrient rich blood into the lobule

A

portal venule

401
Q

what transports oxygen rich blood into the lobule

A

portal arteriole

402
Q

what do the portal triads release blood into

A

sinusoids

403
Q

what are hepatocytes

A

primary cell of the liver

404
Q

what are the two main functions of hepatocytes

A

produce bile
metabolize and store substances from blood

405
Q

what are the liver sinusoids

A

large capillaries between plates of hepatocytes

406
Q

what happens to the blood in the liver sinusoids

A

arterial and venous blood mix

407
Q

where does blood go after it is in the sinusoids

A

into the central vein to drain out of the liver

408
Q

what do stellate macrophages move through

A

sinusoids in liver

409
Q

what is the function of stellate macrophages (two)

A

destroy organisms that have made it through intestine
destroy worn out blood cells

410
Q

what is the correct order of movement for bile in the liver

A

hepatocytes –> bile canaliculus –> bile duct

411
Q

how many capillary beds does the blood in the liver move through before returning to the heart

A

two

412
Q

what connects the liver to the gallbladder and duodenum

A

series of ducts

413
Q

what is the function of the gallbladder

A

stores and concentrates bile

414
Q

what are gallstones

A

cholesterol that precipitates out of bile while in gallbladder

415
Q

what controls the release of bile into the duodenum

A

a sphincter at the duodenum

416
Q

what is the exocrine function of the pancreas

A

produce and secrete enzymes that breakdown different food types and neutralize chyme

417
Q

what kind of cell in the pancreas produces and secretes pancreatic enzymes

A

acinar cells

418
Q

what is the hormone controlling the release of pancreatic enzymes

A

secretin

419
Q

what is the endocrine function of the pancreas

A

produce hormones

420
Q

kind of cells produce insulin in the pancreas

A

beta cells

421
Q

what kind of cells produce glucagon in the pancreas

A

alpha cells

422
Q

will insulin raise or lower blood sugar

A

lower

423
Q

will glucagon raise or lower blood sugar

A

raise

424
Q

what is the mesentary

A

double sided serous membrane that suspends organs within cavity

425
Q

what are ulcers

A

erosions of the mucosa caused by bacterium

426
Q

what is inflammatory bowel disease

A

abnormal immune/inflammatory response to bacterial antigens in intestine

427
Q

what are the two types of inflammatory bowel disease

A

crohns (more severe)
ulcerative (less severe)

428
Q

what does irritable bowel syndrome affect

A

large intestine

429
Q

what is celiac disease

A

autoimmune disease where gluten triggers an immune response that damages villi of the small intestine (decreased absorption)

Anatomy (5 decks)

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