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Final Exam Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Who established the system of scientific nomenclature?

A

C. Linnaeus

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2
Q

Term for ‘bacteria’: means, pre-nucleus and single celled:

A

prokaryote

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3
Q

This type of bacteria is single celled, does not have a membrane bound nucleus, has a peptidoglycan cell wall, divides by binary fission, and derives nutrition from organic or inorganic chemicals or photosynthesis:

A

prokaryote

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4
Q

This type of bacteria is a prokaryote that exists in environments that don’t inhabit and is not pathogenic. It also lacks peptidoglycan cell walls:

A

archaea

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5
Q

What is the eukaryote that has a membrane bound nucleus, chitin cell wall, produces spores and absorb organic chemicals for energy?

A

fungi

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6
Q

Unicellular fungi:

A

yeast

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7
Q

multicellular fungi:

A

molds and mushrooms

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8
Q

Unicellular eukaryotes that absorb or ingest organic chemicals from their surrounding. May be motile via pseudopods, cilia, or flagella. Free-living or parasitic and can perform phagocytosis.

A

protozoa

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9
Q

Eukaryote with cellulose cell walls. Use photosynthesis for energy. Produce oxygen and carbohydrates. Can live in soil, water, salt water:

A

algae

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10
Q

Acellular with a DNA or RNA core surrounded by a protein coat and may be enclosed in a lipid envelope. Inert outside living hosts and only replicate when are in a living host cell:

A

viruses

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11
Q

Term for parasitic flatworms and roundworms:

A

helminths

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12
Q

Eukaryote that is multicellular, not strictly microscopic, and live off of human tissue:

A

Multicellular animal parasites

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13
Q

The Tree of Life consists of which domains of cellular organization?

A

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

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14
Q

What is the broadest form used to classify microorgnaisms?

A

Three domains categorized as the Tree of Life

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15
Q

Eukarya consists of:

A

protists, fungi, plants, animals

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16
Q

Who was responsible for discovering pasteurization and fermentation?

A

Pasteur

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17
Q

This person’s discoveries showed the relationship between microbes and disease, immunity, and antimicrobial drugs (antibiotics):

A

Pasteur

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18
Q

Who developed the first vaccine (smallpox)?

A

Jenner

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19
Q

Who discovered the first antibiotic (penicillium)?

A

Fleming

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20
Q

Science of classifying organisms that shows degree of similarity among organisms

A

taxonomy

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21
Q

Study of the evolutionary history of organisms

A

Systematics or phylogeny

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22
Q

Group of closely related organisms that breed among themselves (capable of sexual reproduction):

A

eukaryotic species

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23
Q

Order of the Taxonomic Hierarchy from greatest to least:

A

domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

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24
Q

Kingdoms for eukaryotes:

A

protista, fungi, pantae, animalia

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25
Q

rod-shaped

A

bacillus

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26
Q

spherical

A

coccus

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27
Q

spiral shapes of bacteria:

A

vibrio, spirillum, spirochete

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28
Q

cell shapes specific to archaea:

A

star-shaped; rectangular

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29
Q

pairs of cells

A

diplo

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30
Q

clusters

A

staphylo

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31
Q

chains

A

strepto

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32
Q

groups of four

A

tetrads

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33
Q

cubelike structure eight cells:

A

sarcinae

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34
Q

What makes up a prokaryote’s outermost layer?

A

glycocalyx

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35
Q

What structure’s main job is locomotion?

A

flagella

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36
Q

Term for hairlike appendages that allow for attachment? Many GI tract microbes have these so they can attach to the inner wall of the intestine without getting washed away.

A

fimbrae

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37
Q

What prevents a prokaryotic cell from lysis during osmotic changes?

A

peptidoglycan cell wall

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38
Q

Movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration; continues until molecules reach equilibrium:

A

simple diffusion

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39
Q

Solute combines with a transporter protein or carrier molecule in the membrane so that ions and larger molecules are transported across a membrane WITH the concentration gradient:

A

facilitated diffusion

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40
Q

The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of high water an area of lower water concentration:

A

osmosis

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41
Q

What breaks down complex molecules providing energy and building blocks for anabolism?

A

catabolism

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42
Q

What is an endergonic reaction?

A

anabolism

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43
Q

What uses energy and building blocks to build complex molecules?

A

anabolism

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44
Q

Catabolism releases energy by ___ of molecules.

A

oxidation

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45
Q

gain of electrons

A

reduction

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46
Q

oxidation reaction paired with a reduction reaction:

A

redox reaction

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47
Q

What is used as electron carriers in redox reactions?

A

NAD+ and FAD

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48
Q

Name the physical requirements for microbial growth:

A

temperature, pH, osmotic pressure (balance between solutes and water)

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49
Q

Name the chemical requirements for microbial growth:

A

water, carbon, N, S, P, O, trace elements, organic growth factors

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50
Q

cold loving microbes:

A

psychrophiles

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51
Q

moderate-temperature-loving microbes

A

mesophiles

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52
Q

These microbes are found in hot springs and their optimum growth temp. is 50-60 C

A

thermophiles

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53
Q

These microbes have an optimum growth temp greater than 80 C

A

hyperthermophiles

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54
Q

Obligate aerobes _____oxygen and run the electron transport chain.

A

require

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55
Q

Can grow with (tolerates) or without O2 via fermentation or anaerobic respiration (E. coli):

A

facultative anaerobes

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56
Q

These microbes can’t tolerate O2 and are harmed by it:

A

obligate anaerobes

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57
Q

What type of media is used to suppress unwanted microbes and encourage desired microbes?

A

selective media

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58
Q

What type of media allow distinguishing of colonies of different microbes on the same plate?

A

differential media

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59
Q

Phases of bacterial growth:

A

lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, death phase

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60
Q

During which stage of phase growth is there intense activity preparing for growth, but no division?

A

lag phase

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61
Q

During which stage of phase growth is there exponential increase in population?

A

log phase

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62
Q

During which stage of phase growth is there a period of equilibrium?

A

stationary phase

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63
Q

During which phase of growth is population decreasing at a logarithmic rate?

A

death phase

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64
Q

Term that refers to bacterial contamination:

A

sepsis

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65
Q

Term that refers to the absence of significant contamination:

A

asepsis

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66
Q

Term for removing and destroying all microbial life:

A

sterilization

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67
Q

This is used to destroy harmful microorganisms from fomites:

A

disinfection

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68
Q

Term for destroying harmful microorganisms from living tissue:

A

antisepsis

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69
Q

What is degerming?

A

mechanical removal (rather than killing) of microbes from a limited area (ex: handwashing).

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70
Q

This is used to lower microbial counts on eating utensils to safe levels:

A

sanitization

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71
Q

Term for the lowest temperature at which all cells in a liquid culture are killed at 10 minutes:

A

Thermal death point (TDP)

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72
Q

Term for the minimal time for all bacteria in a liquid culture to be killed at a particular temperature:

A

Thermal death time (TDT)

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73
Q

Which guidelines indicate the severity of treatment required to kill a given population of bacteria?

A

Thermal death point (TDP) and Thermal death time (TDT)

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74
Q

What is Decimal reduction time (DRT)?

A

minutes to kill 90% of a population at a given temperature

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75
Q

Name three types of radiation:

A

ionizing radiation, nonionizing radiation, microwaves

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76
Q

How does ionizing radiation work?

A

ionizes water to create reactive hydroxyl radicals; damages DNA by causing lethal mutations which can cause a cell to die.

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77
Q

How does nonionizing radiation work?

A

does NOT cause water to split into ions; damages DNA by creating thymine dimers (how melanoma forms)

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78
Q

How many phyla does the domain bacteria have?

A

14

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79
Q

List the gram-negative phyla:

A

proteobacteria, cyanobacteria, chlamydiae, bacteriodetes, fusobacteria, spirochaetes, deinococcus

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80
Q

List the gram-positive phyla:

A

firmicutes, actinobacteria

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81
Q

What is the largest phyla of bacteria?

A

Phylum Proteobacteria

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82
Q

Which phylum carry out oxygenic photosynthesis, nitrogen fixation, thought to play important role in increasing O2 concentration in the atmosphere

A

Phylum Cyanobacteria

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83
Q

What phylum causes the most common STD in the U.S.?

A

Phylum Chlamydiae

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84
Q

Are most fungi pathogenic?

A

no. There are greater than 100,000 species and only about 200 are pathogenic

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85
Q

What are the two growth patterns of fungi?

A

unicellular yeasts; multicellular molds and mushrooms

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86
Q

Name the five types of mycoses:

A

systemic mycoses, subcutaneous mycoses, cutaneous mycoses, superficial mycoses, opportunistic mycoses

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87
Q

Name four Phyla of medically important fungi:

A

zygomycota, microsporidia, ascomycota, basidiomycota

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88
Q

Do algae cause infectious diseases?

A

Algae are not pathogenic but some produce toxins which could affect humans and produce neurological problems.

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89
Q

Name the three medically important classes of Protozoa:

A

Sarcomastigophora, Ciliophora, Apicomplexa

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90
Q

What class of protozoa includes amoeba and flagellated protozoans?

A

Class Sarcomastigophora

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91
Q

Give examples of Class Sarcomastigophora:

A

Trypanosoma, Trichomonas, Leishmania

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92
Q

Give an example of a pathogen in Class Ciliophora:

A

Balantdidium coli (causes colitis and is the only parasitic ciliate of humans)

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93
Q

Give an example of Class Apicomplexa:

A

Plasmodium species, Toxoplasma gondi

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94
Q

Term for the primary host who harbors the sexually reproducing parasite:

A

definitive host

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95
Q

Term for the secondary host that harbors the larval stage of a parasite:

A

intermediate host

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96
Q

How do arthropods act as vectors in causing disease?

A

They transmit disease on their feet or in their body without being infected themselves (mechanical vector); or when an infected arthropod transmits a pathogen by a bite or other wound (biological vector)

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97
Q

What are the minimum components of a virus?

A

nucleic acid, protein coat

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98
Q

Name the four possible components of a virus:

A

nucleic acid, capsid, envelope, spikes

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99
Q

If a virus has an envelope, what is it made of?

A

lipid, protein, and carbohydrate coating made from cell components

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100
Q

Name some enveloped viruses that are human pathogens:

A

Herpes, mumps, measles, rubella, hep B, Corona, rabies, influenza, poxviruses, HIV

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101
Q

What type of virus (naked or enveloped) is easier to destroy with chemical agents?

A

enveloped viruses

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102
Q

What type of virus (naked or enveloped) is harder for our immune system to destroy?

A

enveloped viruses

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103
Q

Name some naked viral human pathogens:

A

HPV, rotavirus, norovirus, poliovirus, rhinovirus

104
Q

What part of a virus is more resistant to chemical agents?

A

capsid

105
Q

Term for the smallest known pathogens, naked, circular, single stranded RNA:

A

viroid

106
Q

Plant pathogens:

A

viroids

107
Q

Infectious protein that causes Mad Cow Disease:

A

prion

108
Q

What are prions?

A

proteinaceous infectious particles (protein that is infectious)

109
Q

What class of disease do prions cause?

A

spongiform enchephalopathies

110
Q

What is an example of a spongiform encephalopathy?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, mad cow disease

111
Q

What is a plant pathogen made of short pieces of make RNA with no protein coat?

A

viroid

112
Q

Term for all genetic information in a cell:

A

genome

113
Q

Term for segments of DNA that encode functional products, usually proteins:

A

genes

114
Q

What two molecules make up chromosomes?

A

Each chromosome is made of protein and single molecule of DNA

115
Q

Bacteria usually have what type of chromosome…made of ____ and _____?

A

single circular chromosome; single circular molecule of DNA; proteins

116
Q

During DNA _____ one strand serves as a template for the production of a second strand.

A

replication

117
Q

What has to happen to the DNA strands for replication to occur?

A

the strands have to separate

118
Q

T/F DNA replication is more than 99% accurate

A

True

119
Q

Why is replication highly accurate?

A

because of the proofreading capability of DNA polymerase (able to fix mistakes and proofreads as each nucleotide is added)

120
Q

Most bacterial DNA replication is _______.

A

bidirectional (because it is a circular chromosome)

121
Q

When does DNA replication occur in the life of a cell?

A

before cell division

122
Q

What two processes are involved in gene expression?

A

transcription and translation

123
Q

Term for the synthesis of a complementary mRNA strand from a DNA template:

A

transcription (DNA > RNA)

124
Q

Transcription begins when _____ binds to the ____ promoter sequence on DNA.

A

RNA polymerase; promoter

125
Q

Term for the process where mRNA is translated into the “language” of proteins:

A

translation (RNA > PROTEIN)

126
Q

T/F only one of the two DNA strands is transcribed during transcription

A

True

127
Q

What cuts specific sequences of DNA as a way to destroy bacteriophage DNA in bacterial cells?

A

restriction endonucleases

128
Q

What is the enzyme used to synthesize the new copy of DNA (comes from a hot spring prokaryote called Thermus aquaticus):

A

Taq polymerase

129
Q

Term for understanding gene function via computer-assisted analysis:

A

bioinformatics

130
Q

What is the enzyme used to synthesize the new copy of DNA (comes from a hot spring prokaryote called Thermus aquaticus):

A

Taq polymerase

131
Q

What are the requirements for PCR?

A

DNA template, primers, Taq polymerase, nucleotides, thermocycler

132
Q

Term for the ability to cause disease:

A

pathogenicity

133
Q

Term for the degree of pathogenicity

A

virulence

134
Q

What is the preferred portal of entry?

A

GI and respiratory

135
Q

This measures the virulence of a microbe based on infectious dose needed to cause illness in 50% of population:

A

ID50

136
Q

This measures the potency of a toxin what is needed as a lethal dose to cause lethality in 50% of a sample population:

A

LD50

137
Q

How can microbes evade the immune system?

A

impairment of phagocytosis

138
Q

What are the ways a microbe can penetrate host defenses?

A

capsules, cell wall components, enzymes, antigenic variation, penetration into host, biofilms

139
Q

What are two types of toxins?

A

exotoxins and endotoxins

140
Q

(Endotoxin or Exotoxin) This type is very specific in its effect and causes disease-specific signs and symptoms; soluble in body fluids; proteins are secreted and produced by the bacteria.

A

Exotoxins

141
Q

List examples of exotoxins:

A

A-B toxins, membrane-disrupting toxins, superantigens, genotoxins

142
Q

Endotoxin that is part of gram negative bacteria:

A

Lipid A

143
Q

Do you all endotoxins cause the same signs and symptoms regardless of the species of microbe? What are those symptoms

A

Yes; chills, fever, weakness, aches

144
Q

Term for visible effects of viral infection on a cell (changes the way the cell behaves):

A

cytopathic effects (CPE)

145
Q

Name some cytopathic effects:

A

causing cell lysosomes to release enzymes, changing host cell function or inducing chromosomal changes, inducing antigenic changes on cell surface

146
Q

Selectively finding and destroying pathogens without damaging the host:

A

selective toxicity

147
Q

Drugs that affect a narrow range of microbial types:

A

narrow spectrum drug

148
Q

Drug that affect a broad range of gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria–also can destroy the normal microbiota of the host–can also cause the normal microbiota to flourish and become opportunistic pathogens:

A

broad-spectrum antibiotics

149
Q

Name of test that tests the effectiveness of chemotherapeutic agents:

A

Kirby-Bauer (disk diffusion) test

150
Q

MIC stands for:

A

Minimal inhibitory concentration

151
Q

Five mechanisms of resistance:

A
  1. Enzymatic destruction or inactivation of drug 2. Prevention of penetration to the target site 3. Alteration of drug’s target site 4. Rapid efflux of antibiotic 5. Variation of these/combination of mechanisms
152
Q

Five actions of anti microbial drugs:

A
  1. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis 2. Inhibiting protein synthesis 3. Injuring plasma membrane 4. Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis 5. Inhibiting the synthesis of essential metabolites
153
Q

First line of defense:

A

skin, mucous membranes, antimicrobial substances

154
Q

Second line of defense:

A

inflammation, fever, phagocytes

155
Q

Third line of defense:

A

humoral and cell immunity

156
Q

Term for the ability to ward off disease:

A

immunity

157
Q

Term for lack of resistance to a disease:

A

susceptibility

158
Q

Which type of immunity has defenses again any pathogen; rapid, present at birth and includes the first and second lines of defense?

A

innate immunity

159
Q

Which type of immunity is slower to respond to a specific pathogen, has a memory component, and is part of the third line of defense?

A

adaptive immunity

160
Q

These are immune proteins that regulate the intensity and duration of an immune response–they recruit other WBCs, help activate B and T cells:

A

cytokines

161
Q

Produces viscous glycoproteins that trap microbes and prevent Resp/GI, etc. from drying out:

A

mucous/mucous membranes

162
Q

Secretions from mucous membranes that act as the first line of defense:

A

mucous, lacrimal apparatus, saliva

163
Q

Physical factors provided by the first line of defense:

A

ciliary escalator, earwax, urine, vaginal secretion, peristalsis, defecation, vomiting, diarrhea

164
Q

Chemical factors provided by the first line of defense:

A

sebum, lysozyme, gastric juice, vaginal secretion (low pH)

165
Q

How does the normal microbiota compete with pathogens?

A

microbial antagonism

166
Q

Normal microbiota in the vagina has a low pH and prevents the overgrowth of _____.

A

Candida

167
Q

____ in the colon produces bacteriocins that inhibit growth of Salmonella and Shigella.

A

E. coli

168
Q

Live microbial cultures that give health benefits to the the host:

A

probiotics

169
Q

Promote growth of beneficial bacteria–complex carbohydrates:

A

prebiotics

170
Q

The second line of defense begins when the microbe is _____ the human body.

A

inside

171
Q

Leukocytes with granules in their cytoplasm that are visible with a light microscope:

A

granulocytes

172
Q

Three types of granulocytes:

A

neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils

173
Q

What type of granulocyte is phagocytic and works in the early stages of an infection?

A

neutrophils

174
Q

What type of granulocyte releases histamine and works in allergic responses?

A

basophils

175
Q

What type of granulocyte is phagocytic and toxic against parasites and helminths?

A

eosinophils

176
Q

Term for leukocytes with granules in their cytoplasm that are not visible with a light microscope:

A

agranulocyte

177
Q

This WBC matures into macrophages in tissues where they are phagocytic:

A

monocytes

178
Q

This WBC is found in the skin, mucous membranes and thymus; phagocytic:

A

dendridic cells

179
Q

These are T cells, B cells, and NK cells and play a role in adaptive immunity:

A

lymphocytes

180
Q

4 mechanisms of phagocytosis:

A

chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion

181
Q

Chemical signals attract phagocytes during which stage of phagocytosis?

A

chemotaxis

182
Q

Attachment of a phagocyte to a microorganism is called?

A

adherence

183
Q

During the ingestion phase of phagocytosis ______ occurs and the microorganism is coated with serum proteins, making ingestion easier.

A

opsonization

184
Q

During which stage of phagocytosis is the microorganism digested inside a phagolysosome?

A

digestion

185
Q

What process allows tissue repair to occur?

A

inflammation

186
Q

four signs of inflammation:

A

redness, swelling, pain, heat

187
Q

3 steps of inflammation:

A

vasodilation, phagocyte migration and phagocytosis, tissue repair

188
Q

What type of inflammation has a quick onset and short duration?

A

acute inflammation

189
Q

What type of inflammation has a slow onset, long duration, and could lead to loss of function?

A

chronic inflammation

190
Q

Term for the process that includes greater than 30 serum proteins produced by the liver that assist the immune system in destroying microbes:

A

Complement System (can be recruited to work with the adaptive immune system - is only activated when needed otherwise it can cause tissue destruction)

191
Q

3 pathways of activation of the complement system:

A

classical, alternative, lectin

192
Q

What is always activated in any complement pathway and results in _____, ______, and ______.

A

C3; inflammation, cytolysis, opsonization

193
Q

During _____, activated complement protein create a membrane attack complex.

A

cytolysis

194
Q

During _____, microbe sticks to phagocytes and promotes phagocytosis.

A

opsonization

195
Q

During _____, activated complement proteins bind to mast cells, releasing histamine.

A

inflammation

196
Q

These are used to warn neighboring cells of a virus; they are antiviral/bacterial cytokines and cause neighboring cells to make anti-viral proteins:

A

interferons

197
Q

Most pathogenic bacteria require ____ for their growth or to survive.

A

iron

198
Q

Iron found in blood and tissue fluids:

A

transferrin

199
Q

Iron found in milk, saliva, mucous:

A

lactoferrin

200
Q

Iron found in the liver, spleen, and red bone marrow:

A

ferritin

201
Q

Iron found in red blood cells:

A

hemoglobin

202
Q

Bacteria produce ______ to compete with the host iron-binding proteins.

A

siderophores

203
Q

Adaptive immunity reacts to _________.

A

specific antigens

204
Q

Which response of the adaptive immune system combats a particular foreign substance and is SLOW:

A

primary response

205
Q

Which response of the adaptive immune system is fast and stronger:

A

secondary response

206
Q

Memory cells are part of the primary or secondary response of the adaptive immune system:

A

secondary

207
Q

Which response, primary or secondary, produces immunity?

A

secondary

208
Q

B cells are part of _____ immunity.

A

humoral

209
Q

T cells are part of _____ immunity.

A

cellular/cell-mediated immunity

210
Q

What type of lymphocyte recognizes free antigens, produces antibodies, and is best against invaders outside of cells–bacteria, toxins, and extracellular viruses:

A

B cells

211
Q

What type of lymphocyte recognizes antigens processed by phagocytic cells and is best at fight intracellular infections and some fungal and parasitic infections:

A

T cells

212
Q

Known as the chemical messengers of immune cells:

A

cytokines

213
Q

5 types of cytokines:

A

interleukins, chemokines, interferons, tumor necrosis factor (TNF), hematopoietic cytokines

214
Q

Cytokines between leukocytes (WBC):

A

interleukins

215
Q

Induce migration of leukocytes:

A

chemokines

216
Q

Interfere with viral infections:

A

interferons

217
Q

Promote inflammation–too much can result in autoimmune disease:

A

tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

218
Q

Control stem cells that develop into red and white blood cells:

A

hematopoietic cytokines

219
Q

Term for a foreign substance that cause the production of antibodies/T cells

A

antigens

220
Q

Antibodies interact with _____ or antigenic determinants = specific sites on the antigen.

A

epitopes

221
Q

These are antigens too small to provoke immune responses by themselves; attach to carrier molecules:

A

haptens

222
Q

What is an antigenic determinant on an antigen?

A

epitope

223
Q

Antibodies are also known as _____.

A

immunoglobulins

224
Q

Five classes of antibodies:

A

IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD

225
Q

Naturally acquired antibody that makes up 80% of serum antibodies:

A

IgG

226
Q

Antibody that is the first response to an infection but is short lived. Causes agglutination and complement fixation:

A

IgM

227
Q

Antibody common in mucous membranes, saliva, tears, and breast milk:

A

IgA

228
Q

Antibody in blood, lymph, and B cells - no well defined function:

A

IgD

229
Q

Antibody that causes allergic reaction and is on mast cells and basophils:

A

IgE

230
Q

What are the results of the antigen-antibody binding?

A

agglutination, opsonization, antibody-dependent cell-mediated toxicity, neutralization, activation of the complement system

231
Q

What process protects the host by tagging foreign molecules or cells for destruction?

A

antigen-antibody binding

232
Q

What type of MHC protein mark a cell as SELF and not foreign?

A

Class I MHC

233
Q

What type of MHC proteins are only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells and are important in presentation of antigen to T cells?

A

Class II MHC

234
Q

What are antigen-presenting cells?

A

B cells, dendritic cells, macrophage

235
Q

What are the primary APCs (antigen presenting cells)?

A

dendritic cells

236
Q

Term for programmed cell death:

A

apoptosis

237
Q

This is a secondary response that occurs after the second exposure to an antigen. It is fast and lasts many days in greater magnitude. Memory cells are activated for a strong and fast response.

A

Immunological memory

238
Q

Naturally acquired active immunity occurs:

A

from infection

239
Q

Immunity provided by breast milk is:

A

naturally acquired passive immunity

240
Q

Injection of a vaccine is an example of:

A

artificially aquired active immunity

241
Q

Injection of antibodies, antitoxin, or antivenom is an example of:

A

artificially acquired passive immunity

242
Q

An overreaction of the immune system is called:

A

hypersensitivity

243
Q

Four types of hypersensitivity:

A

anaphylactic, cytotoxic, immune complex, delayed cell-mediated

244
Q

What type of virus is HIV?

A

Genus Lentivirus ; Retrovirus

245
Q

When new viruses bud from the host cell:

A

active infection

246
Q

When DNA is hidden in the chromosome as a provirus–in HIV, some become memory T cells that serve as the reservoir for HIV:

A

latent infection

247
Q

Term for suspension of organisms or fractions of organisms that induce immunity:

A

vaccine

248
Q

What provokes a primary immune response and leads to the formation of antibodies and memory cells without causing illness?

A

vaccine

249
Q

What kind of vaccine provides a weakened pathogen, closely mimics an actual infection, and usually provides lifelong cellular and humoral immunity?

A

live attenuated vaccines

250
Q

What type of vaccine contains kill bacteria or inactivated viruses, usually requires a booster and provides mostly humoral immunity?

A

inactivated vaccines

251
Q

What type of vaccines use antigenic fragments to stimulate an immune response?

A

subunit vaccines

252
Q

This is a subunit vaccine produced by genetic modification:

A

recombinant vaccine

253
Q

A subunit vaccine that resemble intact viruses but do not contain viral genetic material:

A

virus-like particle (VLP) vaccines

254
Q

Term for inactivated toxins:

A

toxoids

255
Q

What type of vaccine combines antigen with a protein to boost immune response and is used for diseases in children with poor immune response to capsular polysaccharides?

A

conjugated vaccines

256
Q

What type of vaccine injects naked DNA into patient cells to produce the protein antigen–stimulated humoral and cellular immunity:

A

Nucleic acid (DNA) vaccines

Microbiology (7 decks)

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