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Microbiology > Exam 2 (Chapters 7, 11, 12, 13) > Flashcards

Exam 2 (Chapters 7, 11, 12, 13) Flashcards

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1
Q

Term that refers to bacterial contamination:

A

sepsis

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2
Q

Term that refers to the absence of significant contamination:

A

asepsis

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3
Q

Term for removing and destroying all microbial life:

A

sterilization

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4
Q

What is an example of commercial sterilization?

A

killing C. botulinum endospores from canned goods.

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5
Q

This is used to destroy harmful microorganisms from fomites:

A

disinfection

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6
Q

Term for destroying harmful microorganisms from living tissue:

A

antisepsis

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7
Q

What is degerming?

A

mechanical removal (rather than killing) of microbes from a limited area (ex: handwashing).

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8
Q

This is used to lower microbial counts on eating utensils to safe levels:

A

sanitization

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9
Q

Treatments that kill microbes:

A

biocide (germicide)

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10
Q

Inhibiting, but not killing microbes:

A

bacteriostasis

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11
Q

What are some factors that affect the rate of microbial death?

A

number of microbes, environment, time of exposure, microbial characteristics

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12
Q

How does the environment affect the rate of microbial death?

A

Things to consider: if there is a nutrient source for the microbe (organic matter), temperature, and if biofilms are present and adhere to a substrate making them harder to kill.

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13
Q

What kind of microbial characteristics would effect the rate of microbial death?

A

cell wall components: is it gram negative? does it have mycolic acid? what are its metabolic pathways?

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14
Q

What are the three targets of chemical reagents on cell (antimicrobials)?

A

alteration of membrane permeability, damage to proteins (enzymes), damage to nucleic acids

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15
Q

What does the alteration of membrane permeability do to a cell?

A

if the lipids and proteins of the membrane are damaged, the cell contents can leak out which leads to cell death.

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16
Q

What does damage to proteins do to a cell?

A

Breaks the bonds that keep the enzymes in their three dimensional shape

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17
Q

What does damage to nucleic acids do to a cell?

A

disrupts replication and normal metabolic function (DNA makes proteins/enzymes)

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18
Q

What are the physical methods of microbial control?

A

heat (wet heat or dry heat), pasteurization (moist heat), filtration, radiation

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19
Q

What is one of the main benefits of using heat from microbial control?

A

heat denatures enzymes/proteins which destroys the 3D shape so that proteins can’t do their job

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20
Q

Term for the lowest temperature at which all cells in a liquid culture are killed at 10 minutes:

A

Thermal death point (TDP)

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21
Q

Term for the minimal time for all bacteria in a liquid culture to be killed at a particular temperature:

A

Thermal death time (TDT)

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22
Q

Which guidelines indicate the severity of treatment required to kill a given population of bacteria?

A

Thermal death point (TDP) and Thermal death time (TDT)

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23
Q

What is Decimal reduction time (DRT)?

A

minutes to kill 90% of a population at a given temperature

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24
Q

What does moist heat sterilization do?

A

denatures proteins and coagulates them like an egg white being fried

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25
Q

What type of moist heat sterilization kill vegetative (non-spore forming) bacteria, almost all viruses, and fungi and their spores within about ten minutes?

A

boiling

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26
Q

Is boiling good for killing endospores?

A

No. Endospores help the virus or bacteria resist a hostile environment

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27
Q

Term for “steam under pressure”

A

autoclave

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28
Q

What form of sterilization kill as organisms and endospores, but the steam must contact the item’s surface to do so:

A

autoclave: 121 degree C at 15 psi or 15 minutes

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29
Q

When an organism survives pasteurization and is heat resistant:

A

thermoduric

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30
Q

What type of moist heat reduces spoilage organisms and pathogens–also reduces microbial numbers to prolong good food quality during refrigeration?

A

pasteurization

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31
Q

At what temperature does pasteurization denature bacterial proteins?

A

63 degrees C for 30 minutes

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32
Q

What process kill microbes by oxidation?

A

dry heat sterilization (flaming, incineration)

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33
Q

Why would hot air sterilization be used?

A

glassware

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34
Q

Why is filtration used?

A

for heat-sensitive materials

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35
Q

Term for freeze drying:

A

lyophilization

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36
Q

Term for the absence of water preventing microbe metabolism:

A

desiccation (bacteriostatic method)

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37
Q

What kind of method uses salts and sugars to create hypertonic environment; causes plasmolysis–used in food preservation:

A

osmotic pressure (high solute concentration pulls water out of cell)

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38
Q

Name three types of radiation:

A

ionizing radiation, nonionizing radiation, microwaves

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39
Q

How does ionizing radiation work?

A

ionizes water to create reactive hydroxyl radicals; damages DNA by causing lethal mutations which can cause a cell to die.

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40
Q

How does nonionizing radiation work?

A

does NOT cause water to split into ions; damages DNA by creating thymine dimers (how melanoma forms)

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41
Q

How do microwaves control microbial growth?

A

kill by heat, but they are not especially antimicrobial

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42
Q

How does the disk-diffusion method work for evaluating a disinfectant?

A

Filter paper disks are soaked in a chemical and placed on a culture; look for ZONE OF INHIBITION around disks which shows if a bacteria is more susceptible or more resistant to a particular disinfectant

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43
Q

What method evaluates the efficacy of chemical agents?

A

disk-diffusion method

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44
Q

How many phyla does the domain bacteria have?

A

14

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45
Q

List the gram-negative phyla:

A

proteobacteria, cyanobacteria, chlamydiae, bacteriodetes, fusobacteria, spirochaetes, deinococcus

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46
Q

List the gram-positive phyla:

A

firmicutes, actinobacteria

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47
Q

What is the largest phyla of bacteria?

A

Phylum Proteobacteria

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48
Q

What are general characteristics of Proteobacteria?

A

gram-negative, chemoheterotrophic, largest taxonomic group of bacteria

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49
Q

Characteristics of Alpha-proteobacteria:

A

grow with low levels of nutrients, agriculturally important, capable of nitrogen fixation (symbiotic relationship with plant roots)

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50
Q

Genus in Alpha-proteobacteria:

A

Rickettsia, Bartonella

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51
Q

Characteristics of the Genus Rickettsia:

A

obligate intracellular parasite, cause spotted fevers, vector transmission (insect, tick)

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52
Q

Characteristics of the Genus Bartonella:

A

human pathogen, cat-scratch disease

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53
Q

Genus in Betaproteobacteria:

A

Bordatella, Neisseria

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54
Q

Characteristics of Bordatella and a pathogen:

A

non-motile, aerobic, gram-negative rods; B. pertussis

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55
Q

Characteristics of Neisseria and pathogens:

A

aerobic, gram-negative cocci; inhabits mucous membranes of mammals; N. gonorrhoeae, N. meningitidis

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56
Q

What toxin do Phylum Cyanobacteria produce?

A

neurotoxin

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57
Q

Characteristics of Phylum Cyanobacteria:

A

carry out oxygenic photosynthesis, nitrogen fixation, thought to play important role in increasing O2 concentration in the atmosphere

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58
Q

What phylum causes the most common STD in the U.S.?

A

Phylum Chlamydiae

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59
Q

Characteristics of phylum Chlamydiae:

A

obligate intracellular parasite (must have host cell), does not have peptidoglycan cell wall

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60
Q

What causes trachoma (blindness in 3rd world countries)?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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61
Q

Characteristics of Phylum Spirochaetes?

A

Gram negative, move via axial filaments (like a corkscrew)

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62
Q

What pathogen causes syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

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63
Q

What pathogen causes Lyme disease?

A

Borrelia

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64
Q

What Phylum has more durable cells that are resistant to radiation and high temperatures?

A

Phylum Deinococci

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65
Q

Name two unusual bacteria in Phylum Deinococci:

A

Deinococcus radiodurans, Thermus aquaticus

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66
Q

Characteristics of Deinococcus radiodurans:

A

even more resistant to radiation than endospores, can survive radiation exposure 1500 times greater than a human

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67
Q

Characteristics of Thermus aquaticus:

A

found in a hot spring in Yellowstone, source of Taq polymerase which is an enzyme used in PCR to amplify DNA.

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68
Q

What bacteria produces Taq polymerase which is used in PCR to amplify DNA?

A

Thermus aquaticus

69
Q

Name the two phyla that are gram-positive:

A

Firmicutes, Actinobacteria

70
Q

Characteristics of Actinobacteria:

A

pleomorphic; branching filaments; common inhabitants of soil

71
Q

What phylum is a common inhabitant of soil?

A

Actinobacteria

72
Q

About how many bacterial species have been described?

A

5000

73
Q

Are most fungi pathogenic?

A

no. There are greater than 100,000 species and only about 200 are pathogenic

74
Q

What is mycelium?

A

mass of hyphae

75
Q

What are two types of fungal reproduction?

A

asexual and sexual

76
Q

What are the two growth patterns of fungi?

A

unicellular yeasts; multicellular molds and mushrooms

77
Q

What is the term for a fungal infection?

A

mycosis

78
Q

What domain and kingdom are fungi in?

A

Domain: Eukarya; Kingdom: Fungi

79
Q

Name four Phyla of medically important fungi:

A

zygomycota, microsporidia, ascomycota, basidiomycota

80
Q

Name the five types of mycoses:

A

systemic mycoses, subcutaneous mycoses, cutaneous mycoses, superficial mycoses, opportunistic mycoses

81
Q

What are some of the economic impacts of fungi?

A

Saccharomyces cerevisiae (bread, wine, hep B vaccine), Taxomyces (taxol: cancer treatment)

82
Q

Do algae cause infectious diseases?

A

Algae are not pathogenic but some produce toxins which could affect humans and produce neurological problems.

83
Q

Name the three medically important classes of Protozoa:

A

Sarcomastigophora, Ciliophora, Apicomplexa

84
Q

What class of protozoa includes amoeba and flagellated protozoans?

A

Class Sarcomastigophora

85
Q

Give examples of Class Sarcomastigophora:

A

Trypanosoma, Trichomonas, Leishmania

86
Q

Give an example of a pathogen in Class Ciliophora:

A

Balantdidium coli (causes colitis and is the only parasitic ciliate of humans)

87
Q

Give an example of Class Apicomplexa:

A

Plasmodium species, Toxoplasma gondi

88
Q

What kingdom do helminths belong to?

A

Animalia

89
Q

What are the two phyla of helminths that are parasitic?

A

Platyhelminthes (flatworms), Nematoda (roundworms)

90
Q

What phyla contains flatworms?

A

Platyhelminthes

91
Q

What phyla contains roundworms?

A

Nematoda

92
Q

Term for the primary host who harbors the sexually reproducing parasite:

A

definitive host

93
Q

Term for the secondary host that harbors the larval stage of a parasite:

A

intermediate host

94
Q

How do arthropods act as vectors in causing disease?

A

They transmit disease on their feet or in their body without being infected themselves (mechanical vector); or when an infected arthropod transmits a pathogen by a bite or other wound (biological vector)

95
Q

Term for arthropods that carry pathogenic microorganisms:

A

vector

96
Q

Microbes will ___ at a ____ _____ when heated or treated with antimicrobial chemicals.

A

die; constant rate

97
Q

Term for a microbe that requires a living host cell to multiply:

A

obligate intracellular parasite

98
Q

What are the minimum components of a virus?

A

nucleic acid, protein coat

99
Q

What does a virus use a host for?

A

enzymes for protein synthesis and generating ATP

100
Q

How is “host range” determined?

A

most viruses infect only specific types of cells in one host. This is determined by specific host attachment sites.

101
Q

What is a complete, fully developed viral particle?

A

virion

102
Q

What does every virus have?

A

nucleic acid and capsid (protein coat)

103
Q

Name the four possible components of a virus:

A

nucleic acid, capsid, envelope, spikes

104
Q

If a virus has an envelope, what is it made of?

A

lipid, protein, and carbohydrate coating made from cell components

105
Q

This structure is host derived and resembles a plasma membrane:

A

envelope

106
Q

What is the general morphology of naked viruses?

A

helical (rabies, ebola) and polyhedral (adenovirus, poliovirus)

107
Q

Name some enveloped viruses that are human pathogens:

A

Herpes, mumps, measles, rubella, hep B, Corona, rabies, influenza, poxviruses, HIV

108
Q

What type of virus (naked or enveloped) is easier to destroy with chemical agents?

A

enveloped viruses

109
Q

What type of virus (naked or enveloped) is harder for our immune system to destroy?

A

enveloped viruses

110
Q

What part of a virus is more resistant to chemical agents?

A

capsid

111
Q

Name some naked viral human pathogens:

A

HPV, rotavirus, norovirus, poliovirus, rhinovirus

112
Q

What informs to the severity of treatment required to kill a given population of bacteria?

A

Thermal death point and thermal death time

113
Q

Term for an exponential decline in a population of bacteria:

A

Decimal reduction time (DRT)

114
Q

Term for tumor viruses; becomes integrated into the host cell’s DNA and induces tumors:

A

oncogenic virus

115
Q

Give examples of DNA Oncogenic Viruses:

A

adenoviridae, herpesviridae, poxviridae, papovaviridae (HPV), hepadnaviridae (hep B)

116
Q

Give examples of RNA Oncogenic Viruses:

A

Retroviridae (COVID, HIV)

117
Q

What are two enzymes RNA viruses need for replication?

A

reverse transcriptase

118
Q

What are prions?

A

proteinaceous infectious particles (protein that is infectious)

119
Q

What class of disease do prions cause?

A

spongiform enchephalopathies

120
Q

What is an example of a spongiform encephalopathy?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, mad cow disease

121
Q

What is used to indicate sterility after autoclaving?

A

test strips

122
Q

Do large containers require longer sterilization times in the autoclave?

A

yes

123
Q

Term for microbes that survive pasteurization:

A

thermoduric

124
Q

Low temperature has _____ effect.

A

bacteriostatic (refrigeration, deep-freezing, freeze drying)

125
Q

lyophilization is:

A

freeze drying

126
Q

Primary decomposer of plant matter:

A

fungi

127
Q

What helps plants roots absorb minerals and water from the soil–symbiotic relationship between plants and fungi

A

mycorrhizae

128
Q

What is the main component of the cell wall in fungi?

A

chitin (mushrooms), glucan and mannans in yeast

129
Q

Fungal colonies are described as _____ structures because they contain cells involved in catabolism and growth.

A

vegetative

130
Q

The fungal body is called:

A

thallus

131
Q

How does yeast reproduce?

A

budding (divide unevenly)–alcohol fermentation, fission (divide evenly)

132
Q

This term for fungi means that it can exhibit two forms of growth which is common in pathogenic fungi. It can be yeastlike at 37 degree C and moldlike at 25 degree C.

A

dimorphic fungi

133
Q

Example of dimorphic fungi that infects humans:

A

histoplasmosis

134
Q

Reproductive structure of fungi:

A

spores (asexual and sexual reproduction)

135
Q

Are endospores reproductive?

A

No. Only fungal spores are reproductive

136
Q

How are asexual spores produced?

A

mitosis and cell division (produces genetically identical organism)

137
Q

What are two fungi that reproduce asexually?

A

conidiospore, sporangiospore

138
Q

How do fungi reproduce sexually?

A

Not male and female, they have opposite mating strains that undergo a fusion of nuclei

139
Q

Almost all molds are ____.

A

aerobic

140
Q

Most yeasts are _____ anaerobes.

A

facultative (without oxygen undergo fermentation)

141
Q

How are fungi more adapted to environments that are hostile to bacteria?

A

Grow in high sugar and salt concentration; resistant to osmotic pressure; can grow in low moisture content; low nitrogen environment; can metabolize complex carbohydrates

142
Q

Algae are _____ or _____ photoautotrophs.

A

unicellular; filamentous

143
Q

Are protozoa unicellular?

A

Yes. Unicellular eukaryotes

144
Q

What is the feeding and growing form of a protozoa?

A

trophozoite

145
Q

How do protozoans reproduce?

A

asexual reproduction by fission, budding, schizogony; sexual reproduction by conjugation

146
Q

Can viruses be seen with light microscopes?

A

No they are too small

147
Q

Do viruses have a cellular structure?

A

No, they do not have cell structure

148
Q

What is the ecological niche of a virus?

A

It’s host range: HIV infects Helper T cells; HPV infects epithelial cells

149
Q

Viruses that are not pathogenic to humans and only infect bacteria:

A

bacteriophages

150
Q

What device is required to visual viruses?

A

electron microscope

151
Q

Viral particle capable of infecting a host cell:

A

virion

152
Q

What type of nucleic acids can viruses have?

A

DNA or RNA can be single or double stranded; linear or circular

153
Q

Regardless of the shape of the capsid, enveloped viruses will always look:

A

spherical

154
Q

Is ebola naked or enveloped?

A

naked

155
Q

Term for a group of viruses sharing the same genetic information and ecological niche (host range):

A

viral species

156
Q

Viruses must be grown in _____ cells in the lab.

A

living

157
Q

What do you look for when growing viruses in the lab?

A

plaques which are clearings of bacteria and represent viral particles

158
Q

What genus is an obligate intracellular parasite, gram negative, causes spotted fevers, and is transmitted by insect or tick bites?

A

Rickettsia

159
Q

What genus is a human pathogen that is a gram-negative bacteria causing cat-scratch disease?

A

Bartonella

160
Q

Name two pathogens that are Beta-proteobacteria:

A

Bordatella and Neisseria

161
Q

What Genus causes whooping cough?

A

Bordatella

162
Q

What Genus includes gram-negative cocci that inhabit mucous membranes of mammals; causes gonorrhea and meningococcal meningitis

A

Neisseria

163
Q

What Class contains Pseudomonadales and Vibrionales?

A

Gammaproteobacteria

164
Q

Enterobacteriales inhabit the ______.

A

intestinal tract

165
Q

The Order Enterobacteriales includes:

A

Escherichia, Salmonella, Serratia, Yersinia, Pasteurellales

166
Q

Epsilonproteobacteria include:

A

campylobacter and helicobacter

167
Q

What phylum contains the oxygenic photosynthetic bacteria?

A

Cyanobacteria

168
Q

What phylum contains the most common STD in the US?

A

Chlamydiae

169
Q

What is a plant pathogen made of short pieces of make RNA with no protein coat?

A

Viroid

Microbiology (7 decks)

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