Final Cram Flashcards

1
Q

The vomiting center lies in the ______ and consists of the nucleus of the ______ & parts of reticular formation

A

Medulla oblongata; tractus solitarius

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2
Q

Detects noxious chemicals in the bloodstream

A

CRTZ

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3
Q

Upon activation, the vomiting center sends _______ via the CN _____ through the ________ & _______ and to skeletal muscle through ________. Signals for t eh vomiting center via these nerves trigger the motor process resulting in emesis

A

Efferent signals; V, VII, IX, X, XII; vagal parasympathetic fibers; sympathetic chain; alpha motor neurons

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4
Q

Pt PONV risk factors

A

Women, non smokers, hx of motion sickness, previous PONV

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5
Q

Surgical risk factors for PONV

A

LOSx, laparotomies, gynecological procedures, ENT, breast, plastic, ortho

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6
Q

10-20mg IV over 3-5 min 15-30 min before induction results in increased LES tone & decreased gastric fluid volume

A

Reglan

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7
Q

Reglan should not be administered to which pts?

A

Parkinson’s, restless leg, or movement disorders r/t dopamine inhibition/depletion

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8
Q

Droperidol prophylactic dose for PONV

A

0.625 - 1.25 mg IV

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9
Q

Nutritional support for severe burns

A

Energy requirements may double & protein triple

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10
Q

___ comes from diet and ___ is synthesized by UV lights action on 7-dehydrocholesterol

A

D2, D3

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11
Q

Prototype of sulfonamides that bind to carbonic anhydrase, produce non competitive inhibition of enzyme activity

A

Acetazolamide

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12
Q

Where does acetazolamide inhibit carbonic anhydrase

A

Proximal renal tubules & collecting ducts

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13
Q

The increase in ____ results in alkaline urine and metabolic acidosis

A

HCO3

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14
Q

The increase in delivery of ___ to distal tubules leads to ___ loss

A

Na; K

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15
Q

Loop diuretics inhibit reabsorption of ?

A

Na, K, Cl

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16
Q

______ may be used to mobilize edema a/w renal, hepatic, or cardiac dysfuntion

A

Thiazide diuretics

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17
Q

______ diuretics are ineffective in pts with severe renal insufficiency & the use of _____ diuretics is recommended for diuresis

A

Thiazide; loop

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18
Q

Thiazide diuretics potentiate NMBD by producing _____

A

Hypokalemia

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19
Q

Principal site of action of osmotic diuretics

A

Proximal renal tubules & loop of Henle

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20
Q

Mannitol increases plasma osmolarity thus drawing fluid form ______ to ______ spaces

A

Intracellular, extracellular

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21
Q

Intact ____ is necessary for cerebral effects of Mannitol. Why?

A

BBB. Non-intact BBB may enter brain drawing fluid with it causing worsening cerebral edema

22
Q

Prevent Na reabsorption in the cortical collecting duct by blocking the epithelial Na channels

A

Pteridines (K sparing diuretic)

23
Q

Prevent the synthesis and activation of the aldosterone-dependent basal cell Na-K-ATPase pump

A

Aldosterone receptor blockers (K sparing diuretic)

24
Q

Although triamterene is a weak ______ antagonist, it rarely causes megalobastic anemia except in pts already at risk for ______ deficiency

A

Folic acid

25
Large volumes of NS can result in ?
Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
26
Contain macromolecules suspended in electrolyte solutions
Colloids
27
Most commonly used semisynthetic colloid solution. At 26 wks trace amounts still detectable. Renal excretion is 2 phases: immediate glomerular filtration & delayed glomerular filtration
Hydroxyethyl Starch (HES)
28
Immediate tx of life-threatening hypermagnesemia
Calcium gluconate 10-15 mg/kg IV, follow with diuretics or dialysis
29
Tx for hypocalcemia following IV bisphosphonate:
Calcium & vitamin D
30
Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a/w high-dose ____
Bisphosphonates (zoledronic acid & pamidronate)
31
Which hormones influence renal K secretion:
Aldosterone, glucocorticoids, catecholamines, arginine vasopressin
32
______ opposes and _____ favors K secretion
Acidosis; alkalosis
33
Catecholamine shift K ______
Intracellularly (predominantly into liver & skeletal muscles)
34
Drugs cause hyperkalemia by:
Redistribution; suppression of aldosterone secretion; inhibition of K secretion in distal collecting duct; direct cell destruction
35
In hyperkalemia, 10-20 cc of ______ restores myocardial contractility in 1-2 min and lasts 15-20 min
10% calcium chloride solution
36
Iatrogenic hyperglycemia can induce _____
Osmotic diuresis
37
Primary water losses are replace with _____
Hypotonic solutions (maintenance type D5W, 1/2NS)
38
Water & electrolyte losses are replaced with _____
Isotonic electrolyte solutions (replacement type NS, LR, D51/4NS)
39
Crystalloids stay intravascularly for how long?
20-30 min
40
most intraoperative fluid loss is?
Isotonic
41
_____ solutions should be avoided in neurosurgery bc they promote cerebral edema
Dextrose containing
42
Half-life of colloids
3-6 hrs
43
Indications for colloids:
``` Fluid resuscitation (hemorrhage) prior to transfusion (trauma); Fluid resuscitation (hypoalbuminemia or protein loss) (burns) ```
44
UO goal during surgery
0.5 - 1 ml/kg/hr
45
What must be taken into consideration for fluid replacement?
NPO loss; Insensible loss (third space); EBL replacement; Maintenance
46
Third space replacement
Minor trauma 2ml/kg/hr; Moderate trauma 4ml/kg/hr; Extensive trauma 8ml/kg/hr
47
When does mobilization of third space fluids occur?
72 hrs post-op
48
NPO deficit = ?
Hourly maintenance x hrs NPO
49
Give ____+ hr maint in first hour, ____ + hr maint in second hour, & ____ + hr maint in third hour
1/2 NPO; 1/4 NPO; 1/4 NPO
50
Acute blood loss in the range of _____ or ___% of EBV exceeds ability of crystalloids to replace w/o jeopardizing O2 carrying capacity of blood
1500 -2000 ml; 30%
51
1 unit of PRBCs will raise Hgb ___ & Hct ___
1 g/dL, 3%
52
10 ml/kg of PRBCs will increase Hgb ____ & Hct ___
3 g/dL; 10%