Cholinesterase Inhibitors & Anticholinergics Flashcards

1
Q

Why is there no IV or IM form of cholinergic agonists

A

Rapid breakdown and rapid actions

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2
Q

Where are cholinergic agonists metabolized

A

At the muscarinic & nicotinic receptor sites in the plasma and liver

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3
Q

When do you use cholinergic agonists?

A

Urinary retention d/t weak or atomic bladder
Lack of bowel movements especially post op
Glaucoma to reduce intraocular pressure
Salivary gland hypofunction

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4
Q

Can cross BBB

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, anticholinergics

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5
Q

How are AChE inhibitors metabolized and excreted?

A

Enzymes in plasma/ kidneys

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6
Q

Interrupt parasympathetic nerve impulses in the central and autonomic nervous systems

A

Anticholinergics

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7
Q

All cholinergic blocking agents relax smooth muscle of?

A

GI and urinary bladder

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8
Q

Drug interactions with cholinergic blockers

A

Tricyclic and tetracyclic antidepressants

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9
Q

Antidote/tx for cholinergic blockers

A

Physostygmine

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10
Q

Naturally occurring tertiary amine belladonna alkaloids

A

Atropine & Scopolamine

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11
Q

Semisynthetic quarternary ammonium derivative

A

Glycopyrrolate

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12
Q

Why do semisynthetic quaternary ammonium derivatives have no CNS effects?

A

Poor penetration to the brain

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13
Q

Atropine & Scopolamine:

A

Naturally occurring drugs formed into esters
Resemble cocaine structurally
Equal parts dextrorotatory & levorotatory isomers
Anticholinergic effects d/t levorotatory form

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14
Q

Anticholinergic drug with muscarinic receptors results in?

A

NO cell membrane change

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15
Q

How can effects of anticholinergics be overcome?

A

Increased concentration of ACh in area of muscarinic receptors

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16
Q

M1

A

CNS & stomach

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17
Q

M2

A

Lungs, heart, & eyes

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18
Q

M3

A

CNS, airway smooth muscle & glandular tissue

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19
Q

M4 & M5

A

CNS

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20
Q

All muscarinic cholinergic receptors are _______ depending on second messenger coupling

A

G-protein coupled receptors

21
Q

Scopolamine has _________ antisialagogue (decreased production of saliva) & ocular affects than atropine

A

Greater

22
Q

_________ has greater anticholinergic effects on the heart, bronchial smooth muscle, & GI tract than ________

A

Atropine; scopolamine

23
Q

_______ increased metabolic O2 consumption, ________ has no effect, & ________ has a decreased effect

A

Glycopyrrolate; atropine; scopolamine

24
Q

_____ & ______ can penetrate the BBB but _______ cannot

A

Atropine; scopolamine; glycopyrrolate

25
Q

Order for causing mydriasis

A

Scopolamine > atropine > glycopyrrolate

26
Q

Scopolamine is _____ times more potent than atropine in decreasing activity of RAS

A

100

27
Q

favored combo when a reliable sedative is needed in pre-op

A

Morphine + scopolamine

28
Q

Depresses the cerebral cortex and effects other areas of the brain causing amnesia

A

Scopolamine

29
Q

Has been associated with increased incidence of memory deficit after anesthesia

A

Atropine

30
Q

Inhaled anesthetics can ________ the effects of anticholinergic drugs on the CNS which could lead to increased post-op restlessness

A

Potentiate

31
Q

Effective in the reversal of restlessness/somnolence d/t CNS effects of tertiary amine anticholinergics

A

Physostigmine

32
Q

Which drug is more potent as an antisialagogue?

A

Scopolamine is 3x more potent than atropine as an antisialagogue

33
Q

What drug would you choose when an antisialagogue and sedation are needed?

A

Scopolamine

34
Q

Which drug is selected for absence of sedative effects when an antisialagogue is needed?

A

Glycopyrrolate (2x more potent than atropine and duration is longer)

35
Q

How do anticholinergics increase HR

A

By blocking effects of ACh on SA node (shortening the PR interval)

36
Q

How does great vagal tone in young adults influence atropine

A

Influence of atropine is enhanced

37
Q

During anesthesia, where a volatile drug is used, the does of atropine needed may increase d/t?

A

Depression of vagal centers

38
Q

what is the advantage of aerosols

A

Absences of adverse CV side effects

39
Q

Prevents & treats bronchospasm d/t beta blockers or psychogenic stimuli

A

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

40
Q

Which receptor does Ipratropium block

A

M3

41
Q

Which is more effective for chronic bronchitis or emphysema

A

Ipratropium

42
Q

Atropine decreases the tone of the smooth muscles of?

A

Biliary tract & ureter

43
Q

Atropine may not be able to reverse opioid-induced spasm of?

A

Sphincter of Oddi

44
Q

Tx for renal colic

A

Morphine + atropine

45
Q

How is glaucoma affected by mydriasis?

A

Mydriasis obstructs passage of intraocular fluid in venous circulation, causing hazardous increase IOP

46
Q

When should scopolamine be applied?

A

4 hrs before noxious stimulus

47
Q

Motion sickness is caused by? How does scopolamine help?

A

Stimulation of vestibular apparatus;

Scopolamine blocks transmission to the medulla of impulses from overstimulation

48
Q

Tx for anticholinergic overdose

A

Physostigmine 15-60 mcg/kg IV