Final Chapter 4: Contraception & Safety Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse is teaching a client about the use of oral contraceptives (OCs). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the nurse’s teaching?

  • a) “I can stop taking the pills at any time without backup contraception.”
  • b) “I should take the pill at the same time every day to ensure its effectiveness.”
  • c) “I can skip one dose and take two pills the next day.”
  • d) “If I miss a pill, I don’t need to worry about pregnancy risk.”
A

b) “I should take the pill at the same time every day to ensure its effectiveness.”

Rationale: Consistent daily dosing at the same time is important to maintain adequate hormone levels for contraception.

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2
Q

A client with a history of smoking is prescribed combination oral contraceptives. The nurse should assess for which of the following?

  • a) Risk for uterine fibroids
  • b) Risk for endometrial cancer
  • c) Increased risk of blood clots
  • d) Risk for fibrocystic breast disease
A

c) Increased risk of blood clots

Rationale: Smoking increases the risk of thromboembolic events when using combined oral contraceptives.

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3
Q

Which of the following is a potential benefit of oral contraceptive use in women with endometriosis?

  • a) Prevention of ovarian cancer
  • b) Decreased risk of uterine fibroids
  • c) Alleviation of menstrual cramps
  • d) Increase in pregnancy rate
A
  • c) Alleviation of menstrual cramps

Rationale: Oral contraceptives can help manage the symptoms of endometriosis, such as dysmenorrhea.

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4
Q

A client is prescribed a progestin-only pill (POP). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

  • a) “I need to take this pill at the same time every day.”
  • b) “I won’t experience any menstrual bleeding with this pill.”
  • c) “This pill works by thickening cervical mucus.”
  • d) “I should take a backup method if I miss a pill.”
A
  • b) “I won’t experience any menstrual bleeding with this pill.”

Rationale: Progestin-only pills can cause irregular bleeding, and the statement is incorrect.

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5
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of using extended-cycle oral contraceptives?

a) Increased incidence of menstrual cramps
b) Increased risk of breakthrough bleeding
c) A reduction in the number of menstrual periods per year
d) Decreased bone mineral density

A

d) A reduction in the number of menstrual periods per year

Rationale: Extended-cycle pills reduce the frequency of menstrual periods, offering benefits in managing menstrual disorders.

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6
Q

Which of the following medications can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
a) Antibiotics
b) Antidepressants
c) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
d) Antihistamines

A

a) Antibiotics

Rationale: Certain antibiotics can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, increasing the risk of pregnancy.

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7
Q

The nurse is educating a client about the side effects of oral contraceptives. Which of the following should the nurse include as a common side effect?

  • a) Increased libido
  • b) Irregular menstrual cycles
  • c) Decreased risk of blood clots
  • d) Increased hair growth
A
  • b) Irregular menstrual cycles

Rationale: Breakthrough bleeding and irregular cycles are common side effects of oral contraceptives.

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8
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for oral contraceptive use?

a) History of migraines without aura
b) Age over 40 years
c) History of thromboembolic disorders
d) Non-smoker

A

c) History of thromboembolic disorders

Rationale: Women with a history of thromboembolic disorders should not use oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of blood clots.

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9
Q

Which of the following oral contraceptive formulations is most likely to be prescribed for a client who cannot tolerate estrogen?

a) Monophasic combined oral contraceptive
b) Progestin-only pill (POP)
c) Multiphasic oral contraceptive
d) Extended-cycle combination pill

A

b) Progestin-only pill (POP)

Rationale: Progestin-only pills do not contain estrogen and are appropriate for women who cannot tolerate estrogen.

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10
Q

A nurse is educating a client about taking oral contraceptives. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do if they miss one dose?

a) Take two pills at the next scheduled dose
b) Skip the missed dose and continue with the next dose
c) Take a backup method for the next month
d) Stop taking the pills and contact a healthcare provider

A

a) Take two pills at the next scheduled dose

Rationale: If one dose is missed, the client should take two pills the next day and continue as usual.

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11
Q

Which of the following describes the mechanism by which combination oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy?

a) Suppression of estrogen production
b) Inhibition of cervical mucus production
c) Suppression of ovulation and alteration of cervical mucus
d) Thickening of the uterine lining

A

c) Suppression of ovulation and alteration of cervical mucus

Rationale: Combination oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation and thickening cervical mucus.

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12
Q

A client taking oral contraceptives reports experiencing breakthrough bleeding. Which of the following is the nurse’s best action?

  • a) Reassure the client, as this is a common side effect
  • b) Recommend discontinuing the oral contraceptives
  • c) Suggest an increase in the dosage of oral contraceptives
  • d) Instruct the client to stop using contraceptives for 7 days
A

a) Reassure the client, as this is a common side effect

Rationale: Breakthrough bleeding is a common side effect of oral contraceptives, particularly early in use.

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13
Q

A nurse is educating a client about the use of extended-cycle oral contraceptives. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

a) The client will have no menstrual bleeding
b) Extended-cycle pills are less effective than conventional pills
c) The client must take a break from the pill every 3 months
d) The client will have four withdrawal-bleeding episodes a year

A

d) The client will have four withdrawal-bleeding episodes a year

Rationale: Extended-cycle oral contraceptives reduce the number of periods to four per year.

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14
Q

A nurse is discussing oral contraceptive use with a client who has a history of asthma. Which of the following is a potential benefit of oral contraceptives in this client?

  • a) Improvement in asthma symptoms
  • b) Increased risk of asthma attacks
  • c) No impact on asthma
  • d) Decreased effectiveness in managing asthma
A

a) Improvement in asthma symptoms

Rationale: Some studies suggest that oral contraceptives may improve asthma symptoms in women.

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15
Q

Which of the following is a potential risk of long-term oral contraceptive use?

  • a) Increased risk of endometrial cancer
  • b) Decreased risk of colorectal cancer
  • c) Increased risk of uterine fibroids
  • d) Increased risk of blood clots
A

d) Increased risk of blood clots

Rationale: Long-term use of combination oral contraceptives increases the risk of thromboembolic events.

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16
Q

A client taking oral contraceptives is prescribed antibiotics. The nurse should provide which of the following instructions?

  • a) “No additional contraception is necessary.”
  • b) “You may need to use an alternative form of contraception while on antibiotics.”
  • c) “You can continue using your oral contraceptive without any changes.”
  • d) “Antibiotics will enhance the effectiveness of your oral contraceptive.”
A

b) “You may need to use an alternative form of contraception while on antibiotics.”

Rationale: Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, requiring the use of a backup method.

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17
Q

A nurse is preparing to educate a client on the use of Lybrel, a continuous oral contraceptive regimen. Which of the following is an important teaching point?

a) The client will have one menstrual period per year
b) The client will experience regular withdrawal bleeds every month
c) The client will take the pills every day without a break
d) The client must take a week-long break every 3 months

A

c) The client will take the pills every day without a break

Rationale: Lybrel is a continuous oral contraceptive that requires daily pill-taking without breaks.

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18
Q

Which of the following clients is MOST likely to be prescribed progestin-only contraceptives?

A. A 28-year-old smoker who is otherwise healthy
B. A 45-year-old woman with a history of blood clots
C. A 32-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer
D. A 22-year-old woman with controlled hypertension

A

B. A 45-year-old woman with a history of blood clots

Rationale: Progestin-only contraceptives (POP) are recommended for women who cannot use estrogen, such as those with a history of blood clots.

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19
Q

Which of the following contraceptive methods is MOST appropriate for a woman who desires a long-acting, reversible contraception option without hormones?

A. Intrauterine device (IUD) with copper
B. Birth control pill
C. Diaphragm
D. Contraceptive implant

A

A. Intrauterine device (IUD) with copper

Rationale: The copper IUD is a non-hormonal, long-acting reversible contraception (LARC) method.

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20
Q

A nurse is counseling a patient about the risks associated with combined oral contraceptives (COCs). Which of the following conditions would be an absolute contraindication for the use of COCs?

A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B. Smokers over the age of 35
C. History of myocardial infarction
D. History of irregular menstrual cycles

A

C. History of myocardial infarction

Rationale: A history of myocardial infarction is an absolute contraindication for the use of combined oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events.

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21
Q

Which of the following contraceptive methods has the highest efficacy in preventing pregnancy?

A. Contraceptive implant
B. Male condom
C. Oral contraceptive pills
D. Diaphragm

A

C. Oral contraceptive pills

Rationale: The contraceptive implant has the highest efficacy in preventing pregnancy because it is a long-acting, reversible method that does not require daily adherence.

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22
Q

A woman using oral contraceptives (OCs) is prescribed antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. What should the nurse advise the patient?

A. Continue taking the OCs without concern
B. Stop taking OCs while on antibiotics
C. Take additional OCs to ensure effectiveness
D. Use a backup contraception method while taking the antibiotics

A

D. Use a backup contraception method while taking the antibiotics

Rationale: Antibiotics can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so a backup method is recommended during antibiotic use.

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23
Q

A 28-year-old woman is interested in using an IUD for contraception. Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of an intrauterine device (IUD)?

A. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B. A history of hypertension
C. A current history of anemia
D. A previous cesarean delivery

A

A. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

Rationale: A history of PID is a contraindication for IUD use, as it increases the risk of further infection and complications.

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24
Q

Which of the following is a key advantage of using contraceptive implants?

A. It can be used immediately after childbirth
B. It has a low failure rate with perfect use
C. It requires a daily administration
D. It can be reversed easily within the first year

A

B. It has a low failure rate with perfect use

Rationale: The contraceptive implant has a very low failure rate with perfect use, and it is highly effective in preventing pregnancy.

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25
Q

Which of the following methods of contraception is most appropriate for a woman who is breastfeeding?

A. Combined oral contraceptives
B. Progestin-only pills
C. Contraceptive patch
D. Copper IUD

A

B. Progestin-only pills

Rationale: Progestin-only pills are the most appropriate for breastfeeding women because they do not affect milk production, unlike combined oral contraceptives.

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26
Q

A 40-year-old woman asks about the safety of using combined oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions would make this woman a candidate for COCs?

A. History of hypertension
B. History of breast cancer
C. History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
D. Smokers under the age of 35

A

D. Smokers under the age of 35

Rationale: Combined oral contraceptives are safe for smokers under the age of 35. However, they are contraindicated for smokers over 35 due to the increased risk of thrombosis.

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27
Q

A nurse is counseling a patient about the use of emergency contraception. Which of the following statements about emergency contraception is accurate?

A. It should be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse
B. It is most effective if taken within 5 days of unprotected intercourse
C. It is only effective for women with regular menstrual cycles
D. It is a permanent form of contraception

A

B. It is most effective if taken within 5 days of unprotected intercourse

Rationale: Emergency contraception is most effective within 5 days of unprotected intercourse but is preferred within 72 hours for optimal effectiveness.

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28
Q

Which of the following statements about barrier methods of contraception is correct?

A. Barrier methods offer no protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
B. Male condoms can be used as a sole contraceptive method
C. Female condoms are less effective than male condoms
D. Diaphragms need to be used with spermicide to be effective

A

D. Diaphragms need to be used with spermicide to be effective

Rationale: Diaphragms must be used with spermicide to ensure proper contraceptive effectiveness.

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29
Q

A woman is considering the use of a contraceptive patch. Which of the following is an important teaching point for the nurse to include?

A. The patch must be replaced every 7 days
B. The patch can be worn continuously for 6 months
C. The patch should be applied to the upper arm or abdominal area
D. The patch can be used effectively during breastfeeding

A

C. The patch should be applied to the upper arm or abdominal area

Rationale: The contraceptive patch should be applied to the upper arm, abdomen, or buttocks for effective use, and it must be replaced weekly.

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30
Q

Which of the following contraceptive methods requires a healthcare provider for placement?

A. Birth control pill
B. Contraceptive implant
C. Male condom
D. IUD

A

D. IUD
Rationale: An intrauterine device (IUD) requires a healthcare provider for placement, unlike methods like birth control pills or male condoms.

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31
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the Depo-Provera contraceptive injection?

A. It must be administered every 6 months
B. It is a short-term method of contraception
C. It is given every 3 months
D. It is ineffective in women who are breastfeeding

A

C. It is given every 3 months

Rationale: Depo-Provera is administered every 3 months and is a long-acting, reversible method of contraception.

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32
Q

A nurse is assessing a client’s contraceptive needs. Which of the following is a benefit of using fertility awareness methods?

A. It is a hormonal-based method
B. It is highly effective when used correctly
C. It has no risk of side effects
D. It requires regular healthcare visits for monitoring

A

C. It has no risk of side effects

Rationale: Fertility awareness methods have no risk of side effects as they do not involve hormonal changes or medical interventions, but they are less effective compared to other methods.

33
Q

A nurse is educating a patient about oral contraceptives (OCs). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A. “OCs suppress ovulation by increasing GnRH secretion.”
B. “OCs thicken cervical mucus to hinder sperm transport.”
C. “OCs alter uterine secretions to inhibit implantation.”
D. “OCs reduce the risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer.”

A

A. “OCs suppress ovulation by increasing GnRH secretion.”

Rationale: OCs suppress GnRH, which in turn decreases FSH and LH levels, inhibiting ovulation.

34
Q

Which statement accurately describes the process of fertilization?

A. Fertilization occurs in the uterus when sperm meets the egg.
B. Fertilization happens in the fallopian tube within 24 hours of ovulation.
C. Sperm can survive for only 6 hours after ejaculation.
D. The egg must be fertilized before completing meiosis.

A

B. Fertilization happens in the fallopian tube within 24 hours of ovulation.

Rationale: Fertilization typically occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube within 24 hours of ovulation. Sperm can survive for 3–5 days in the female reproductive tract.

35
Q

What is the significance of the acrosomal reaction during fertilization?

A. It allows the sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum.
B. It prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the egg.
C. It ensures implantation in the uterus.
D. It triggers the release of estrogen to support pregnancy.

A

A. It allows the sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum.

Rationale: The acrosomal reaction releases enzymes that help the sperm penetrate the zona pellucida, allowing fertilization.

36
Q

Which event occurs immediately after a sperm successfully penetrates an ovum?

A. The ovum completes the second meiotic division.
B. The zygote begins mitotic division.
C. The trophoblast secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
D. The blastocyst implants into the endometrium.

A

A. The ovum completes the second meiotic division.

Rationale: The ovum completes the second meiotic division only after sperm penetration, allowing the fusion of genetic material.

37
Q

Which factor plays the most significant role in preventing polyspermy (fertilization by multiple sperm)?

A. The rapid movement of the zygote into the uterus
B. The production of progesterone by the corpus luteum
C. The contraction of the fallopian tube muscles
D. The cortical reaction that hardens the zona pellucida

A

D. The cortical reaction that hardens the zona pellucida

Rationale: After a sperm penetrates the ovum, the cortical reaction prevents additional sperm from entering by altering the zona pellucida.

38
Q

A nurse is teaching a couple about conception. Which statement indicates a need for further education?

A. “My egg is viable for about 24 hours after ovulation.”
B. “Sperm can survive inside me for up to 5 days.”
C. “Fertilization happens in the uterus.”
D. “The fertilized egg begins dividing before it reaches the uterus.”

A

C. “Fertilization happens in the uterus.”

Rationale: Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube, not the uterus. The zygote undergoes mitotic division before implantation.

39
Q

Which factor determines the sex of the embryo at fertilization?

A. The maternal genetic contribution
B. The number of sperm that reach the ovum
C. The presence of an X or Y chromosome in the fertilizing sperm
D. The timing of fertilization relative to ovulation

A

C. The presence of an X or Y chromosome in the fertilizing sperm

Rationale: The sperm determines sex; an X-bearing sperm results in a female (XX), while a Y-bearing sperm results in a male (XY).

40
Q

What occurs within the first 24 hours after fertilization?

A. The blastocyst implants in the endometrium.
B. The zygote undergoes its first mitotic division.
C. The placenta begins forming.
D. The corpus luteum stops producing progesterone.

A

B. The zygote undergoes its first mitotic division.

Rationale: The zygote undergoes rapid mitotic division (cleavage) after fertilization, forming smaller cells called blastomeres.

41
Q

A couple asks how identical twins (monozygotic) are formed. What is the nurse’s best response?

A. “Two separate eggs are fertilized by two different sperm.”
B. “A genetic mutation causes an embryo to split after implantation.”
C. “Twins result when ovulation occurs twice in one cycle.”
D. “A single fertilized egg divides into two embryos.”

A

D. “A single fertilized egg divides into two embryos.”

Rationale: Monozygotic twins develop when a single fertilized egg splits into two embryos, sharing identical genetic material.

42
Q

Which structure provides early nutrition to the developing embryo before placental development?

A. The corpus luteum
B. The amniotic sac
C. The yolk sac
D. The trophoblast

A

C. The yolk sac

Rationale: The yolk sac provides initial nutrition until the placenta is fully developed.

43
Q

A nurse is counseling a woman trying to conceive. She asks about the role of the corpus luteum after fertilization. What is the best response?

A. “It produces estrogen to thicken the endometrium for implantation.”
B. “It secretes progesterone to maintain the pregnancy until the placenta takes over.”
C. “It stimulates the fallopian tubes to move the zygote to the uterus.”
D. “It prevents polyspermy by releasing enzymes.”

A

B. “It secretes progesterone to maintain the pregnancy until the placenta takes over.”

Rationale: The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which supports the endometrium until the placenta assumes this role.

44
Q

A patient asks when the zygote officially becomes an embryo. What is the nurse’s best response?

A. “At the moment of fertilization.”
B. “When the zygote reaches the uterus.”
C. “At the blastocyst stage, around 5–6 days after fertilization.”
D. “After implantation is complete.”

A

C. “At the blastocyst stage, around 5–6 days after fertilization.”

Rationale: The zygote becomes an embryo at the blastocyst stage, typically around 5–6 days after fertilization.

45
Q

Which statement accurately describes the process of implantation?

A. Implantation occurs in the cervix, where the blastocyst attaches to the uterine wall.

B. The blastocyst implants into the myometrium of the uterus.

C. Implantation typically occurs 6–10 days after fertilization in the endometrium.

D. The corpus luteum facilitates implantation by secreting human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

A

C. Implantation typically occurs 6–10 days after fertilization in the endometrium.

Rationale: Implantation occurs in the endometrium approximately 6–10 days after fertilization. The blastocyst embeds itself and begins forming connections with maternal blood vessels.

46
Q

Which factor is most critical for successful implantation?

A. The presence of estrogen to thin the endometrium
B. The secretion of progesterone to maintain endometrial receptivity
C. The early formation of the placenta
D. The rapid development of the fetal heart

A

B. The secretion of progesterone to maintain endometrial receptivity

Rationale: Progesterone, secreted by the corpus luteum, thickens the endometrium and maintains an optimal environment for implantation.

47
Q

What is the primary function of trophoblast cells during implantation?

A. To form the amniotic sac
B. To release hormones that trigger ovulation
C. To invade the maternal endometrium and establish the placenta
D. To develop the neural tube of the embryo

A

D. To invade the maternal endometrium and establish the placenta

Rationale: The trophoblast is responsible for embedding into the endometrium and initiating placental formation by invading maternal blood vessels.

48
Q

A nurse is explaining the implantation process to a pregnant client. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A. “Implantation occurs in my uterus about a week after fertilization.”
B. “My placenta starts forming right away from the implanted cells.”
C. “If implantation occurs in my fallopian tube, it is considered normal.”
D. “The hormone hCG helps support implantation.”

A

C. “If implantation occurs in my fallopian tube, it is considered normal.”

Rationale: Implantation in the fallopian tube is abnormal and leads to an ectopic pregnancy, which is a medical emergency.

49
Q

A patient asks when hCG becomes detectable after implantation. What is the nurse’s best response?

A. “hCG is released immediately after fertilization.”
B. “hCG is not detectable until the second trimester.”
C. “hCG is secreted only after the placenta is fully developed.”
D. “hCG can be detected in blood about 6–8 days after implantation.”

A

D.“hCG can be detected in blood about 6–8 days after implantation.”

Rationale: hCG is produced by trophoblast cells shortly after implantation and can be detected in blood around 6–8 days after implantation, making it an early marker of pregnancy.

50
Q

A nurse is reviewing a patient’s ultrasound and notes a blighted ovum. What does this indicate in relation to implantation?

A. Implantation has failed, and no trophoblastic activity has occurred.
B. The embryo failed to develop properly after implantation, leading to an empty gestational sac.
C. The pregnancy implanted in the myometrium instead of the endometrium.
D. A molar pregnancy has developed, requiring immediate termination.

A

B. The embryo failed to develop properly after implantation, leading to an empty gestational sac.

Rationale: A blighted ovum occurs when implantation takes place, but the embryo does not develop properly, resulting in an empty gestational sac.

51
Q

Which physiological change occurs in the maternal body immediately after implantation?

A. A decline in progesterone levels
B. Increased secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
C. Initiation of fetal heartbeat
D. Formation of the neural tube

A

B. Increased secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Rationale: After implantation, trophoblast cells begin secreting hCG to support the corpus luteum, which maintains progesterone production to sustain pregnancy.

52
Q

A patient with a history of recurrent pregnancy loss asks how implantation failure occurs. Which is the most accurate response?

A. “A thin or non-receptive endometrium can prevent the blastocyst from embedding properly.”

B. “If the sperm carries a Y chromosome, implantation is less likely to occur.”

C. “Implantation failure is always caused by chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.”

D. “Implantation failure happens when progesterone levels are too high.”

A

A. “A thin or non-receptive endometrium can prevent the blastocyst from embedding properly.”

Rationale: A thin or poorly developed endometrium may prevent proper implantation, leading to early pregnancy loss.

53
Q

A nurse is teaching a group of women about early pregnancy. Which statement about implantation bleeding is correct?

A. “Implantation bleeding is heavy and similar to a menstrual period.”
B. “Bleeding during implantation always indicates pregnancy loss.”
C. “Implantation bleeding occurs around the same time as ovulation.”
D. “Implantation bleeding occurs due to minor disruption of the endometrial blood vessels.”

A

D. “Implantation bleeding occurs due to minor disruption of the endometrial blood vessels.”

Rationale: Implantation bleeding is usually light spotting caused by the invasion of trophoblast cells into the endometrial blood vessels.

54
Q

Which scenario places a woman at the highest risk for an ectopic implantation?

A. A history of multiple full-term pregnancies
B. Use of progesterone supplements during conception
C. A previous pelvic infection or tubal damage
D. A maternal age of less than 20 years

A

C. A previous pelvic infection or tubal damage

Rationale: A history of pelvic infection or tubal damage increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy by impairing the fallopian tube’s ability to transport the fertilized ovum to the uterus.

55
Q

A nurse is educating a patient about intrauterine devices (IUDs). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) “IUDs protect against sexually transmitted infections.”
B) “I can check for the IUD strings in my vagina to ensure it’s in place.”
C) “The copper IUD does not contain hormones.”
D) “I may experience cramping and spotting after insertion.”

A

A) “IUDs protect against sexually transmitted infections.”

Rationale: IUDs do not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Barrier methods, such as condoms, should be used for STI prevention. Checking the strings and experiencing mild cramping or spotting after insertion are normal. The copper IUD is non-hormonal.

56
Q

A patient with a newly inserted Mirena IUD calls the clinic and reports that she cannot feel the strings. What is the nurse’s best response?

A) “This is a medical emergency. Go to the hospital immediately.”

B) “This is normal. The strings dissolve after insertion.”

C) “Schedule an appointment so your provider can check the placement.”

D) “You should remove the IUD yourself if you cannot feel the strings.”

A

C) “Schedule an appointment so your provider can check the placement.”

Rationale: If the patient cannot feel the IUD strings, it may have shifted or expelled. The patient should schedule an appointment for an evaluation to ensure it is still correctly positioned.

57
Q

A nurse is educating a patient about IUD insertion. Which statement should the nurse include?

A) “IUD insertion is always performed under general anesthesia.”
B) “You may experience cramping and spotting after insertion.”
C) “You must be on your period for the IUD to be inserted.”
D) “You cannot get pregnant immediately after IUD removal.”

A

B) “You may experience cramping and spotting after insertion.”

Rationale: Mild cramping and spotting are common after IUD insertion. IUDs can be inserted at any time during the menstrual cycle if pregnancy is ruled out. General anesthesia is not required, and fertility returns quickly after removal.

58
Q

A nurse is counseling a patient who recently had a ParaGard IUD inserted. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?

A) “I should avoid using tampons while I have the IUD.”
B) “I may have heavier periods and more cramping with this IUD.”
C) “This IUD must be replaced every 3 years.”
D) “I need to use backup contraception for the first week.”

A

B) “I may have heavier periods and more cramping with this IUD.”

Rationale: The copper ParaGard IUD is associated with heavier periods and increased cramping. It is effective for up to 10 years and does not require backup contraception because it is immediately effective upon insertion.

59
Q

A patient asks when they should seek medical attention after IUD insertion. The nurse should instruct them to report which symptom?

A) “Mild cramping for a few days after insertion”
B) “Missed periods while using a hormonal IUD”
C) “Increased vaginal discharge that is clear and odorless”
D) “Sudden severe pelvic pain or pain during intercourse”

A

D) “Sudden severe pelvic pain or pain during intercourse”

Rationale: Severe pain or dyspareunia (pain during intercourse) may indicate IUD perforation, migration, or infection and requires immediate medical attention. Mild cramping and lighter periods are expected effects of hormonal IUDs.

60
Q

A patient with a hormonal IUD asks about expected changes in their menstrual cycle. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) “Your periods will become heavier and more painful.”
B) “You will ovulate more frequently while using the IUD.”
C) “You may experience lighter periods or no periods at all.”
D) “Hormonal IUDs will not affect your menstrual cycle.”

A

C) “You may experience lighter periods or no periods at all.”

Rationale: Hormonal IUDs (such as Mirena, Kyleena) thin the endometrial lining, leading to lighter periods or amenorrhea (absence of periods) in some users. They do not increase ovulation frequency.

61
Q

A nurse is reviewing contraceptive options with a patient. Which patient would be the best candidate for an IUD?

A) A woman with a history of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B) A woman who desires long-term, reversible contraception
C) A woman with undiagnosed abnormal uterine bleeding
D) A woman with multiple sexual partners at high risk for STIs

A

B) A woman who desires long-term, reversible contraception

Rationale: IUDs are an excellent choice for long-term, reversible contraception. They are not recommended for women with active PID, undiagnosed abnormal uterine bleeding, or a high risk for STIs, as these conditions can increase the risk of complications.

62
Q

Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching regarding IUD use?

A) “My IUD can stay in place for several years.”
B) “I need to check my IUD strings regularly.”
C) “IUDs can protect me from sexually transmitted infections.”
D) “I may have some spotting and cramping after insertion.”

A

C) “IUDs can protect me from sexually transmitted infections.”

Rationale: IUDs do not protect against STIs. Patients should be counseled to use condoms if they are at risk for sexually transmitted infections.

63
Q

A patient is scheduled for an IUD insertion. Which condition would be a contraindication to IUD placement?

A) History of C-section
B) History of a prior pregnancy
C) Current pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
D) History of regular menstrual cycles

A

C) Current pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

Rationale: Active pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a contraindication to IUD insertion because it can worsen the infection and lead to complications. A history of pregnancy or C-section does not prevent IUD use.

64
Q

A patient with an IUD asks how often they need follow-up visits. What is the best response by the nurse?

A) “You must come in for a check-up every 3 months.”
B) “You should have your IUD checked yearly.”
C) “You need to come in for an ultrasound to confirm placement every 6 months.”
D) “Routine follow-up visits are not necessary unless you have symptoms.”

A

D) “Routine follow-up visits are not necessary unless you have symptoms.”

Rationale: Once an IUD is placed, no routine follow-up visits are required unless the patient experiences symptoms such as pain, abnormal bleeding, or inability to feel the strings.

65
Q

A patient with a hormonal IUD reports sudden, severe lower abdominal pain. What complication should the nurse suspect?

A) Normal uterine cramping
B) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Cervical stenosis

A

C) Ectopic pregnancy

Rationale: Although IUDs reduce the risk of pregnancy, if pregnancy does occur, there is an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy. Sudden severe abdominal pain may indicate a rupture, requiring urgent evaluation.

66
Q

A nurse is educating a patient on warning signs of IUD complications using the acronym “PAINS.” What does the “S” stand for?

A) Spotting between periods
B) Severe mood changes
C) String missing or shorter/longer than usual
D) Sudden weight gain

A

C) String missing or shorter/longer than usual

Rationale: The “S” in PAINS stands for “String missing or shorter/longer than usual,” which may indicate expulsion or displacement of the IUD. The patient should see a healthcare provider if this occurs.

67
Q

Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?

male and female sterilization

A

most effective

68
Q

Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?

intrauterine contraception

A

most effective

69
Q

Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?

implant (Nexplanon)

A

most effective

70
Q

Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?

abstinence

A

most effective

71
Q

Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?

injectable

A

very effective

72
Q

Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?

contraceptive patch

A

very effective

73
Q

Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?

male and female condoms

A

less effective

74
Q

Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?

ring and pills

A

very effective

75
Q

Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?

diaphragm

A

less effective

76
Q

Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?

fertility awareness

A

less effective

77
Q

When discussing contraceptive options, which method would the nurse recommend as being the most reliable?

A) Coitus interruptus

B) Lactational amenorrheal method (LAM)

C) Natural family planning

D) Intrauterine system

A

D) Intrauterine system

78
Q

A client is to receive an implantable contraceptive. The nurse describes this contraceptive as containing:

A) Synthetic progestin

B) Combined estrogen and progestin

C) Concentrated spermicide

D) Concentrated estrogen

A

A) Synthetic progestin

79
Q

A nurse is preparing a class for a group of women at a family planning clinic about contraceptives. When describing the health benefits of oral contraceptives, which of the following would the nurse most likely include? (Select all that apply.)

A) Protection against pelvic inflammatory disease

B) Reduced risk for endometrial cancer

C) Decreased risk for depression

D) Reduced risk for migraine headaches

E) Improvement in acne

A

A) Protection against pelvic inflammatory disease
B) Reduced risk for endometrial cancer
E) Improvement in acne