Chapter 1 and 2: Perspectives on Maternal Newborn, & Women’s Healthcare Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of the maternal mortality ratio?

a) The number of children born each year
b) The annual number of female deaths from any cause related to or aggravated by pregnancy or its management
c) The percentage of women who give birth each year
d) The ratio of women with health insurance

A

b) The annual number of female deaths from any cause related to or aggravated by pregnancy or its management

Rationale: The maternal mortality ratio is the annual number of female deaths from any cause related to or aggravated by pregnancy or its management, excluding accidental or incidental causes, during pregnancy and childbirth or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy, irrespective of the duration and site of the pregnancy.

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2
Q

Which ethnic group in the United States has the highest maternal mortality ratio?

a) White women
b) Hispanic women
c) African American women
d) Asian women

A

c) African American women

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3
Q

What are the top five leading causes of pregnancy-related mortality in the United States?

a) Postpartum hemorrhage, postpartum infection, preeclampsia/eclampsia, cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), and abortion complications
b) Anemia, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, and smoking
c) Malnutrition, infection, trauma, genetic disorders, and environmental factors
d) Asthma, chronic bronchitis, pneumonia, lung cancer, and tuberculosis

A

a) Postpartum hemorrhage, postpartum infection, preeclampsia/eclampsia, cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), and abortion complications

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4
Q

How does the maternal mortality ratio in the United States compare to other developed countries?

a) It is higher in the United States
b) It is lower in the United States
c) It is similar to other developed countries
d) It is not measured in the United States

A

a) It is higher in the United States

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5
Q

What is one of the largest racial disparities among public health indicators in the United States?

a) Diabetes rates between men and women
b) Maternal mortality rates between women of color and white women
c) Heart disease rates among young adults
d) Cancer rates in rural vs. urban areas

A

b) Maternal mortality rates between women of color and white women

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6
Q

What are some suspected causes of higher maternal mortality rates for minority women in the United States?

a) High socioeconomic status and comprehensive insurance coverage
b) Higher educational attainment and better health literacy
c) Improved access to prenatal care and advanced medical technologies
d) Limited or no insurance coverage, low socioeconomic status, bias among healthcare providers, and quality of care available

A

d) Limited or no insurance coverage, low socioeconomic status, bias among healthcare providers, and quality of care available

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7
Q

A woman with a history of gestational hypertension presents with dyspnea and chest discomfort. Which condition should the nurse prioritize in the differential diagnosis?

A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Panic attack
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

A

C. Myocardial infarction

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8
Q

Which factor contributes to the complexity of diagnosing heart disease in women?

A. Heart disease is often considered a “man’s disease”
B. Women exhibit classic “crushing chest pain” symptoms
C. Women have a lower risk of cardiovascular disease
D. Women experience menopause earlier than men

A

A. Heart disease is often considered a “man’s disease”

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9
Q

A nurse is educating a group of women on cancer prevention. Which type of cancer should be emphasized as the leading cause of cancer deaths in women?

A. Breast cancer
B. Endometrial cancer
C. Lung cancer
D. Ovarian cancer

A

C. Lung cancer

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10
Q

What is a significant risk factor for breast cancer that reflects social and economic disparities more than biologic differences?

A. Family history of breast cancer
B. Socioeconomic status
C. Irregularities in the menstrual cycle
D. Aging

A

B. Socioeconomic status

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11
Q

A pregnant woman with preexisting cardiovascular disease asks about the risks associated with pregnancy. Which factor should the nurse emphasize as increasing the workload on the heart during pregnancy?

A. Decreased plasma volume
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Increased heart rate

A

D. Increased heart rate

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12
Q

In the context of maternal morbidity, why is preconception counseling crucial for women with preexisting CVD?

A. It ensures women will not develop CVD during pregnancy
B. It defines both maternal and fetal risks of pregnancy
C. It guarantees a complication-free pregnancy
D. It eliminates the need for cardiac medication during pregnancy

A

B. It defines both maternal and fetal risks of pregnancy

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13
Q

A nurse is ensuring that a client understands the risks and benefits of a surgical procedure before signing the consent form. Which key component of informed consent is the nurse addressing?

A. Disclosure
B. Comprehension
C. Competency
D. Voluntariness

A

B. Comprehension

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14
Q

Which legal document must be signed by the client to agree to undergo a medical procedure after understanding its risks and benefits?

A. Informed consent
B. Power of attorney
C. Living will
D. Health care proxy

A

A. Informed consent

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15
Q

What responsibility does a nurse have in the informed consent process?

A. Performing the procedure
B. Providing a detailed description of the procedure
C. Ensuring the consent form is signed
D. Making the final decision about the procedure

A

C. Ensuring the consent form is signed

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16
Q

Which scenario represents a violation of a client’s autonomy in medical decision-making?

A. A client refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs, and the nurse respects this decision.

B. A nurse educates a client about the benefits of a recommended treatment without coercion.

C. A client is not informed about the potential risks of a procedure before giving consent.

D. A client decides to participate in a clinical trial after understanding the risks involved.

A

C. A client is not informed about the potential risks of a procedure before giving consent.

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17
Q

In which situation can an emancipated minor consent to their own health care without parental notification?

A. Receiving health care as a result of a crime-related injury

B. Receiving routine vaccinations

C. Undergoing elective cosmetic surgery

D. Participating in a sports physical examination

A

A. Receiving health care as a result of a crime-related injury

18
Q

Why is it important for health care providers to maintain an open dialogue with Jehovah’s Witness families regarding the use of blood and blood products?

A. To persuade them to accept blood transfusions

B. To create a therapeutic relationship and respect their beliefs

C. To ensure they receive standard medical treatment

D. To make them aware of the legal implications of their decision

A

B. To create a therapeutic relationship and respect their beliefs

19
Q

What is the primary focus of family-centered care in the health care system?

A. The health care provider

B. The individual client and their family

C. The hospital administration

D. The insurance company

A

B. The individual client and their family

20
Q

Which type of nursing support involves providing understandable information to the family about a member’s condition and treatment?

A. Emotional support
B. Informational support
C. Appraisal support
D. Instrumental support

A

B. Informational support

21
Q

A nurse is providing financial assistance to a family. Which type of support is the nurse offering?

A. Informational support
B. Emotional support
C. Instrumental support
D. Appraisal support

A

C. Instrumental support

22
Q

What core concept of family-centered care involves encouraging clients and their families to participate in decisions about their care?

A. Dignity and respect
B. Sharing meaningful and accurate information
C. Collaboration
D. Participation

A

D. Participation

23
Q

How does family-centered care improve communication between the health care team and the family?

A. By reducing the family’s involvement in decision-making
B. By increasing the health care team’s control over the care process
C. By limiting the amount of information shared with the family
D. By enhancing the family’s confidence and problem-solving skills

A

D. By enhancing the family’s confidence and problem-solving skills

24
Q

A nurse is working with a client using their own health framework for planning health promotion interventions. What principle of family-centered care is the nurse practicing?

A. Treating the client’s health needs as secondary to the family’s needs
B. Viewing the family as the constant in the client’s health care
C. Doing tasks for the client instead of with the client
D. Promoting nurse-centered care instead of client-centered care

A

B. Viewing the family as the constant in the client’s health care

25
Q

Which of the following is a positive outcome associated with using a family-centered care approach?

A. Increased anxiety in family members
B. Longer recovery times for clients
C. Enhanced confidence and problem-solving skills
D. Decreased communication between the health care team and the family

A

C. Enhanced confidence and problem-solving skills

26
Q

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention activity?

A. Administering folic acid supplements to pregnant women
B. Performing a Pap smear
C. Prescribing medication for osteoporosis
D. Conducting a mammography screening

A

A. Administering folic acid supplements to pregnant women

27
Q

What is the primary focus of primary prevention?

A. Treating established diseases
B. Preventing disease before it occurs
C. Screening for early disease detection
D. Providing palliative care

A

B. Preventing disease before it occurs

28
Q

Which model is commonly used to guide behavioral counseling in primary prevention?

A. The 5 Ps model
B. The 5 Rs model
C. The 5 Cs model
D. The 5 As model

A

D. The 5 As model

29
Q

The use of folic acid supplementation to prevent neural tube defects (NTDs) is an example of which level of prevention?

A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention

A

A. Primary prevention

30
Q

What is the main goal of secondary prevention?

A. Preventing disease occurrence
B. Reducing the duration and severity of a disease
C. Rehabilitating individuals with permanent disabilities
D. Providing long-term care for chronic conditions

A

B. Reducing the duration and severity of a disease

31
Q

Which screening tool is used as a form of secondary prevention to diagnose cervical cancer in its subclinical state?

A. Mammography
B. Blood pressure evaluation
C. Fecal occult blood testing
D. Pap smear

A

D. Pap smear

32
Q

How does secondary prevention aim to manage osteoporosis?

A. Through early identification and pharmacotherapy
B. By providing folic acid supplements
C. By offering genetic counseling
D. Through sanitation and hygiene education

A

A. Through early identification and pharmacotherapy

33
Q

Tertiary prevention is designed to address which type of condition?

A. Temporary illnesses
B. Reversible diseases
C. Permanent, irreversible diseases
D. Newly diagnosed conditions

A

C. Permanent, irreversible diseases

34
Q

What is the primary purpose of tertiary prevention?

A. To prevent disease occurrence
B. To restore individuals to their maximum potential
C. To screen for early disease detection
D. To eliminate the need for medical intervention

A

B. To restore individuals to their maximum potential

35
Q

Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention for individuals with chronic illnesses?

A. Rehabilitation efforts for stroke survivors
B. Smoking cessation programs
C. Chemotherapy for cancer
D. Immunization against influenza

A

A. Rehabilitation efforts for stroke survivors

36
Q

Which type of prevention measure includes client education as a cornerstone of disease management programs?

A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention

A

C. Tertiary prevention

37
Q

How can nurses address the challenges associated with the prevention of disease?

A. By ignoring evidence-based health promotion
B. By using evidence-based health promotion to identify effective interventions
C. By solely focusing on curative measures
D. By delegating prevention to other health care providers

A

B. By using evidence-based health promotion to identify effective interventions

38
Q

Which health condition is an example of a disease that is preventable but often becomes apparent only after a significant event such as a fracture?

A. Diabetes
B. Hypertension
C. Osteoporosis
D. Asthma

A

C. Osteoporosis

39
Q

What role do families and households play in the context of primary prevention?

A. They have minimal impact on health outcomes
B. They are the most important stakeholders and primary producers of health
C. They should rely solely on health care providers for prevention
D. They are only involved in secondary and tertiary prevention

A

B. They are the most important stakeholders and primary producers of health

40
Q

Which example illustrates the concept of anticipatory guidance in primary prevention?

A. Conducting mammography screenings for early cancer detection
B. Providing poison prevention and safety advice to parents of toddlers
C. Administering rehabilitation programs for stroke survivors
D. Offering genetic counseling for families with a history of genetic disorders

A

B. Providing poison prevention and safety advice to parents of toddlers