Exam 1 Flashcards
Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?
male and female sterilization
most effective
Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?
intrauterine contraception
most effective
Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?
implant (Nexplanon)
most effective
Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?
abstinence
most effective
Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?
injectable
very effective
Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?
contraceptive patch
very effective
Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?
male and female condoms
least effective
Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?
ring and pills
very effective
Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?
diaphragm
less effective
Most, very, or less effective birth control methods?
fertility awareness
less effective
Name the correct shunt.
connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava
a. ductus venosus
b. ductus arteriosus
c. foramen ovale
a. ductus venosus
Name the correct shunt.
connects the main pulmonary artery to the aorta
a. ductus venosus
b. ductus arteriosus
c. foramen ovale
b. ductus arteriosus
Name the correct shunt.
anatomic opening between the right and left atria
a. ductus venosus
b. ductus arteriosus
c. foramen ovale
c. foramen ovale
A nurse is assessing the umbilical cord of a newborn immediately after birth. Which of the following findings indicates a normal umbilical cord structure?
A. One artery and one vein surrounded by Wharton’s jelly
B. Two arteries and two veins with no protective covering
C. One artery and two veins surrounded by Wharton’s jelly
D. Two arteries and one vein surrounded by Wharton’s jelly
D. Two arteries and one vein surrounded by Wharton’s jelly
Rationale: The normal umbilical cord contains two arteries that carry waste products away from the fetus and one vein that carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus. The vessels are surrounded by Wharton’s jelly, which provides cushioning and protection.
Which of the following statements best describes the function of Wharton’s jelly in the umbilical cord?
A. Provides a medium for nutrient absorption by the fetus
B. Protects the umbilical blood vessels from compression
C. Serves as a primary source of oxygenation for the fetus
D. Facilitates the exchange of waste between the fetus and mother
B. Protects the umbilical blood vessels from compression
Rationale: Wharton’s jelly is a gelatinous substance in the umbilical cord that surrounds and protects the umbilical vessels from compression, ensuring that blood flow between the mother and fetus is maintained.
During labor, the nurse notes that the umbilical cord is wrapped around the infant’s neck. Which of the following functions of the umbilical cord’s structure helps minimize the risk of compromised circulation in this situation?
A. The presence of two arteries
B. The length of the umbilical cord
C. Wharton’s jelly surrounding the vessels
D. The presence of only one vein
C. Wharton’s jelly surrounding the vessels
Rationale: Wharton’s jelly helps protect and cushion the umbilical vessels against compression and kinking. This cushioning effect is especially important if the cord becomes wrapped around the fetus, as it helps ensure continued blood flow.
The average length of a term umbilical cord is approximately:
A. 12 inches
B. 18 inches
C. 22 inches
D. 30 inches
C. 22 inches
Rationale: At term, the average length of the umbilical cord is approximately 22 inches, with a diameter of about 1 inch. This length allows adequate movement of the fetus without compromising circulation.
The nurse is reviewing fetal circulation with a student. Which of the following best describes the role of the umbilical vein?
A. Removes waste products from the fetus
B. Carries deoxygenated blood to the placenta
C. Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
D. Circulates blood within the amniotic sac
C. Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Rationale: The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood and essential nutrients from the placenta to the fetus. In contrast, the two umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products away from the fetus to the placenta.
A newborn’s umbilical cord is examined shortly after birth, and only one artery and one vein are noted. This finding most likely indicates:
A. A normal umbilical cord
B. An absence of Wharton’s jelly
C. Excessive cord length
D. An increased risk for congenital anomalies
D. An increased risk for congenital anomalies
Rationale: The normal umbilical cord has two arteries and one vein. A single umbilical artery is associated with a higher risk for congenital anomalies and warrants further evaluation.
The umbilical cord develops from which of the following embryonic structures?
A. Neural crest cells
B. Yolk sac and amnion
C. Chorionic villi
D. Trophoblast layer
B. Yolk sac and amnion
Rationale: The umbilical cord is derived from the yolk sac and amnion during embryonic development. These structures contribute to the formation of the cord that connects the fetus to the placenta.
When explaining umbilical cord circulation, the nurse should emphasize that the umbilical arteries:
A. Remove deoxygenated blood and waste products away from the fetus
B. Transport nutrients to the fetus
C. Are thicker than the umbilical vein
D. Do not play a role in fetal circulation
A. Remove deoxygenated blood and waste products away from the fetus
Rationale: The umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood and metabolic waste products away from the fetus to the placenta for exchange and removal.
In a term pregnancy, the average diameter of the umbilical cord is approximately:
A. 0.5 inches
B. 1 inch
C. 1.5 inches
D. 2 inches
B. 1 inch
Rationale: At term, the average umbilical cord diameter is about 1 inch. This thickness, along with the Wharton’s jelly, helps ensure protection of the blood vessels within the cord.
Which of the following is true regarding umbilical cord function?
A. The umbilical vein removes waste from the fetus
B. The two umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood to the fetus
C. The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
D. Wharton’s jelly is responsible for nutrient exchange
C. The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Rationale: The umbilical vein’s primary function is to carry oxygenated blood and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus. This ensures proper fetal growth and development. The two arteries remove waste products from the fetus.
Which of the following is the primary function of the placenta at term?
A. To transport maternal blood into fetal circulation
B. To serve as a protective barrier to maternal immune cells
C. To produce insulin for the fetus
D. To bring nutrients and oxygen to the fetus while removing waste products
D. To bring nutrients and oxygen to the fetus while removing waste products
Rationale: The placenta acts as the interface between the mother and developing fetus, facilitating the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products. It does not directly transport maternal blood into the fetus but allows for exchange via diffusion and active transport. Although it provides some immune protection and hormone production, nutrient exchange is a crucial primary function.
Where does the placenta most commonly develop in a healthy pregnancy?
A. Lower uterine segment
B. Cervical os
C. Fundus of the uterus
D. Posterior uterine wall
C. Fundus of the uterus
Rationale: The placenta most commonly develops in the fundus of the uterus, which is the upper portion. This location supports optimal fetal development and uterine contractions during delivery. Placental implantation near the cervix or lower uterine segment can lead to complications such as placenta previa.
Which hormone is primarily produced by the placenta to sustain pregnancy?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B. Estrogen
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D. Insulin-like growth factor
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Rationale: The placenta produces human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) to maintain the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone necessary for pregnancy maintenance in the early stages. While estrogen is also produced, hCG plays a critical early role.
Which function of the placenta contributes to immune tolerance during pregnancy?
A. Producing hormones for fetal growth
B. Preventing maternal antibodies from attacking fetal cells
C. Removing waste products from the fetal bloodstream
D. Acting as a site for nutrient exchange
B. Preventing maternal antibodies from attacking fetal cells
Rationale: The placenta provides immune tolerance by preventing maternal immune cells from attacking the genetically distinct fetus. This immunological protection ensures fetal development proceeds without rejection from the mother’s immune system.
During fetal development, what is the role of the placenta regarding fetal circulation given the collapsed state of the fetal lungs?
A. Providing oxygen and nutrients via the maternal blood supply
B. Transporting oxygen directly through the fetal lungs
C. Allowing the fetus to practice breathing movements
D. Preventing oxygenated blood from reaching the fetus
A. Providing oxygen and nutrients via the maternal blood supply
Rationale: The placenta functions as the site of nutrient and oxygen transfer from the mother to the fetus since the fetal lungs remain collapsed and non-functional for oxygen exchange during intrauterine life.
How does the placenta protect the fetus from maternal immune attack?
A. By increasing maternal antibody production
B. By creating a physical barrier to immune cells
C. By secreting immunosuppressive factors
D. By promoting early labor to avoid immune attack
C. By secreting immunosuppressive factors
Rationale: The placenta secretes immunosuppressive factors and hormones that help modulate the maternal immune system, reducing the risk of an immune attack against the fetus.
The placenta is capable of producing hormones needed for fetal growth. Which of these is primarily involved in fetal growth regulation?
A. Cortisol
B. Human placental lactogen (hPL)
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
D. Testosterone
B. Human placental lactogen (hPL)
Rationale: Human placental lactogen (hPL) is produced by the placenta and plays a significant role in fetal growth by modulating maternal metabolism, increasing nutrient availability to the fetus.
What is one of the critical functions of the placenta related to the developing fetus’s lungs?
A. It acts as a surrogate lung for oxygen exchange
B. It inflates the lungs with amniotic fluid
C. It prevents amniotic fluid from reaching the fetus
D. It matures fetal lung tissue in the first trimester
A. It acts as a surrogate lung for oxygen exchange
Rationale: The placenta acts as a surrogate lung for the fetus, allowing oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange while the fetal lungs remain collapsed and non-functional in utero.
Name this hormone.
Modulates fetal and maternal metabolism
a. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Relaxin
a. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
Name this hormone.
Development of breast tissue
a. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Relaxin
a. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
Name this hormone.
Decreases maternal glucose utilization, increases available glucose to fetus
a. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Relaxin
a. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
Name this hormone.
Enlargement of maternal organs, stimulates contractions of uterus
a. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Relaxin
b. Estrogen
Name this hormone.
Maintains endometrium, decreases contractility of uterus, stimulates maternal metabolism and breast development.
a. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Relaxin
c. Progesterone
Name this hormone.
Acts synergistically with progesterone to maintain pregnancy, relaxation of pelvic ligaments, softens the cervix in preparation for birth.
a. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Relaxin
d. Relaxin
Name this hormone.
preserves the corpus luteum and its progesterone production so that the endometrial lining of the uterus is maintained; this is the basis for pregnancy tests
a. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Relaxin
a. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
_________ is the incidence or number of individuals who have died over a specific period.
mortality
__________ indicates any physical or mental diseased state or condition.
morbidity
A new mother in your postpartum unit is worried about her role transition to parenthood. She expresses anxiety over balancing her career and parental responsibilities. As the nurse, which intervention is the most appropriate?
A. Encourage the patient to avoid working for at least the first year.
B. Refer the patient to community support groups and parental counseling.
C. Suggest the patient rely on friends for childcare.
D. Discourage the patient from expressing negative emotions.
B. Refer the patient to community support groups and parental counseling.
Rationale: Transitioning into parental roles can be challenging. Providing support groups and parental counseling can help the mother feel less isolated and better equipped to handle her new responsibilities. Encouraging community support is effective in promoting adaptive coping mechanisms. Options A, C, and D either limit the patient’s choices or are inappropriate for fostering a supportive and adaptive environment.
A pregnant woman with a known genetic predisposition to cystic fibrosis asks about the potential impact on her unborn child. Which of the following is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
A. “Cystic fibrosis only affects males, so if you have a female child, she will not be affected.”
B. “Genetic counseling can help you better understand the risk and testing options available for your child.”
C. “There is no way to know if your child will have cystic fibrosis until they are born.”
D. “You should consider terminating the pregnancy, as there is a high risk of genetic disorders.”
B. “Genetic counseling can help you better understand the risk and testing options available for your child.”
Rationale: Genetic counseling is the most appropriate option for helping the patient understand genetic risks, inheritance patterns, and available tests. It respects the patient’s autonomy and helps in informed decision-making. Option A is incorrect as cystic fibrosis affects both genders. Option C is inaccurate as prenatal testing is possible, and Option D is not an appropriate response and fails to provide supportive guidance.
A nurse is conducting a health assessment for a woman living in a low-income community with high violence rates. Which factor should the nurse prioritize when developing a care plan?
A. Ensuring the patient has access to recreational activities.
B. Providing resources for community advocacy against violence.
C. Addressing immediate safety and providing referrals to shelters if needed.
D. Encouraging the patient to move out of the community.
C. Addressing immediate safety and providing referrals to shelters if needed.
Rationale: Patient safety is a priority when addressing healthcare needs in high-violence communities. Ensuring access to shelters or safety resources can protect the patient from harm. While community advocacy (Option B) and recreational activities (Option A) may have long-term value, immediate safety concerns must be prioritized. Option D is impractical and may not be a feasible solution for many patients.
A nurse is educating a women’s health support group on the influence of social roles and media on body image perception. Which statement by a participant would require further education?
A. “The media often sets unrealistic beauty standards that can impact self-esteem.”
B. “My social role as a caregiver makes it easier for me to prioritize self-care.”
C. “My socioeconomic status sometimes limits my access to self-improvement resources.”
D. “I feel pressured by media to adhere to certain beauty norms.”
B. “My social role as a caregiver makes it easier for me to prioritize self-care.”
Rationale: This statement requires further education, as caregiving roles often lead to challenges in self-care prioritization due to demanding responsibilities. Media and social roles can contribute to stressors and influence self-perception and body image, but caregivers often struggle to balance responsibilities with personal health needs.
T/F
Health screenings are an important component of primary prevention.
false; Health Screenings are part of Secondary Prevention
primary, secondary or tertiary prevention
involves preventing the disease or condition before it occurs through health promotion activities, environmental protection, and specific protection against disease or injury
primary prevention
primary, secondary or tertiary prevention
the early identification of people who have already developed a disease at an early stage in the disease’s natural history through screening and early intervention
secondary prevention
primary, secondary or tertiary prevention
designed to reduce or limit the progression of a permanent, irreversible disease or disability
tertiary prevention
the process of openness, self-awareness, egolessness, and self-reflection and critique after interacting with diverse culture individuals
cultural humility
no detectable variation around baseline
absent variability
> 25 bpm variation
marked variability
< 5 bpm variation around baseline
minimal variability
6-25 bmp variation around baseline
moderate variability
acme of 15 bmp above baseline with duration > 15 seconds but < 2 minutes
acceleration
a transient fall in fetal GR caused by stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
deceleration
The does the V in VEALCHOP stand for?
variable
The does the E in VEALCHOP stand for?
early
The does the A in VEALCHOP stand for?
acceleration
The does the L in VEALCHOP stand for?
late
The does the C in VEALCHOP stand for?
cord compression
The does the H in VEALCHOP stand for?
head compression
The does the O in VEALCHOP stand for?
oxygen or okay
The does the P in VEALCHOP stand for?
placental insufficiency
What does the L in LIONS stand for?
left side lying
What does the I in LIONS stand for?
IV fluid bolus (lactated Ringer’s 500)
What does the O in LIONS stand for?
oxygen
What does the N in LIONS stand for?
notifty provider
What does the S in LIONS stand for?
stop pitocin
the process by which clients or relatives at risk for an inherited disorder are advised of the consequences and nature of the disorder, the probability of developing or transmitting it, and the options open to them in management and family planning in order to prevent, avoid, or ameliorate it
genetic counseling
Women who are pregnant or planning to be after what age may benefit from genetic counseling?
35
Paternal age of _____ may benefit from genetic counseling.
50 years or older
A nurse is assessing the contraction pattern of a patient in active labor. Which finding indicates a normal uterine contraction pattern?
a. Contractions lasting 120 seconds every 10 minutes
b. Contractions lasting 40-90 seconds, occurring every 2-5 minutes
c. Contractions lasting 20-30 seconds, occurring every 15 minutes
d. Contractions lasting 100-120 seconds, occurring every 1-2 minutes
b. Contractions lasting 40-90 seconds, occurring every 2-5 minutes
rationale: In active labor, a normal contraction pattern includes contractions lasting 40-90 seconds with a frequency of 2-5 minutes. Patterns lasting too long or too frequent may indicate hyperstimulation, which can cause fetal distress.
A laboring client is being monitored, and her contraction intervals are occurring every 1 minute with a duration of 100 seconds. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
a. Encourage the patient to bear down
b. Administer oxygen to the mother
c. Increase the infusion rate of oxytocin
d. Discontinue oxytocin and notify the healthcare provider
d. Discontinue oxytocin and notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: Contractions that occur every minute and last 100 seconds represent uterine tachysystole, which may compromise uteroplacental perfusion. Discontinuing oxytocin is a priority to reduce contraction frequency and prevent fetal compromise.
During labor, a nurse notices a patient’s contractions are lasting 70 seconds and occur every 6 minutes. What does this pattern indicate?
a. Adequate labor progression
b. Hyperstimulation of the uterus
c. Contractions too infrequent for effective labor
d. Signs of uterine rupture
a. Adequate labor progression
Rationale: In active labor, contractions lasting around 60-90 seconds and occurring every 2-5 minutes are typical. This pattern is adequate for effective labor.
A client in early labor reports contractions every 10 minutes. The nurse advises the client to:
a. Stay at home and time contractions
b. Come to the hospital immediately
c. Perform vigorous exercise to speed up labor
d. Lie flat on her back to conserve energy
a. Stay at home and time contractions
Rationale: Contractions every 10 minutes are typical of early labor. The client should be instructed to stay at home and monitor contraction timing and intensity until they become closer together and more regular.
A nurse is evaluating a laboring client whose contractions occur every 3 minutes and last for 45 seconds. How would the nurse document this finding?
a. Contractions with normal duration and frequency
b. Contractions that are inadequate for labor progress
c. Contractions indicative of uterine hypertonicity
d. Contractions requiring emergency intervention
a. Contractions with normal duration and frequency
Rationale: Contractions every 2-5 minutes, lasting 40-90 seconds, are expected during active labor. The documented pattern is within the normal range.
Which client scenario requires the nurse to immediately contact the healthcare provider?
a. Contractions occurring every 4 minutes and lasting 60 seconds
b. Contractions every 2 minutes lasting 120 seconds
c. Irregular contractions with a 10-minute interval
d. Contractions every 6 minutes lasting 50 seconds
b. Contractions every 2 minutes lasting 120 seconds
Rationale: Contractions lasting over 90 seconds and occurring every 2 minutes or less can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, requiring immediate intervention.
A patient in labor is experiencing contractions every 3 minutes that last 80 seconds. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
a. Reassess contraction pattern in 30 minutes
b. Position the patient in a supine position
c. Continue to monitor the client without intervention
d. Provide oxygen at 8-10 L/min via mask
c. Continue to monitor the client without intervention
Rationale: Contractions every 2-5 minutes, lasting 60-90 seconds, indicate effective labor progression and generally do not require immediate intervention unless there are signs of fetal or maternal distress.
A pregnant client is experiencing contractions every 8 minutes that last for 30 seconds. What phase of labor is she likely in?
a. Latent phase
b. Active phase
c. Transition phase
d. Second stage of labor
a. Latent phase
Rationale: In the latent phase of labor, contractions are less frequent (every 5-20 minutes) and shorter in duration (up to 30-45 seconds).
A nurse assesses a laboring patient and notes contractions that occur every 3 minutes, lasting for 60-70 seconds. The fetal heart rate is within normal limits. What is the appropriate nursing action?
a. Prepare the patient for an emergency cesarean delivery
b. Decrease oxytocin administration
c. Continue monitoring labor progress and fetal status
d. Apply fundal pressure to expedite labor
c. Continue monitoring labor progress and fetal status
Rationale: Contractions every 2-5 minutes, lasting 60-90 seconds, are typical for active labor, especially with a normal fetal heart rate. No intervention is required other than continued monitoring.
A nurse is constructing a pedigree for a patient undergoing genetic counseling. What is the primary purpose of developing a pedigree during this consultation?
A. To determine dietary needs of the patient
B. To assess for potential genetic disorders within the family
C. To evaluate the patient’s body mass index over time
D. To determine the patient’s risk of infectious diseases
B. To assess for potential genetic disorders within the family
Rationale: Constructing a pedigree focuses on tracing the family history across multiple generations to identify patterns that may suggest a hereditary genetic disorder. This is essential for genetic counseling, especially if there are known genetic disorders in the family.
A 42-year-old woman seeks genetic counseling due to her advanced maternal age. Why is genetic counseling particularly recommended for women of advanced maternal age?
A. They have an increased risk of spontaneous miscarriages due to uterine anomalies.
B. Older mothers often have more twins and triplets, which increase genetic risks.
C. Advanced maternal age significantly reduces the risk of all birth defects.
D. The chance of chromosomal abnormalities increases with maternal age.
D. The chance of chromosomal abnormalities increases with maternal age.
A patient with a history of six miscarriages comes for genetic counseling. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s care?
A. Recommend an immediate hysterectomy.
B. Counsel the patient on lifestyle changes to improve fertility.
C. Conduct genetic testing to determine possible hereditary causes for recurrent pregnancy loss.
D. Suggest that the patient avoid pregnancy in the future.
C. Conduct genetic testing to determine possible hereditary causes for recurrent pregnancy loss.
Rationale: Recurrent pregnancy loss (more than five miscarriages) may indicate an underlying genetic disorder. Genetic counseling and testing can help identify potential chromosomal or genetic issues that could be contributing factors.
During genetic counseling, a patient reports that several family members have a known genetic disorder. What is the most appropriate course of action for the nurse?
A. Document the information but advise no further follow-up.
B. Suggest that the patient inform their family members to avoid having children.
C. Provide education on genetic inheritance patterns and testing options for at-risk individuals.
D. Refer the patient to infectious disease control for evaluation.
C. Provide education on genetic inheritance patterns and testing options for at-risk individuals.
Rationale: Genetic counseling involves educating the patient about genetic inheritance, assessing risks, and offering testing options to those who may be at risk of passing or inheriting the genetic disorder. This enables informed decision-making regarding health and reproduction.
T/F
Down syndrome is an example of trisomy 21.
true
An amniocentesis is a diagnostic for what?
chromosomal abnormalities
Prader-Willi syndrome results from which genetic abnormality?
A. Mutation on the X chromosome
B. Deletion or imprinting defect on paternal chromosome 15
C. Extra chromosome 21
D. Defect in maternal chromosome 15
B. Deletion or imprinting defect on paternal chromosome 15
Rationale: Prader-Willi syndrome occurs due to a deletion or imprinting defect on the paternal chromosome 15 or when two maternal copies are present, leading to absent paternal genetic information.
Which population is affected by Prader-Willi syndrome?
A. Only males
B. Only females
C. Males more than females
D. Males and females equally
D. Males and females equally
Rationale: Prader-Willi syndrome affects males and females equally.
A nurse is caring for a child with Prader-Willi syndrome. Which of the following clinical manifestations is the nurse most likely to observe?
A. Excessive eating and obesity
B. Hypertonia
C. Low appetite in childhood
D. Aggressive behavior toward peers
A. Excessive eating and obesity
Rationale: Children with Prader-Willi syndrome often have excessive eating, leading to obesity, along with behavioral and compulsive challenges.
Which of the following is a common behavioral challenge seen in patients with Prader-Willi syndrome?
A. Passive behavior and low activity levels
B. Compulsive behaviors and tantrums
C. Aggressive tendencies in adolescence
D. Complete aversion to food
B. Compulsive behaviors and tantrums
Rationale: Patients with Prader-Willi syndrome often experience compulsive behaviors and behavioral challenges, including tantrums.
A genetic counselor is explaining inheritance patterns of Prader-Willi syndrome to a patient’s family. Which of the following is accurate?
A. It results from a deletion on maternal chromosome 15.
B. It may involve having two copies of chromosome 15 from the mother.
C. It only occurs due to a spontaneous mutation.
D. It is an X-linked recessive disorder.
B. It may involve having two copies of chromosome 15 from the mother.
Rationale: Prader-Willi syndrome can occur due to two copies of chromosome 15 being inherited from the mother (uniparental disomy), resulting in the absence of a functional paternal copy.
The prevalence of Prader-Willi syndrome is approximately:
A. 1 in 100 individuals
B. 1 in 100,000 to 1 in 15,000 individuals
C. 1 in 1,000 individuals
D. 1 in 10,000 to 1 in 15,000 individuals
D. 1 in 10,000 to 1 in 15,000 individuals
A child diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome exhibits hypotonia. What would the nurse expect to assess in this child?
A. Hyperactive reflexes
B. Increased muscle mass
C. Decreased muscle tone and poor muscle strength
D. Joint stiffness and rigidity
C. Decreased muscle tone and poor muscle strength
Rationale: Hypotonia, or decreased muscle tone, is a common symptom in Prader-Willi syndrome and often manifests as poor muscle strength and reduced tone.
Which of the following should be included in a nursing care plan for a child with Prader-Willi syndrome?
A. Encouraging unrestricted access to food
B. Focusing on weight management and balanced nutrition
C. Avoiding behavioral interventions
D. Limiting physical activity due to risk of injury
B. Focusing on weight management and balanced nutrition
Rationale: Children with Prader-Willi syndrome require a structured plan to prevent excessive eating and obesity, including weight management and balanced nutrition.
Which genetic testing method is most commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of Prader-Willi syndrome?
A. Karyotype analysis
B. Urinalysis
C. DNA methylation testing
D. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
C. DNA methylation testing
Rationale: DNA methylation testing is used to detect Prader-Willi syndrome by identifying abnormal methylation patterns associated with paternal chromosome 15.
Parents of a child with Prader-Willi syndrome ask why their child is constantly hungry. What is the best explanation by the nurse?
A. “It is due to an overproduction of digestive enzymes.”
B. “The disorder affects the brain’s ability to control hunger.”
C. “It is caused by genetic changes that lower metabolism.”
D. “Children with this syndrome burn more calories than average.”
B. “The disorder affects the brain’s ability to control hunger.”
Rationale: In Prader-Willi syndrome, the hypothalamus in the brain does not properly signal hunger and satiety, leading to constant hunger and excessive eating.
Which characteristic is most commonly associated with fragile X syndrome?
a) Hyperactivity and a large head
b) Seizures and short stature
c) Early onset Alzheimer’s disease
d) Immune system deficiency
a) Hyperactivity and a large head
Rationale: Fragile X syndrome often presents with hyperactivity, large head size, long face, and intellectual disability, among other features. Seizures and short stature, early Alzheimer’s, and immune deficiency are not the most characteristic features of fragile X syndrome.
Which of the following statements best describes the genetic transmission of fragile X syndrome?
a) Fragile X syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
b) Females can be carriers and are typically mildly affected, while males exhibit the full effects of the syndrome.
c) Fragile X syndrome is a result of chromosomal deletion on chromosome 21.
d) It is inherited as a mitochondrial disorder.
b) Females can be carriers and are typically mildly affected, while males exhibit the full effects of the syndrome.
Rationale: Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked disorder; females are often carriers with milder symptoms due to their second normal X chromosome, while males with a single affected X chromosome tend to exhibit more severe symptoms.
A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance for a family with a child newly diagnosed with fragile X syndrome. Which therapy is most likely to be recommended?
a) Hormone replacement therapy
b) Gene therapy to correct chromosomal abnormalities
c) Occupational, speech, and physical therapy
d) Chemotherapy for symptomatic relief
c) Occupational, speech, and physical therapy
Rationale: There is no cure for fragile X syndrome, so treatment focuses on supportive therapies such as occupational, speech, and physical therapy to help manage developmental delays and improve quality of life.
Which behavior observed in a child might lead a nurse to suspect fragile X syndrome?
a) Perseverative speech and poor eye contact
b) Intolerance to dairy and gluten products
c) Early onset scoliosis
d) High intelligence quotient (IQ) with good social skills
a) Perseverative speech and poor eye contact
Rationale: Fragile X syndrome commonly manifests as perseverative speech (repeating words/phrases), poor eye contact, and other behaviors such as tactile defensiveness and hyperactivity, making it distinct from unrelated conditions.
A nurse working with a child who has fragile X syndrome should prioritize which nursing intervention?
a) Administering growth hormone therapy
b) Promoting speech and occupational therapy to address developmental delays
c) Restricting the child’s diet to manage digestive symptoms
d) Administering daily immunosuppressive therapy
b) Promoting speech and occupational therapy to address developmental delays
Rationale: Supporting therapies, including speech and occupational therapy, are critical interventions for children with fragile X syndrome to address developmental delays and enhance skills.
The nurse understands that fragile X syndrome typically does not impact which of the following aspects?
a) Lifespan of the individual
b) Development of intellectual disability
c) Behavioral and neuropsychological function
d) Risk for other genetic disorders
a) Lifespan of the individual
Rationale: Fragile X syndrome is associated with intellectual and behavioral disabilities but typically does not affect the lifespan.
When educating parents of a male child diagnosed with fragile X syndrome, the nurse explains that intellectual disability is most likely due to which underlying issue?
a) Fragile sites on the X chromosome causing breaks and gaps
b) Autoimmune system dysfunction
c) Viral infection during fetal development
d) Mutation of the 21st chromosome
a) Fragile sites on the X chromosome causing breaks and gaps
Rationale: Fragile X syndrome results from structural abnormalities on the X chromosome, such as breaks and gaps, which are associated with intellectual disability.
A parent asks why fragile X syndrome is not part of newborn screening panels in the U.S. The nurse’s best response would be:
a) “Fragile X syndrome cannot be detected in infants due to limited testing capabilities.”
b) “The disorder is not included because it does not meet established criteria for newborn screening recommendations.”
c) “It is a rare disorder that does not warrant public health screening.”
d) “Testing for fragile X syndrome is too expensive and ineffective.”
b) “The disorder is not included because it does not meet established criteria for newborn screening recommendations.”
Rationale: Fragile X syndrome does not meet the established criteria for inclusion in newborn screening panels, despite its impact, because of factors such as testing feasibility and public health implications.
Turner syndrome is a genetic condition that affects which population?
a) Both males and females equally
b) Mostly males, with occasional female cases
c) Males only
d) Females only
d) Females only
Rationale: Turner syndrome affects only females and results from a missing or partially missing X chromosome. Males are not affected by this condition.
Which of the following is a characteristic commonly associated with Turner syndrome?
a) Hyperactivity and intellectual disability
b) Infertility and underdeveloped sex organs
c) Immune system deficiency and short stature
d) Fragile bones and high blood pressure
b) Infertility and underdeveloped sex organs
Rationale: Turner syndrome commonly leads to infertility and underdevelopment of sex organs, including the failure to develop secondary sexual characteristics such as breasts and ovaries.
A nurse is caring for a girl diagnosed with Turner syndrome during adolescence. Which clinical manifestation would be expected?
a) Large hands and hyperactivity
b) Development of breasts and normal ovaries
c) Short stature and delayed puberty
d) Intellectual disability with autism-like behavior
c) Short stature and delayed puberty
Rationale: Girls with Turner syndrome often experience short stature, delayed puberty, and underdeveloped sex organs. Development of breasts and normal ovaries typically does not occur without intervention.
Turner syndrome is most often diagnosed in which manner?
a) During prenatal screening/testing
b) Based on presenting symptoms in adulthood
c) Through routine blood work
d) By diagnosing intellectual disability in early childhood
a) During prenatal screening/testing
Rationale: Turner syndrome can be identified during prenatal testing, as well as at other stages of development such as in childhood or adolescence, depending on symptom presentation.
The nurse understands that Turner syndrome is primarily caused by which chromosomal abnormality?
a) An extra Y chromosome
b) Trisomy of chromosome 21
c) A mutated mitochondrial gene
d) Absence or structural defect of one X chromosome
d) Absence or structural defect of one X chromosome
Rationale: Turner syndrome is caused by a missing or structurally altered X chromosome in females, leading to a range of developmental issues.
Which intervention is most appropriate for promoting the health and development of a girl with Turner syndrome?
a) Hormone replacement therapy
b) Gene therapy to repair the chromosome defect
c) Immunosuppressive drug therapy
d) Stem cell transplant
a) Hormone replacement therapy
Rationale: Hormone replacement therapy, such as estrogen therapy, is often used to promote secondary sexual characteristics and overall health in girls with Turner syndrome.
A mother of a child with Turner syndrome asks about possible health complications. Which potential complication should the nurse include?
a) Increased risk of intellectual disability
b) Immune deficiency disorders
c) Cardiovascular anomalies
d) Hearing impairment
c) Cardiovascular anomalies
Rationale: Girls with Turner syndrome may experience cardiovascular complications, such as congenital heart defects, in addition to other health issues like kidney malformations and hearing problems.
Which statement by a patient indicates a correct understanding of Turner syndrome and fertility?
a) “Girls with Turner syndrome usually have typical fertility without intervention.”
b) “I may need assisted reproductive technology due to infertility.”
c) “Turner syndrome does not affect my fertility at all.”
d) “The syndrome primarily causes immune deficiencies, not fertility issues.”
b) “I may need assisted reproductive technology due to infertility.”
Rationale: Turner syndrome can lead to infertility, and many women with the condition require assisted reproductive technology if they wish to conceive.
During a health check-up, the nurse observes that a young female patient with Turner syndrome has not experienced a growth spurt. What intervention might be indicated?
a) Physical therapy for joint stability
b) Vitamin supplementation to improve cognition
c) Restriction of physical activities
d) Growth hormone therapy to stimulate height
d) Growth hormone therapy to stimulate height
Rationale: Growth hormone therapy is commonly used to promote height and growth in children with Turner syndrome, as they typically experience short stature due to the condition.
Klinefelter syndrome results from which chromosomal pattern?
a) XYY
b) XYY
c) XXY
d) XYX
c) XXY
Rationale: Klinefelter syndrome occurs in males who have an extra X chromosome (XXY pattern), leading to the characteristic features of this condition.
The nurse is providing education to a family about Klinefelter syndrome. Which of the following is a characteristic commonly seen in affected males?
a) Short stature and high muscle mass
b) Tall stature with sparse body hair
c) Underdeveloped breasts and thick body hair
d) Early onset puberty and increased fertility
b) Tall stature with sparse body hair
Rationale: Males with Klinefelter syndrome often have tall stature, sparse body hair, and other features such as enlarged breasts (gynecomastia) and abnormal testicular development.
Which of the following is a common reproductive manifestation of Klinefelter syndrome?
a) High sperm count
b) Rapid onset of secondary sexual characteristics
c) High testosterone levels
d) Infertility due to abnormal testicular development
d) Infertility due to abnormal testicular development
Rationale: Infertility is common in males with Klinefelter syndrome due to the abnormal development of the testes, leading to decreased sperm production and low testosterone levels.
When is Klinefelter syndrome typically diagnosed?
a) In infancy due to physical characteristics
b) During adulthood after fertility concerns arise
c) At puberty, when physical symptoms such as gynecomastia may appear
d) Only through prenatal genetic testing
c) At puberty, when physical symptoms such as gynecomastia may appear
Rationale: Klinefelter syndrome is often diagnosed around puberty when signs like enlarged breasts (gynecomastia) and other developmental abnormalities become more apparent.
What intervention may be indicated for managing gynecomastia in a male with Klinefelter syndrome?
a) Surgical removal of breast tissue
b) Estrogen therapy
c) Testosterone-suppressing medication
d) Chemotherapy
a) Surgical removal of breast tissue
Rationale: Surgical removal of breast tissue (mastectomy) is an option for males with Klinefelter syndrome who develop gynecomastia and wish to address this issue for cosmetic or health reasons.
A male adolescent presents with tall stature, sparse body hair, and learning difficulties. What condition should be considered during assessment?
a) Turner syndrome
b) Klinefelter syndrome
c) Down syndrome
d) Fragile X syndrome
b) Klinefelter syndrome
Rationale: The symptoms described, including tall stature, sparse body hair, and potential learning difficulties, align with features of Klinefelter syndrome, a condition affecting males with an extra X chromosome.
A nurse educating a patient with Klinefelter syndrome about treatment options should include which potential therapy?
a) Growth hormone therapy
b) Estrogen replacement therapy
c) Testosterone replacement therapy
d) Chemotherapy
c) Testosterone replacement therapy
Rationale: Testosterone replacement therapy is often used in males with Klinefelter syndrome to address symptoms related to low testosterone, such as sparse body hair, reduced muscle mass, and energy levels.
Which intellectual characteristic is common in individuals with Klinefelter syndrome?
a) Severe intellectual disability
b) No cognitive impact
c) Mild intellectual disabilities, such as learning difficulties
d) Superior academic abilities
c) Mild intellectual disabilities, such as learning difficulties
Rationale: Males with Klinefelter syndrome may experience mild intellectual disabilities, often manifesting as learning difficulties, language delays, or challenges with executive functioning, though severity can vary.
Which of the following best describes trisomy 21, the most common genetic variation of Down syndrome?
A. The presence of an extra chromosome 22 in all cells.
B. The translocation of chromosome 21 to another chromosome.
C. Three copies of chromosome 21 in all cells.
D. Mosaicism with only some cells having an extra chromosome 21.
C. Three copies of chromosome 21 in all cells.
Rationale: Trisomy 21 occurs when there are three copies of chromosome 21 in all cells, making it the most common cause of Down syndrome.
Which of the following is true about the risk of Down syndrome as maternal age increases?
A. Risk decreases after age 35.
B. Risk remains constant regardless of maternal age.
C. Risk increases with advancing maternal age.
D. Risk is highest at age 25.
C. Risk increases with advancing maternal age.
Rationale: The risk of having a baby with Down syndrome increases with maternal age, particularly after the age of 35.
What is a common physical characteristic of infants with Down syndrome?
A. Long limbs and a tall stature.
B. Small, low-set ears that may fold over at the pinna.
C. Absence of palmar creases.
D. Hypertonia with rigid muscle tone.
C. Absence of palmar creases.
Rationale: Small, low-set ears that may fold over at the pinna are among the characteristic features seen in individuals with Down syndrome.
A child with Down syndrome is being assessed for hypotonia. Which finding is consistent with this condition?
A. Increased muscle rigidity and tightness.
B. Poor muscle tone and flexibility.
C. Spastic movements.
D. Inability to extend the limbs.
B. Poor muscle tone and flexibility.
Rationale: Hypotonia, or poor muscle tone, is common in children with Down syndrome and often results in increased flexibility.
Which of the following describes a chromosomal translocation in Down syndrome?
A. The complete loss of chromosome 21 in some cells.
B. Part of chromosome 21 becoming attached to another chromosome.
C. The presence of three complete sets of chromosome 21 in every cell.
D. The absence of chromosome 21 in all cells.
B. Part of chromosome 21 becoming attached to another chromosome.
Rationale: A translocation involves part of chromosome 21 attaching to another chromosome, resulting in an extra piece of chromosome 21 in affected cells.
Which finding is associated with a simian crease?
A. A distinct loop pattern on the second digit.
B. An almond-shaped eye slant.
C. Hypertonic muscle rigidity.
D. A deep crease that runs across the palm.
D. A deep crease that runs across the palm.
Rationale: A simian crease is characterized by a single deep crease that runs across the palm and is commonly seen in individuals with Down syndrome.
Which statement reflects a correct understanding of the life expectancy for individuals with Down syndrome?
A. The average lifespan of individuals with Down syndrome is approaching 60 years.
B. Life expectancy has remained unchanged over the last century.
C. Most individuals with Down syndrome do not survive past their teenage years.
D. Life expectancy for individuals with Down syndrome is identical to those without chromosomal conditions.
A. The average lifespan of individuals with Down syndrome is approaching 60 years.
Rationale: The life expectancy of individuals with Down syndrome has increased significantly in recent years, with an average lifespan approaching 60 years.
Which intervention is most appropriate to promote developmental progress in a child with Down syndrome?
A. Isolate the child to reduce overstimulation.
B. Early intervention programs and special education.
C. Limit socialization opportunities.
D. Avoid any physical therapy exercises.
B. Early intervention programs and special education.
Rationale: Early intervention and special education programs play a crucial role in promoting cognitive and developmental progress for children with Down syndrome.
A pregnant woman at age 35 asks about her risk of having a baby with Down syndrome. Which is the correct response by the nurse?
A. “The risk is about one in 940.”
B. “Your risk is negligible; age is not a significant factor.”
C. “The risk is approximately one in 353.”
D. “The risk increases significantly only after age 40.”
C. “The risk is approximately one in 353.”
Rationale: The risk of having a baby with Down syndrome at age 35 is approximately one in 353.
Which of the following statements about trisomy 13 and trisomy 18 is accurate?
A. These conditions are more common than Down syndrome.
B. They frequently result in severe structural abnormalities.
C. Most affected individuals live well into adulthood.
D. These trisomies rarely affect physical structures.
B. They frequently result in severe structural abnormalities.
Rationale: Trisomy 13 and trisomy 18 result in severe structural abnormalities, which may include microcephaly, cleft lip/palate, and major heart defects, often detected during ultrasound examinations.
A nurse is educating a couple who received a prenatal diagnosis of trisomy 18. What is the most appropriate information to share regarding prognosis?
A. Most infants survive without significant health issues.
B. Infants typically have a high chance of reaching adulthood.
C. Survival beyond a few months is rare.
D. It can be managed with corrective surgeries in most cases.
C. Survival beyond a few months is rare.
Rationale: The prognosis for infants with trisomy 18 is poor, with most affected individuals not surviving beyond a few months.
During a prenatal ultrasound, the healthcare provider detects multiple structural abnormalities, including microcephaly and major heart defects. What is the patient most at risk of having?
A. Trisomy 13 or 18
B. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
C. Turner syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome
A. Trisomy 13 or 18
Rationale: Trisomy 13 and trisomy 18 are associated with severe structural abnormalities, such as microcephaly, cleft lip/palate, and major heart defects, often detectable on ultrasound
Supportive care for an infant born with trisomy 13 typically focuses on:
A. Aggressive medical intervention to cure the condition.
B. Immediate corrective surgeries to fix all structural abnormalities.
C. Genetic therapy to eliminate chromosomal abnormalities.
D. Providing palliative care and managing symptoms for quality of life.
D. Providing palliative care and managing symptoms for quality of life.
Which of the following prenatal findings is commonly associated with trisomy 13?
A. Isolated cleft lip with normal brain structure
B. Microcephaly and major heart defects
C. High birth weight and rapid growth
D. Normal prenatal ultrasound findings
B. Microcephaly and major heart defects
Rationale: Common abnormalities associated with trisomy 13 include microcephaly and major heart defects, often detected during prenatal ultrasounds.
A pregnant patient is considering amniocentesis. What information about this procedure should the nurse provide?
A. It is typically performed at 10-12 weeks of pregnancy.
B. Amniocentesis carries a higher risk of pregnancy loss compared to chorionic villi sampling (CVS).
C. It is done between 15-20 weeks of pregnancy and has a lower risk of pregnancy loss compared to CVS.
D. Amniocentesis cannot provide a karyotype for genetic testing.
C. It is done between 15-20 weeks of pregnancy and has a lower risk of pregnancy loss compared to CVS.
Rationale: Amniocentesis is performed between 15-20 weeks of pregnancy and carries a lower risk of pregnancy loss compared to CVS, which is done earlier in the pregnancy.
A patient undergoing genetic counseling is considering chorionic villi sampling (CVS). Which statement correctly describes CVS?
A. It is performed at 15-20 weeks and poses a low risk of pregnancy loss.
B. CVS is performed early at 10-12 weeks but carries a higher risk of pregnancy loss compared to amniocentesis.
C. CVS cannot provide a karyotype for diagnosing genetic conditions.
D. This procedure is used to screen for, not diagnose, genetic conditions.
B. CVS is performed early at 10-12 weeks but carries a higher risk of pregnancy loss compared to amniocentesis.
Rationale: Chorionic villi sampling (CVS) is conducted at 10-12 weeks of pregnancy and has a higher risk of pregnancy loss compared to amniocentesis.
A nurse is explaining karyotyping to a patient during genetic counseling. Which statement best describes the purpose of a karyotype?
A. It diagnoses genetic conditions that microarrays cannot detect.
B. It only provides screening results without confirming a diagnosis.
C. It analyzes an individual’s chromosomes to detect genetic abnormalities.
D. It is exclusively used during labor.
C. It analyzes an individual’s chromosomes to detect genetic abnormalities.
Rationale: A karyotype is a laboratory test that analyzes an individual’s chromosomes to identify genetic abnormalities and confirm diagnoses.
Which genetic diagnostic test is recommended if karyotyping cannot provide a definitive diagnosis for a specific genetic condition?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Chorionic villi sampling (CVS)
C. Ultrasonograph
D. Microarray analysis
D. Microarray analysis
Rationale: Microarray analysis is used to diagnose genetic conditions that karyotyping alone cannot identify, offering more detailed genetic information.
A patient undergoing genetic counseling asks about the possibility of pregnancy termination following screening results. What is the appropriate nurse response?
A. “Termination decisions should be based solely on screening results.”
B. “Pregnancy should never be terminated based on screening results alone.”
C. “It depends on the results of a microarray analysis.”
D. “Termination is the only option if screening shows any abnormality.”
B. “Pregnancy should never be terminated based on screening results alone.”
Rationale: Screening results alone are not definitive and should not be used as the basis for terminating a pregnancy; diagnostic testing is required for confirmation.
Which of the following correctly describes the role of amniocentesis in genetic testing?
A. It only serves as a screening tool and cannot be diagnostic.
B. It is performed earlier than CVS and has a higher risk of pregnancy loss.
C. It provides a karyotype for diagnosing genetic abnormalities and is considered a diagnostic test.
D. It is only performed after 30 weeks of pregnancy.
C. It provides a karyotype for diagnosing genetic abnormalities and is considered a diagnostic test.
Rationale: Amniocentesis is used to obtain a karyotype for diagnosing genetic abnormalities and is considered a diagnostic test. It is performed between 15-20 weeks of pregnancy.
A patient wants to know the difference between screening and diagnostic tests in genetic counseling. Which statement should the nurse provide?
A. Diagnostic tests, such as karyotyping and microarray, confirm genetic conditions, whereas screening tests provide risk assessments.
B. Screening tests are more reliable than diagnostic tests for detecting genetic disorders.
C. Diagnostic tests have no risks and are always preferred over screening tests.
D. Screening tests can confirm a genetic diagnosis without further testing.
A. Diagnostic tests, such as karyotyping and microarray, confirm genetic conditions, whereas screening tests provide risk assessments.
Rationale: Diagnostic tests, such as karyotyping and microarray analysis, confirm the presence of genetic conditions, whereas screening tests assess the risk but do not provide a definitive diagnosis.
A nurse is counseling a 32-year-old pregnant woman about first trimester screening combined with second trimester screening (quad screen). Which of the following is true regarding this combined screening approach?
A. It is primarily recommended for women over 35 years old.
B. It provides a more comprehensive risk assessment for chromosomal abnormalities.
C. It only includes nuchal translucency measurement.
D. It can be performed any time after 10 weeks gestation.
B. It provides a more comprehensive risk assessment for chromosomal abnormalities.
Rationale: First trimester screening combined with second trimester screening (quad screen) is not limited to women over 35 years old and offers a comprehensive assessment by measuring multiple factors, including blood markers, enhancing the detection of chromosomal abnormalities.
Which genetic screening method is particularly suitable for women over 35 due to its high sensitivity and ability to use fetal DNA?
A. Nuchal translucency with blood markers
B. MSAFP alone
C. Cell-free DNA testing
D. First trimester combined with quad screening
C. Cell-free DNA testing
Rationale: Cell-free DNA testing is recommended for women over 35 and uses a sample of the mother’s blood to detect fetal DNA, providing accurate screening results for chromosomal conditions.
The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is part of the quad screen. Which of the following is a known limitation of the MSAFP test alone?
A. It can detect all trisomies with high accuracy.
B. Results are more accurate when used in isolation.
C. It may not be as accurate as combined screenings.
D. It uses cell-free DNA technology.
C. It may not be as accurate as combined screenings.
Rationale: MSAFP alone is less accurate compared to when it is part of combined screenings like the quad screen, which improves the detection of chromosomal abnormalities through additional blood markers.
A nurse explains to a patient that genetic screening can be time-sensitive. Which of the following best describes this aspect?
A. Optimal timing for accuracy varies between tests.
B. It can be performed at any point during pregnancy.
C. Results are unaffected by gestational age.
D. Timing only applies to cell-free DNA testing.
A. Optimal timing for accuracy varies between tests.
Rationale: Many genetic screening tests require specific timing during pregnancy to achieve accurate results. For example, the first trimester combined screening needs to be done within the appropriate gestational age window.
