Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Stenosis or narrowing of pulmonary artery decreasing blood flow to lungs.
  2. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle, which enlarges because it must work harder to pump blood through the narrow pulmonary artery.
  3. Dextroposition of the aorta in which the aorta is displaced to the right and blood from both ventricles enters it.
  4. Ventricular Septal Defect
    Treated w/ shunts and open heart surgery.
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2
Q

What is Tet position?

A

Infants with Tetralogy of Fallot can have paraoxysmal hypercyanosis or “tet” spells. Placing the child in a knee-to-chest position relieves these symptoms. Older children will spontaneously squat when a tet spell occurs.

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3
Q

How is Tetralogy of Fallot diagnosed?

A

Chest x-ray showing a boot-shaped heart. Electrocardiogram, electrocardiography and cardiac catheterization can also confirm diagnosis.

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4
Q

Define Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome

A

There is an underdeveltopment of the left side of the heart usually resulting in an absent or non-functional left ventricle and hypoplasia of the ascending aorta. Can be diagnosed before birth and placed on transplant list. Symptoms include grayish, blue skin and mucous membranes and signs of CHF. Survival without intervention is rare.

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5
Q

What vaccinations are recommended for a child that is 2 months old?

A

Dtap, Pneumococcal conjugate, and rotavirus.

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6
Q

What vaccinations are recommended for a child that is 4 months old?

A

Dtap, Pneumococcal conjugate, Rotavirus and Meningococcal conjugate

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7
Q

What vaccinations are recommended for a child that is 6 months old?

A

Dtap, Pneumococcal conjugate (high risk children only), Rotavirus

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8
Q

What vaccinations are recommended for a child that is 12 months old?

A

MMR-Var, Pneumococcal, Meningococcal

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9
Q

What is a characteristic of medication absorption in a child under the age of 5 ?

A

Rapid intestinal transit

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10
Q

What are the 2 ways to calculate pediatric dosages?

A
  • Dosage per body weight

- Dosage per body surface area (only used with specific drugs, ex: chemo)

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11
Q

What is a Wilms Tumor?

A

Malignant renal tumor
May be genetic
Few or no early symptoms in early stages
Usually discovered due to mass in abdomen
May cause hypertension due to renal damage

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12
Q

What is Hydrocele

A

Excessive fluid in sac that surrounds testicle causing scrotum to swell.
orrected by surgery

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13
Q

What is Chorea?

A

CNS disorder characterized by involuntary purposeless movements

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14
Q

What is Polycythemia and which disease is it seen in?

A

Increased red blood cells; Seen in TOF because the body is compensating for lack of oxygen by producing more RBC’s.

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15
Q

What is Pulse Pressure?

A

Difference between highest and lowest blood pressure levels

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16
Q

What is a Tet spell?

A

Paroxysmal hypercyanotic episode

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17
Q

What are 5 signs that indicate an infant may have a congential cardiac problem?

A

Cyanosis, Tachypnea, Failure to Thrive, Dyspnea, and visible pulsations in the neck veins

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18
Q

Heart defects can be classified as lesions that….

A
  1. Increase pulmonary bloodflow
  2. Decrease pulmonary bloodflow
  3. Obstruct ventricular bloodflow
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19
Q

What 4 defects make up Tetraology of Fallot?

A

Ventricular Septal Defect, Hypertrophy of Right Ventricle, Dextroposition of Aorta, and Stenosis of Aorta

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20
Q

Why are prophylactic antibiotics given to children with heart disease?

A

To prevent bacterial endocarditis

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21
Q

Kawasaki’s disease causes _____ of the vessels in the cardiovascular system, which can result in _______

A

Inflammation; Aneurysm

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22
Q

Name 3 medications that may be used in the treatment of Kawasaki disease?

A

Gamma Globulin, Wafarin & Aspirin Therapy

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23
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect occurring in children?

A

Ventricular Septal Defect

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24
Q

Explain the difference between sickle cell trait and sick cell disease?

A

In sickle cell trait the child is a carrier of the disease. The child will not manifest the disease. In sickle cell disease, the child has inherited the trait from both parents and experiences the disorder.

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25
Q

What are 4 causes of Iron-Deficiency anemia?

A

Severe hemmorhage, inability to absorb iron, inadequate iron in diet, and excessive growth requirments

26
Q

What is Petechiae?

A

Pinpoint hemorragic spots beneath the skin

27
Q

What is Purpura?

A

Large hemorragic spots in the skin

28
Q

What are some major S/S of Iron-Deficiency Anemia?

A

Pallor, Irritability, Anorexia, and Decrease in Activity

29
Q

What instructions would you give to a partent about administering an iron supplement to a toddler?

A

Give w/ OJ as Vitamin C aids in absorption; if giving in liquid form, use a straw to avoid temporary discoloration of teeth.

30
Q

List 4 factors that might trigger a sickle cell crisis.

A

Dehydration, infection, stress & exposure to cold

31
Q

What are 2 priority goals when caring for a child with sickle cell disease?

A

Pain management & preventing dehydration, hypoxia and infection.

32
Q

What is Hemophilia A caused by?

A

Deficiency of Factor VIII.

33
Q

What is Hemophilia B caused by?

A

Deficiency of Factor IX

34
Q

What is the most common form of childhood cancer?

A

Leukemia

35
Q

What does Leukemia result in the uncontrolled growth of?

A

Immature white blood cells

36
Q

Explain the pathologic changes that take place when a child has leukemia

A

Disruption in bone marrow function due to the overproduction of immature white blood cells in the bone marrow. These cells do not function normally as healthy WCBs to fight infection therefore increased susceptibility to infection results.

37
Q

What are some of possible presenting signs and symptoms of Leukemia?

A

Low-grade fever, Palor, Bruising, Leg & Joint pain, Anorexia, Weight Loss, Dyspnea, Enlargement of Lymph Nodes, Petechiae, Purpura & Hematuria.

38
Q

What is Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

A section of the large intestine is missing the nerve network, therefore, stool enters the affected part and stays there.

39
Q

What is Pyloric Stenosis?

A

An obstruction at the lowre end of the stomach (pylorus), caused by an overgrowth of the circular muscles of the pylorus or by spasms of the spinchter.

40
Q

What is a complication of the vomitting associated with Pyloric Stenosis and what are some assessment findings in a newborn with this complication?

A

Dehydration; Sunken fontanelles, tenting of skin, reduced urine output and signs of malnutrition.

41
Q

Describe the progresion of feeding an infant after postoperative correction of pyloric stenosis

A

Avoid overfeeding; Small amounts of glucose water gradually increasing until regular formula is tolerated and retained.

42
Q

What is the surgical repair of a hernia called?

A

Herniorrhaphy

43
Q

What is the priority goal of nursing care for an infant with gastroenteritis?

A

Prevent/correct fluid and electrolyte imbalance

44
Q

What are 3 nursing interventions for an infant hospitalized for gastroenteritis?

A

Monitor input and output, record daily weight, and keep infant warm.

45
Q

Name 3 high-fibre foods to recommend to an older child experiencing constipation

A

Whole grain toasts and cerelas, raw veggies, fruits, bran, popcorn

46
Q

Failure to Thrive describes infants who what?

A

Fail to gain weight or lose weight with no reason

47
Q

What are 5 tests used to determine the cause of urinary dysfunction?

A
  1. Urinealysis
  2. Renal biopsy
  3. Cystoscopy
  4. Ultrasound
  5. IV Pyelogram
48
Q

What are 4 possible reasons that UTI’s are more common in females?

A
  1. Short urethra
  2. Anus close to urethra
  3. Bubble bath
  4. Tight nylon undies
49
Q

What lab test(s) are done to confirm a UTI diagnosis?

A

Urine culture and renal/bladder ultrasound

50
Q

What precaution should be taken in a child with a Wilms tumor to prevent spread of the disease?

A

Avoid palpation of the abdomen

51
Q

What are the 3 P’s of diabetes mellitus?

A

Polydypsia, Polyuria, Polyphagia

52
Q

What is the most reliable test to diagnose diabetes mellitus?

A

Fasting Blood Glucose

53
Q

What are the initial signs of diabetes insipidus?

A

Polydipsia and Polyuria

54
Q

When a child is burned near the face, what assessment is priority?

A

Edema and respiratory distress

55
Q

What is Eczema indicative of?

A

Allergies

56
Q

What is a common name for diaper dermatitis? How can it be prevented?

A
Diaper Rash
Frequent diaper changes
Cleansing peri area with warm water and gentle dry
Thick layer of zinc oxide
Vaseline
57
Q

What is another name for Seborrheic Dermatitis?

A

Cradle Cap; Apply baby oil to head in the evening, shampoo in morning, a soft brush removes loose particles.

58
Q

Briefly describe the pathology of acne

A

Inflammation of sebaceous glands and hair follicles in the skin

59
Q

What is the main contraindication for anyone taking Accutane?

A

Avoid pregnancy

60
Q

What are 3 tests useful in diagnosing skin conditions?

A

Skin scrapin
CBC
PPD

61
Q

What are three possible characteristics used to describe skin lesions?

A

Size
Color
Configuration

62
Q

How often is output observed in a burn patient?

A

Hourly