Final Flashcards

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1
Q

catalysts enable reactions to take place faster by

A

they lower the amount of activation energy needed for the reaction to occur

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2
Q

if the products of a chemical reaction contain less energy than the reactants, the reaction must

A

involve the release of energy

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3
Q

a series of chemical reactions that results in the creation of a new biological molecule

A

is called a biochemical pathway

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4
Q

heterotrophs are organisms that

A

must consume other organisms for energy

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5
Q

the energy that is stored in food molecules and used by organisms

A

is held primarily by protons of hydrogen atoms

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6
Q

energy barring electrons may be transferred from one enzyme catalyzing a reaction to a different enzyme catalyzing a different reaction within a cell by

A

coenzyme

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7
Q

an important example of a coenzyme that functions in metabolism is

A

NAD

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8
Q

factors that allow a cell to control when an enzyme is active may include

A

all the above

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9
Q

energy is required for a variety of life processes including

A

all the above

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10
Q

the statement that energy can neither be created or destroyed, but can be changed in form is

A

the first law of thermodynamics

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11
Q

which of the following situations is most stable?

A

four tennis balls lying on the ground

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12
Q

a reaction in which the products have less energy than the reactants is

A

an exergonic reaction

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13
Q

which of the following reactions does not represent a form of energy

A

water

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14
Q

oxidation-reduction reactions are important in organisms because

A

they allow the passes of energy from molecule to molecule

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15
Q

t/f

the products of an endergonic chemical reaction possess more energy than the reactants from which they are produced.

A

true

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16
Q

t/f

without enzymes, chemical reactions necessary for life would not occur at a rate sufficient to sustain life.

A

true

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17
Q

t/f

overproduction of a certain product in biochemical pathways in a cell can be prevented by feedback inhibition.

A

true

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18
Q

t/f

energy of motion is often referred to as potential energy.

A

false

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19
Q

t/f

when a person uses food as a source of energy to run a race, energy is converted from chemical to mechanical form.

A

true

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20
Q

organisms that harvest energy from either sunlight or chemicals to make food molecules are called ___.

A

autotrophs

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21
Q

the energy needed to break existing chemical bonds storing the initiation of a chemical reaction is called ___.

A

activation energy

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22
Q

when an enzyme’s ___ changes, its activity changes.

A

shape

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23
Q

substances that are the ingredients for reactions are called ___, while the new substance that is formed are called ___.

A

reactants

products

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24
Q

the loss of electrons from a molecule is called ___, while the gain of electrons from a molecule is called ___.

A

oxidation

production

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25
Q

the portion of an enzyme into which a specific substrate can fit is called the ___.

A

active site

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26
Q

a ___ reaction is an endergonic reaction in which an enzyme catalyzes. an enzyme attaches to both an ATP molecule and a reactant. a single enzyme catalyzes both the splitting of ATP and the attachment of a phosphate group to the reactant.

A

coupled (reaction)

because there are a /couple/ of reactions they are talking about

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27
Q

an enzyme that may change its shape when it combines with a signal molecule is called a ___ enzyme.

A

allosteric

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28
Q

name an energy or energy-carrying molecule formed by each process:
photosystem I
photosystem II
the electron chain following the Krebs cycle
glycolysis

A

NADPH
ATP
ATP
ATP or NADH or pyruvate

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29
Q

what are molecules that can have electrons boosted to higher energy level when light particles hit them?

A

chlorophyll or pigments

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30
Q

stacks of thylacoid called ___ are found suspended in the stroma of chloroplasts.

A

grana

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31
Q

the complete range of radiant energy forms is called the ___ ___ ___.

A

electro magnetic spectrum

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32
Q

as protons leave the thylakoid via ATP synthethase, what is generated?

A

ATP

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33
Q

The ___ ___ is a series of biochemical reactions that uses ATP and NADPH to attach hydrogens and their high energy electrons to carbon obtained from carbon dioxide to form glucose molecules.

A

calvin cycle

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34
Q

light energy consists of tiny packets of energy called ___

A

photons

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35
Q

___ serves as the final electron acceptor for the electron transport chain of oxidative respiration.

A

oxygen

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36
Q

all organic colecules contain carbon atoms. the carbon atoms can ultimately be traced back in the food chain to ___.

A

carbon dioxide from the atmosphere

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37
Q

what happens when a chlorophyll molecule absorbs a photon of light ?

A

some of its electrons are raised to higher energy levels

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38
Q

feedback inhibition of cellular respiration

A

involves the allosteric binding of ATP

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39
Q

based on the cycle of cellular respiration, one can say the ultimate source of energy for all living things on earth is

A

the sun

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40
Q

the energy used in the calvin cycle for the production of carbohydrate molecules comes from

A

energy molecules ATP and NADPH that come from the photosystems

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41
Q

because of photosynthesis

A

the atmosphere is rich in oxygen gas

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42
Q

chemical energy stored in food molecules is released through

A

cellular respiration

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43
Q

light energy is converted to chemical energy through the process of

A

photosynthesis

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44
Q

if oxygen is absent during the second stage of cellular respiration

A

fermentation will occur

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45
Q

when water molecules are split to produce electrons needed to replace those lost by photosystem II during photosynthesis

A

oxygen is released

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46
Q

what is the name of the following process:

CO2 + H2O + light energy = CH2O +O2 (C6H12O6)

A

photosynthesis

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47
Q

NADP is important for photosynthesis because it

A

carries hydrogen atoms and energy for producing organic molecules

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48
Q

which of the following is not part of cellular respiration

A

the Calvin cycle

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49
Q

cells produce ATP molecules efficiently in the presence of

A

oxygen

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50
Q

oxidative respiration follows glycolysis when ___ is available

A

oxygen

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51
Q

the process of cellular respiration

A

breaks down food molecules to release stored energy

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52
Q

photosynthesis and cellular respiration are said to form a continuous cycle because

A

the products of one are the starting materials for the other

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53
Q

t/f
carbohydrates are important parts of an organism’s diet because they are the only molecules that can yield enough energy to produce ATP during cellular respiration.

A

false

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54
Q

t/f

in the last stage of photosynthesis, ATP and NADP power the synthesis of organic molecules using oxygen from water.

A

false

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55
Q

t/f

metabolic processes that require oxygen are called anaerobic.

A

false

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56
Q

t/f

when light hits a plant, all of the wavelengths are absorbed and used to make sugar.

A

false

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57
Q

t/f

photosynthesis is an endergonic process.

A

true

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58
Q

t/f

almost every oxygen molecule in the air was produced by photosynthesis.

A

true

59
Q

t/f

an autotroph is able to make its own molecule

A

…?

60
Q

… nutrients is called what

A

cycling

61
Q

precipertation and evaporation are important components of

A

water cycle

62
Q

the level of phosphorus in freshwater ecosystems

A

may change as a result of human activity

63
Q

all organisms that live in a particular place at a particular time make up a what

A

community

64
Q

succession is

A

a regular progression of specie placement in an environment

65
Q

which of the is part of the nitrogen cycle?

A

all the above

66
Q

in an ecosystem, producers may include

A

trees, grass, and shrubs

67
Q

animals that feed on plants are at least in the what

A

second trophic level.

68
Q

food webs are more commonplace than food chains because

A

organisms almost always eat and are eaten by many different organisms

69
Q

the increase in carbon dioxide in our atmosphere over the last 150 years was caused primarily by

A

the burning of fossil fuels

70
Q

going from one trophic level to the next higher level

A

the amount of useable energy always decreases

71
Q

nitrogen fixation is best described as

A

conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into a form usable by living organisms

72
Q

___ is the absorption and incorporation of nitrogen into plant’s components.

A

assimilation

73
Q

at each trophic level, the energy stored by organisms is about ___ of that stored by at the level below.

A

10%

74
Q

what is the production of ammonia by bacteria during the decaying of nitrogen-containing organic wastes

A

ammonification

75
Q

in 1866 the German biologist Ernst Hankle gave the name of the study of how organisms fit into their environment, calling it ___

A

ecology

76
Q

___ is water that is retained below the surface of the earth

A

groundwater

77
Q

the primary productivity of an ecosystem is measured of the amount of organic matter that the ___ organisms of an ecosystem produce

A

producers

78
Q

organisms that obtain their energy from organic wastes and dead bodies at all energy levels in an ecosystem are called ___

A

detritivores or decomposers

79
Q

organisms that eat only plants are called ___

A

herbivores

80
Q

much of the water cycle is powered by energy from ___

A

the sun

81
Q

organisms that eat both plants and animals are called ___

A

omnivores

82
Q

the total dry weight of all organisms in an ecosystem is called the ___

A

biomass

83
Q

an energy pyramid shows the amount of energy contained in bodies of organisms at each ___ level

A

trophhic

84
Q

plants lose water through a process known as

A

transpiration

85
Q

t/f

all organisms in an ecosystem are part of the food web of that ecosystem.

A

true

86
Q

t/f

decomposers absorb energy from organisms by breaking down living tissue

A

false

87
Q

t/f

the lowest trophic level of any ecosystem is occupied by producers

A

true

88
Q

t/f

phosphorous is often found in detergents and fertilizers

A

true

89
Q

t/f

nitrogen gas makes up 79% of the earth’s atmosphere

A

true

90
Q

t/f

ecologists call the physical location of a community its habitat

A

true

91
Q

t/f
the difference between primary succession and secondary succession is that primary succession occurs only on land and secondary succession occurs in ponds and lakes

A

false

92
Q

t/f

detritivores are especially harmful to an ecosystem

A

false

93
Q

CFCs destroy ozone because the ultraviolet radiation breaks the bonds of CFCs and the

A

the free chlorine atoms catalyze and break down ozone

94
Q

the decrease in specie diversity in some lakes in the NorthEastern US during the 20th century made be best explained by

A

acid rain

95
Q

in the upper atmosphere, sulfur released from the burning of sulfur-rich coal combines with oxygen to form what

A

sulfur trioxide

96
Q

destruction of the ozone layer may be responsible for the increase in

A

all the above

97
Q

the heat-trapping ability of some gases in the atmosphere can be compared to

A

the way glass traps heat in a greenhouse

98
Q

the extinction of species

A

has been speeded up by the activities of people

99
Q

the destruction of tropical rainforests

A

all the above

100
Q

the current rate of population growth will result in doubling world population every 38 years. with the current population 7 billion, what will be the approximate world population in 2055 if nothing is done to change this rate?

A

14 billion.

101
Q

ozone shields the earth from the harmful effects of

A

ultraviolet rays

102
Q

once pollution enters ground water

A

there’s no cost-effective way to remove it

103
Q

most water pollution is caused by

A

agriculture

104
Q

the greatest extinction of species is happening in the ___ biome.

A

tropical rainforest

105
Q

the heat-trapping ability of carbon dioxide methane oxide in the atmosphere is known as the what

A

greenhouse effect

106
Q

a great deal of water is found beneath the soil within porous rock reservoirs called

A

aquifers

107
Q

carbon dioxid, soot, and ___ are three pollutants produced by the burning of coal.

A

sulfer

108
Q

t/f

one of the evironmental benefits of CFCs is that they are stable.

A

true

109
Q

t/f

one of the environmental problems of CFCs is that the are stable

A

true

110
Q

t/f
pollution is no longer considered a major problem largely because of increase public concern and stringent regulation in industrialized developing countries.

A

false

111
Q

t/f

one approach to producing pollution is to have government give money to industries that cause pollution.

A

false

112
Q

t/f

the human birth rate has remained the same for the last 350 years.

A

true

113
Q

t/f

there is nothing an individual can do to effect the environmental problems because the problem is too large and complex

A

false

114
Q

t/f

there is no known way to reduce the emmissions of sulfur dioxide from the burning of coal into the air

A

false

115
Q

t/f

the population of Earth has not changed much over the last 350 years

A

false

116
Q

t/f

the world’s climate is warming because large amounts of CFCs are released into the atmosphere.

A

false

117
Q

t/f

chromatids separate from each other during telophase.

A

false

118
Q

t/f

meiosis results in the formation of haploid cells from diploid cells

A

true

119
Q

t/f

nondisjuction, if it occurs, takes place during prophase II of meiosis.

A

false

120
Q

t/f
gametes are diploid so that when fertilization occurs the resulting zygote will have the charateristic number of chromosomes

A

false

121
Q

*refer to the AB meiosis/mitosis diagram *
which of these cells is in the process of diving to form gametes?
which of the cells will be diploid at the end of cell division?

A

B (can count and see that there’s only gonna be 2 chromosomes in each cell)
A

122
Q

in order to fit within a cell, DNA becomes more compact by

A

wrapping tightly around associate proteins

123
Q

a diploid cell is one that

A

all the above

124
Q

diploid is to somatic as haploid is to

A

gamete

125
Q

a mutation caused by a piece of DNA breaking away from its chromosome and becoming attached to a non-homologous chromosome

A

translocation

126
Q

if nondisjunction occurs,

A

a gamete will receive too few or too many homologues

127
Q

which of the following is the correct sequence of the cell cycle

A

G1 –> S –> G2 –> M –> C

128
Q

homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes containing genes that code for

A

the same traits

129
Q

separation of one homolog from the other occurs during

A

anaphase I

130
Q

a condition in which a diploid cell is missing a chromosome is called ___

A

monosomy

131
Q

binary fission

A

is a process by which bacteria reproduce

132
Q

in human sexual reproduction, a male haploid gamete and a female haploid gamete unite to form a ___

A

zygote with 46 chromosomes

133
Q

the process of meiosis produces

A

four haploid cells

134
Q

following replication of its DNA, each chromosome contain two ___ which are attached to each other by a centromere

A

chromotids

135
Q

Collectively, the time spent in G1, S, and G2 is called ___

A

Interphase

136
Q

chromosomes coil up and become shorter and thicker during

A

prophase

137
Q

cables made of microtubules that extend from the poles of a cell to the centromere of chromosomes are called ___

A

spindle fibers

138
Q

a photo of the chromosomes of a somatic cell undergoing mitosis can be used to detect down syndrome is called ___

A

a karyotype

139
Q

a sequence of nucleotides of a DNA molecule that codes for a sequence of amino acids are called ___

A

a gene

140
Q

the process called ___ guarantees the number of chromosomes of gametes is half the number of chromosomes found in ___ cell.

A

meiosis

somatic

141
Q

the stage of meiosis during which homologs line up in pairs but on opposite sides of the equator of the cell is called ___

A

metaphase I

142
Q

the cells resulting from meiosis in either males and females are called ___

A

gametes

143
Q

when arms of two hologous chromosomes exchange reciprocol segments of DNA, ___ is said to have occured

A

crossing over

144
Q

the 22 pairs of chromosomes in human somatic cells that are the same in males and females are called ___

A

autosomes