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Final 1600 Flashcards

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1
Q

Surgery; improve function, enhances appearance (or both); E: on the nose to correct deviated septum to increase airflow; breast reconstruction after mastectomy.

A

Reconstructive surgery

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2
Q

primary purpose for maintaining NPO status 6-8 hours prior to surgery

A

Prevent aspiration

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3
Q

Classification of medication given to prevent and treat N&V

A

Antiemetics: Ondansetron ( Zofran)

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4
Q

Hand held breathing device; promote complete lung expansion and prevent pulmonary problems

A

Incentive spirometer

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5
Q

Surgical consent: nursing responsibility

A

Witnessing

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6
Q

Sets up OR; coordinates all the activities; make sure supplies are available; positioning of the patient

A

Circulating nurse

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7
Q

Set up sterile field; drape patient; handles all sterile equipment; maintains count of supplies.

A

Scrub nurse

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8
Q

Ensure right patient, right surgical procedure, right site

A

Time out

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9
Q

Collapse or airless condition of all or part of the lungs; caused by hypoventilation; obstrustion, or compression

A

Atelectasis

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10
Q

Excess fluid build up - inflammation; flue like symptoms: cough, fever, dyspnea

A

Pneumonia

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11
Q

Temporally disappearance of peristalsis ; N&V, pain, distention

A

Paralytic ileus

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12
Q

Blood clot in pulmonary artery; sudden onset; dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, restlessness, cough, hemoptysis; Tx: heparin therapy

A

PE - pulmonary embolism

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13
Q

Blood clot from the deep venous thrombus; calf pain, erythema, unilateral swelling

A

DVT

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14
Q

Wound opening ; apply a sterile non adherent or saline dressing; notify surgeon

A

Dehiscence

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15
Q

Wound opening with protrusion of internal organs; surgical emergency.

A

Evisceration

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16
Q

Descriptive term; wound is together without any gaps

A

Well-approximated - Primary intention

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17
Q

Wound healing: shortest, from top down; wound edges closed ; E: sutures

A

Primary intention

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18
Q

Wound healing: prolonged repair, gradual filling with connective tissue; bottom to top; left open; E: pressure ulcers

A

Secondary intention

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19
Q

Wound healing: initially wound left open to heal, debrided; then wound is surgically closed; E: I&D - incision and drainage.

A

Tertiary intention

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20
Q

Grenade looking device; placed in the wound after surgery for removal of the drainage

A

Jackson-Pratt drain (JP) - suction drain

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21
Q

Wound exudate containing bacteria that yellow, brown and green with foul odor

A

Purulent exudate

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22
Q

Constipation, N&V, puritis, sedation, respiratory depression - side effects of …

A

Opioids

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23
Q

Automated device used by patient to self administer prescribed pain medication

A

PCA Pump - patient controlled analgesia

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24
Q

Source of pain moves or travel to other location

A

Radiation pain

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25
Q

Term used to describe pain such as sharp, aching, or stabbing

A

Quality pain

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26
Q

Common side effect of opioid usage; TX: Mag-ox (Magnesium Oxide)

A

Constipation

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27
Q

Intervention that is most important to teach client about identifying fluid volume status

A

Weigh yourself daily

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28
Q

Fluid compartment that is equivalent to 40 % - 2/3 of total body water

A

ICF - intracellular fluid / compartment

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29
Q

Movement of fluid through a permeable membrane due to hydrostatic pressure

A

Filtration

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30
Q

Free movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration

A

Diffusion

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31
Q

Diffusion across a cell membrane that requires assistance; E: insulin/glucose; sodium pumps

A

Facilitated diffusion

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32
Q

Movement of water from lower to higher concentration of solute ; concentration gradient must exist; particles cannot cross

A

Osmosis

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33
Q

0.9% sodium chloride (NS); lactated ringers, D5W

A

Isotonic solutions - crystalloids

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34
Q

Same osmolarity as blood (270-300); no fluid shift : outside = inside

A

Isotonic solutions

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35
Q

0.45 % sodium chloride ( 1/2 NS)

A

Hypotonic solution

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36
Q

Outside (concentration) < inside ; moves fluid into the cell - cells swell , enlarge

A

Hypotonic solution

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37
Q

D5LR, D5 0.45 NS, 3 % NS

A

Hypertonic solutions

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38
Q

Outside > inside ; pulls fluid from cells - cells shrink; think of fluid overload (cells are overloaded with fluid)

A

Hypertonic solution

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39
Q

400-600 ml is min amount of urine per day needed to excrete toxic waste products

A

Obligatory urine output

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40
Q

500-1000 ml/day water loss from skin, lungs and stool; cannot be controlled

A

Insensible water loss

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41
Q

hormone secreted when sodium level in ECF decreased; prevent Na+water loss ; acts on kidney nephrons

A

Aldosterone

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42
Q

Hormone secreted when sodium level increases ; acts on kidney tubules - water is reabsorbed to dilute blood.

A

Antidiuretic hormone - ADH

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43
Q

Inflammation of vein; redness, pain hardened

A

Phlebitis

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44
Q

Leakage of IV fluid in extravascular tissue; cool, moist , redness

A

Infiltration

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45
Q

Leaking of chemical (vesicant ) or medication

A

Extravasation

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46
Q

Affects primary CNS ; altered mental status, cerebral edema, confusion

A

Na - where Na goes, H2O follows ; 135-145

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47
Q

Confusion, muscle weakness ; caused by : diuretic use, low salt diet, decreased aldosterone secretion ; TX: 2-3 % sodium chloride

A

Hyponatremia

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48
Q

Restlessness , seizures, muscle twitching; caused by renal failure, exercise, diaphoresis, fever; TX: diuretics, 0.45%NaCl

A

Hypernatremia

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49
Q

Affects cardiac/ respiratory/musculoskeletal systems

A

Potassium K ; 3.5-5

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50
Q

Irregular pulse , dysrythmias , muscle weakness, confusion; caused by diuretics, anorexia, Digoxin toxicity , gastric suction, V&D, hyperaldosteronism . TX: diluted IV K

A

Hypokalemia

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51
Q

Client is admitted with K 2.1; Order: 40 KCL STAT; what is most appropriate method for administering?

A

Diluted IV; never as IV push; never exceed 20 mEq/hr; monitor for infiltration

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52
Q

Crdiac irregularities, muscle twitching, paresthesia (tingling or numbness), hypotension; caused by renal failure, K sparing diuretics (Aldosterone), stored bank blood; TX: Kayexalate (stool); emergency : Insulin IV + CaCl + D50

A

Hyperkalemia

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53
Q

Stored in bone – strength & density, skeletal

contractions, nerve impulses; absorption requires active form of vitamin D (parathyroid hormone control)

A

Calcium 9-10.5

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54
Q

Parathesia, chvosteks( facial twitching), trousseus (spasm + palmar flexion) sign, deep tendon reflex, cardiac changes, seizures ; caused by inadequate intake Ca/ Vitamin D; lactose intolerance , Chrons disease; TX: IV Ca, Vitamin D

A

Hypocalcemia

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55
Q

High BP, HR; confusion, fatigue, kidney stones; caused by hyperparathyroidis; poor kidney excretion; TX: IV 0.9 NaCl, Lasix, Phosphorus,Calcitonin.

A

Hypercalcemia

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56
Q

Inverse relationship w/ Ca; assist cell growth & metabolism;

Treat according to Ca level;

A

Phosphorus 3 -4.5

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57
Q

What tonicity of fluid will used to rehydrate the cells

A

Hypotonic

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58
Q

Solutions with small molecules that flow easily from the bloodstream into cells

A

Crystalloids - Isotonic, Hypotonic, Hypertonic

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59
Q

Solution used for burns, GI tract fluid loss, acute blood loss; Caution: renal disease : K component; liver failure: lactic acidosis ( cannot convert lactate into bicarbonate) .

A

LR - Lactated Ringers

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60
Q

Solutions with molecules too large to pass through semipermeable membrane; they remain in intravascular compartment; volume expanders; used: severe burns, blood loss, shock

A

Colloids (always hypertonic ): Albumin, Dextran, Mannitol, Hespan (Hetastarch)

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61
Q

Fluids classified as

A
  1. Crystalloids
  2. Colloids
  3. Blood products
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62
Q

Specific gravity

A

1.005-1.030

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63
Q

What are two the most common causes of kidney failure

A
  1. Diabetes

2. Hypertension

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64
Q

Types of ARF

A
  1. Prerenal
  2. Intrarenal/intrinsic
  3. Post renal
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65
Q

Type of ARF; decreased blood flow to the kidneys; caused by shock, HF, PE, sepsis; s/s: hypotension, decreased UO, tachycardia

A

Prerenal

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66
Q

Type of ARF; Kidney damage d/t acute tubular nephrosis, infection, toxins;S/S: oliguria, anuria, HTN, SOB

A

Intrarenal/intrinsic

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67
Q

Type of ARF; Obstruction to outflow of urine; S/S: Lethargy, signs of uremia

A

Post renal

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68
Q

Nephrotoxic drugs and radiocontrast dies cause what type of acute renal failure ARF

A

Intrarenal failure

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69
Q

100-400 ml in 24 hr / decreased urine output

A

Oliguria

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70
Q

> 2000 ml in 24 hr; increased urine output

A

Polyuria

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71
Q

Less than 100 ml in 24 hr

A

Anuria

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72
Q

Painful urination

A

Dysuria

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73
Q

Chronic renal failure dietary restrictions

A
  1. Protein
  2. Fluid
  3. K
  4. Na
  5. P high causes hypocalcemia and osteodystrophy - take phosphate binder - Amphojel (constipation)
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74
Q

Increased Na, K, P, Mg; low Ca; metabolic acidosis - Kussmaul respiration ; hypertension, hyperlipidemia, HF, pericarditis, anemia, uremia.

A

Chronic kidney disease - ESKD ( GFR<15)

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75
Q

Halitosis, stomatitis, anorexia, N&V, peptic ulcers, pruritus, uremic frost, bruises

A

Uremia

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76
Q

Type of dialysis; uses the principles of diffusion and ultrafilteration; access: fistula, graft, dialysis cath (Quinton)

A

Hemodialysis

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77
Q

Hemodialysis; to check potency

A

Palpate for the thrill; auscultate for the bruit

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78
Q

Disequilibrium syndrome, muscle cramps, hemorrhage, air embolus, hemodynamic complications (hypotension, anemia),cardiac dysrhythmias are complications of …

A

Hemodialysis

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79
Q

Type of dialysis ; uses the principles of diffusion and osmosis ; instilled into the peritoneal cavity via permanent indwelling catheter ; sterile technique (wear mask)

A

Peritoneal dialysis

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80
Q

Peritonitis, Bleeding, Leakage, Abdominal hernias are complications of …

A

Peritoneal dialysis

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81
Q

S/s: hematuria, facial edema, fluid overload, SOB, proteinuria; DX: GFR, ASO titer ( strep bacteria)

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

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82
Q

S/s: hypertension, fatigue, occasional edema; decreased kidney function

A

Chronic glomerulonephritis

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83
Q

S/s: flank/back pain, fever, N/V, burning, urgency ; DX: U/A (WBS, C&S)

A

Acute pyelonephritis

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84
Q

S/s: hypertension, Na excretion, nocturia; DX: U/A

A

Chronic pyelonephritis

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85
Q

Microbial infection that invade kidneys in the renal pelvis

A

Pyelonephritis

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86
Q

Presence of calculi ( stones) in the urinary tract

A

Urolithiasis (urinary calculi )

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87
Q

Type of incontinence; causes involuntary loss of bladder control associated with a strong urge to void

A

Urge incontinence

88
Q

Type of incontinence; occurs when detrusor muscle fails to contract and the bladder become overdistended

A

Overflow incontinence

89
Q

Type of incontinence; most common; loss of small amount of urine during coughing, sneezing, jogging, lifting

A

Stress incontinence

90
Q

Type of incontinence; result of factor other than the abnormal function of the bladder or urethra; E: loss of cognitive function

A

Functional incontinence

91
Q

Medical term for surgical removal of all or part of the urinary bladder

A

Cystectomy

92
Q

Classification of UTI

A
  1. Upper UTI : pyelonephritis

2. Lower UTI: cystitis

93
Q

S/s: dysuria, frequency, urgency, hesitancy, hematuria, itching, pyuria …mental status changes

A

Cystitits

94
Q

Urinalysis : protein

A

0.8 mg/dl

95
Q

Urinalysis: RBC

A

0-2 per high power field

96
Q

Urinalysis: WBC

A

M: 0-3; F:0-5

97
Q

Increased glomerular permeability; large molecules pass from blood into the urine; S/s: massive proteinuria, lipiduria, edema…

A

Nephrotic syndrome

98
Q

pH that is not compatible with life !!!

A

< 6.8 or >7.8

99
Q

When one is hypoventilating the body doing what ?

A

Retaining CO2

100
Q

Prolong vomiting and nasogastric suctioning leads to acid deficit , causing

A

Metabolic alkalosis

101
Q

Urinary diversion, divert urine into surgically created pouch or pocket that functions as a bladder. The stoma is continent, and the patient removes urine by regular self-catheterization

A

Kock’s pouch - ileal reservoir

102
Q

Internal reservoir created from part of the small intestine; connected to the urethra; learn to void normally

A

Neobladder

103
Q

Type of urinary diversion; diverts urine to the large intestine; no stoma required; urine excreted with bowel movement

A

Uterosigmodoistomy

104
Q

Acid-base balance regulatory mechanisms

A
  1. Chemical : fast acting
  2. Respiratory: minutes
  3. Renal : hours-days
105
Q

Normal range pH

A

7.35-7.45

106
Q

Normal range CO2

A

35-45

107
Q

Normal range HCO3-

A

21-28

108
Q

Respiratory acidosis

A

pH < 7.35; PaCo2 > 45

109
Q

Normal range O2

A

80-100

110
Q

Hypoventilation : deep, slow, shallow breathing; retaining CO2; S/s: confusion, drowsiness, tachycardia, dysrhythmias , elevated K; TX: manual ventilation

A

Respiratory acidosis

111
Q

Hyperventilation: rapid, shallow breathing; blowing off CO2; S/s: numbness and tingling, diaphoresis, tetanic spasms of arms and legs (low Ca) - acute resp.failure; TX: nonrebreather, paper bag

A

Respiratory alkalosis

112
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

pH > 7.45; PaCo2 < 35

113
Q

Metabolic acidosis

A

pH < 7.35; HCO3 < 21

114
Q

Anxiety, fear, pain, fever, sepsis, CNS lesions, resp. stimulants will lead to …

A

Respiratory alkalosis

115
Q

Head injury, meds (opioids) , spinal cord injury, atelectasis , pneumonia will lead to …

A

Respiratory acidosis

116
Q

Diarrhea, intestinal fistulas, renal failure, DKA, starvation , pancreatitis will lead to …

A

Metabolic acidosis

117
Q

Ingestion of antacids, excess use of HCO3, lactate in dialysis, vomiting , gastric suctioning , diuretics

A

Metabolic alkalosis

118
Q

Kussmaul breathing , N/V, warmed flushed skin, confusion; (high K); TX: Hydration

A

Metabolic acidosis

119
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

pH > 7.45; HCO3 > 28

120
Q

Weakness, muscle twitching, tetany, dizziness, seizures, N/V, respiratory depression, low Ca ; TX: Diamox (excrete HCO3)

A

Metabolic alkalosis

121
Q

Normal RR

A

12-20

122
Q

If the pH is outside of normal range it is …

A

Uncompensated (or partially compensated )

123
Q

If the pH is within normal , while other values remain abnormal it is …

A

Compensated

124
Q

Acid base balance occurs through control of … production and elimination

A

Hydrogen ions H+

125
Q

COPD - CO2 retained - pH decreases - kidney excretes more H+ and increase reabsorption of bicarbonate back into the blood - example of …

A

Renal compensation (corrects respiratory problem)

126
Q

Running - build up of lactic acid - increase in H+ - decrease in pH - breathing is triggered - loose of carbon dioxide - example of

A

Respiratory compensation (corrects metabolic problem )

127
Q

Air passing through constricted bronchioles is the symptom of what respiratory disease ?

A

Asthma

128
Q

COPD characterized by what two symptoms ?

A

Bronchospasm (chronic bronchitis)+ dyspnea (emphysema)

129
Q

What is the best nursing intervention for person who has Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

A

Airborne precaution

130
Q

The loss of lung elasticity and hyperinflation of the lungs are two major causes of …

A

Emphysema

131
Q

Intermittent, reversible airflow obstruction; affects only airways; inflammation (mucus) and airway hyperresponsivenes (bronchospasm) ; wheezing, SOB, chest tightness

A

Asthma

132
Q

Inhaled corticosteroid, prevent asthma attack caused by inflammation; used daily; reduces local immunity - good mouth care;

A

Flovent (Fluticasone)

133
Q

Short acting beta 2 agonist (SABA); rescue drug; relaxes bronchial smooth muscles ; used 5 min before other inhaled drug; monitor HR.

A

Albuterol (Proventil)

134
Q

Oral corticosteroid; rescue drug; step 6 asthma; side effects: GI ulceration; fat redistribution; weight gain; hyperglycemia ; reduces all immunity responses

A

Prednisone (Deltasone)

135
Q

Inflammatory process resulting in excess fluid in the lungs; triggered by infective organisms; S/s:flushed cheeks , bright eyes, anxious expression, fever, chest pain, dehydration…. ; vaccine available ( older adults repeat every 5 years )

A

Pneumonia

136
Q

Highly communicable; airborne transmission ; S/s persistent cough, hemoptysis, fever, anorexia, night sweats, fatigue …

A

Pulmonary Tuberculosis

137
Q

Combination TB drug therapy ; take 6 month or longer; strict adherence ; stain skin and urine; interact with oral contraceptives; avoid drinking; risk for liver toxicity;

A

Isoniazid (INH) + Rifampin

138
Q

Patient is no longer contagious …

A

after 2-3 weeks of taking meds; when 3 sputum cultures are negative

139
Q

Guaifenesin

A

expectorant - thin secretions

140
Q

Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

A

Mycolitic - destroys or dissolves mucus

141
Q

Also known as silent disease; this chronic condition is caused by bone loss due to decreased bone density

A

Osteoporosis

142
Q

What is the most common method reducing immobilizing fractures ?

A

ORIF - open reduction internal fixation

143
Q

This is a two-part surgery. First, the broken bone is reduced or put back into place. Next, an internal fixation device is placed on the bone; this can be screws, plates, rods, or pins used to hold the broken bone together.

A

ORIF - open reduction internal fixation

144
Q

Usually results from a long bone fracture ; occurs 12-48 hrs of injury or illness; chest pain, hypoxia, dyspnea, petechiae; ND: Impaired gas exchange

A

Fat embolism

145
Q

An emergent situation is caused by blood or fluid build up at the site of injury; emergency fasciotomy is treatment of choice ; kidney failure due to myoglobin release ( rhabdomyolysis)

A

Acute compartment syndrome

146
Q

Type of fracture; no visible wound

A

Closed - simple

147
Q

Type of fracture; external wound

A

Open - compound

148
Q

Assessment of neurovascular status

A
  1. Pain
  2. Pallor
  3. Paresthesia
  4. Pulselessness
  5. Pressure
  6. Paralysis
149
Q

Fractures ND

A

Acute pain

150
Q

Osteoporosis ND

A

Risk for falls

151
Q

Pelvic fracture ND

A

Risk for bleeding - hypovolemic shock

152
Q

Can be acute ( fever, swelling, erythema, bone pain) or chronic ( ulceration, pain, drainage) ; caused by staph or MRSA …

A

Osteomyelitis

153
Q

At risk for dislocation; ND: risk for bleeding, infection; abduction pillow between pt’s legs; heels of the bed; 6 P’s; move day after surgery; 90 degree rule

A

Post op hip replacement

154
Q

Application of pulling force to a part of the body; skin (velcro boot); skeletal ( pins, wires), brace.; 6 P’s; pain; elevate above heart; T; ice ;ND: Acute pain; Risk for infection

A

Traction care

155
Q

Hold bones in place after reduction; handle with palms of hands ; 6 P’s; circulation; nerve damage; infection: “hot spots”; muscle atrophy; ND: Acute pain, Risk for infection

A

Cast care

156
Q

System in which pins or wires are inserted through the skin and affected bone and then connected to a rigid external frame; increased risk for pin site infection that can lead to osteomyelitis ; monitor every 8-12 hours

A

External fixation

157
Q

Long term glycemic control determined by …

A

HgA1C

158
Q

The best 3 ways to manage diabetes

A
  1. Education
  2. Diet
  3. Exercise
159
Q

Shaking, sweating , tachycardia, dizziness, anxiousness, irritability are clinical manifestations of … ; BG < 70.

A

Hypoglycemia

160
Q

Which type of insulin has onset 1-3 hrs , peak 4-12, duration 16-24

A

Intermediate

161
Q

This type of drug therapy lowers both basal and post meal glucose level in type II diabetics reducing hepatic glucose production and the tissue sensitivity to insulin

A

Metformin (Glucophage)

162
Q

Carbohydrate replacement ( 15-20 g of glucose); Glucagon (subcut or IM); 50 % Dextrose (IV); - are treatments of …

A

Hypoglycemia

163
Q

Polyuria (dehydration) - Polydipsia (cell starvation )- Polyphagia - no insulin - fats break down ( ketones) -metabolic acidosis ( Kussmaul )- fruity breath; BG > 250

A

Hyperglycemia

164
Q

Caused by infection; other stressors, 3Ps, dry skin, Kussmaul, lethargy, dehydration, BG > 300; sudden onset ; Type 1 diabetes complication …

A

DKA - diabetic ketoacidosis

165
Q

During 24 hrs - 5-10 L of fluids - isotonic saline; 5%D in 0.45 saline; regular insulin by continuous IV infusion ; IV potassium ; are treatments of …

A

DKA

166
Q

Caused by infection, poor fluid intake; altered CNS function: seizures, myoclonic jerking; severe dehydration; BG > 600; gradual onset; complication of type 2 diabetes ….

A

HHS - hyperosmolar state

167
Q

Systemic effects of diabetes : chronic complications

A
  1. Macrovascular : arteriosclerotic and atherosclerotic changes in large arteries and veins; coronary artery disease(MI), cerebral artery disease (stroke), peripheral vascular disease
  2. Microvascular changes : nephropathy (ESKD), retinopathy, neuropathy (foot ulcers)
168
Q

Long - acting Insulin; never mixed; no peak time

A

Glargine (Lantus)

169
Q

Intermidiate - acting insulin ; peak time 6-12 hrs; can be mixed with regular

A

NPH (Humulin N, Novolin N)

170
Q

Short - acting insulin; peak time 2-5 hrs; can be mixed with NPH;

A

Regular ( Humulin R, Novolin R)

171
Q

Rapid - acting insulin ; peak time 0.5-1.5 hr;

A

Lispro (Humalog)

172
Q

Diagnosis of diabetes : obtained on 2 occasions

A
  1. FBG > 126 (100) - 8 hrs no caloric intake
  2. Glucose tolerance test > 200 (140) - 2 hrs post load
  3. HbA1C > 6.5 (4-6) - glycemic control over 120 days
173
Q

Coplications of insulin therapy

A
  1. Hypoglycemia
  2. Lipoatrophy (tx: inject insulin at the edge)
  3. Lipohypertrophy (tx: rotate inj site )
  4. Fasting hyperglycemia
    - Dawn phenomenon (tx: more insulin before bed)
    - Samogyi phenomenon (tx: more food before bed )
174
Q

This type of drug increase insulin secretion in the treatment of type 2 diabetes ; side effect - hypoglycemia

A

Sulfonylurea agents : 1st generation - Tolbutamide ; 2nd generation - Glipizide

175
Q

This type of drug improves tissue sensitivity to insulin in the treatment of type 2 diabetes ; not for patients with liver impairment; can take 2-3 months to work;

A

TZD - Avandia

176
Q

What is the treatment of choice for pt. experiencing hypovolemic shock due to pelvic fracture

A

Crystalloids, colloids, blood products, plasma expenders

177
Q

The bone marrow produces …

A

RBC + WBC + Platelets

178
Q

What precaution should be implemented with thrombocytopenia ?

A

Bleeding precaution

179
Q

Low WBC, CD4 count less than 200, fever, night sweats, and opportunistic infection present manifestations of …

A

AIDS

180
Q

Everyone who has HIV infection has AIDS, but not everyone who has AIDS has HIV … True or False ?

A

False

181
Q

Organisms that are present in normal environment and usually kept in check by normal immune response ; can be protozoan , bacterial , fungal or viral

A

Opportunistic infection

182
Q

Use of strategies to prevent the actual occurance of cancer : avoid carcinogens; modify associated factors ( alcohol, high fat, low fiber, multiple sex partners); remove at risk tissues ( moles, breasts, colon polyps); chemoprevention ( vitamin D + tamoxifen - breast cancer) ; vaccination

A

Primary prevention

183
Q

use of screening strategies to detect cancer early, ; yearly mammography (> 40 ); colonoscopy ( 50); digital rectal examination ( men > 50)

A

Secondary prevention

184
Q

Type of surgery; removing part of the tumor

A

Cytoreductive / debulking surgery

185
Q
  1. Neutropenia: low WBC; infection risk - sepsis
  2. Thrombocytopenia : low platelets; risk for excessive bleeding
  3. Anemia: low RBC; ineffective tissue perfusion
  4. N&V : antiemetics
  5. Mucositis ; stomatitis
  6. Alopecia ( injury to scalp, body image)
  7. Peripheral neuropathy : prevent injury
A

Side effects of chemotherapy

186
Q

Oncologic emergency; organisms enter bloodstream ; vasodiilation, hypotension, high T, WBC, RR; low urinary output ; hypoxia …. symptoms of …

A

Sepsis / Septicemia

187
Q

Oncologic emergency ; problem with blood clotting process; clots block blood vessels (pain, oliguria, bowel necrosis… ) ;tx: anticoagulants; bleeding from many sites - hemorrhage ; tx: give clotting factors

A

DIC - Disseminated intravascular coagulation

188
Q

Oncologic emergency; seen in carcinoma of the lungs; can occur very quickly; water is reabsorbed causing fluid overload, hyponatremia (seizures, coma), muscle cramps, fatigue; pulmonary edema - HF. TX: fluid restriction , Na intake, cancer therapy .

A

SIDH - syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone

189
Q

Oncologic emergency; damage occurs when a tumor enters the spinal cord or vertebra collapse from tumor degradation of the bone ; S/s: back pain, paralysis, numbness, tingling, muscle weakness ; tx: palliative

A

Spinal Cord Compression

190
Q

Oncologic emergency; SVC is compressed or obstructed by tumor growth; blockage of blood flow to head, neck, upper trunk; edema of face; Stokes sign (collar); tx: radiation

A

SCV- Superior Vena Cava Syndrome

191
Q

Oncologic emergency; tumor cells destroyed rapidly (K+purines) - faster than body can eliminate them - ARF ( hyperuricemia) ; tx: Hydration ( 3-5 L of water day before, day of, 3 days after chemo or radiation)

A

Tumor Lysis Syndrome

192
Q

Most common symptom - fatigue; dyspnea on exertion, orthostatic hypotension, intolerance to cold temperature, clublike nails, pallor of ears, headache … symptoms of …

A

Anemia

193
Q

Red meat, organ meat, egg yolks, kidney beans, leafy green vegetables, raisins are food sources of …

A

Iron

194
Q

Transfusion reaction; severe pain in kidney and chest; high T, HR, low BP ….

A

Acute hemolytic reaction

195
Q

Transfusion reaction; coughing, wheezing, N&V , low BP ….

A

Severe allergic reaction

196
Q

transfusion reaction; high T; chills, flushed skin, back pain, V&D, low BP …

A

Bacterial reaction (infectious)

197
Q

Transfusion reaction; high BP, HR, dyspnea, confusion, jugular vein distended

A

Circulatory overload

198
Q

The purpose of this type of treatment is to destroy cancer cells with minimal exposure to normal cells ….

A

Radiation

199
Q

Type of radiation; distant ; external to the patient; patient is not radioactive and is not a hazard to others

A

Teletherapy

200
Q

Type of radiation; close; direct contact with tumor tissue; uses radioactive isotopes ( solid form or within body fluids); patient is hazard to others

A

Brachytherapy

201
Q

HIV : precaution

A

Standard

202
Q

Testing for HIV

A
  1. Lymphocyte count : CD4 + T cell; WBC
  2. Antibody tests : (made 3 weeks - 3 months ) : ELISA, Western blot;
  3. Viral load testing (monitor treatment)
203
Q

HAART; inhibit viral replication; important issue - drug resistant mutations in the HIV organisms ( bc of missed doses of drug)

A

Antiretroviral therapy

204
Q

Protozoal infection; S/s: dyspnea, dry cough, fever, fatigue, weight loss…

A

PCP - pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

205
Q

Fungul infection; S/s: mouth - cottage cheese-like yellowish white plaque and inflammation ; women - persistent yeast infection ….

A

Candida albicans

206
Q

Bacterial infection ; systemic; S/s: fever, weight loss, organ disease, swollen lymph glands ….

A

MAC - mucobacterium avium complex

207
Q

Viral infection; S/s: numbness and tingling before blister forms; fever, bleeding, pain …

A

HSV - herpes simplex virus

208
Q

Cancer; develops as small, purpulish brown raised lesions that are not painful; occur anywhere on the body

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma (HIV pts)

209
Q

Benign breast problems of women approaching menopause; caused by dilation and thickening of collecting ducts

A

Ductal ectasia

210
Q

What type of breast surgery removes breast tissue , nipple , lymph nodes and leaves muscle intact

A

Modified radical mastectomy

211
Q

Uterine tissue implantation outside of uterine cavity

A

Endometriosis

212
Q

Caused by changes in the level of serotonin fluid shifts; physical and emotional symptoms occur in women ages 20-40 : depression, angry outbursts, …

A

PMS - premenstrual syndrome

213
Q

What are two characteristic symptoms of BPH

A

Hyperplasia + Hypertrophy

214
Q

Alpha adrenargic receptors; constrict the prostate gland

A

Flomax

215
Q

male reproductive emergency in which spermatic cord and blood vessels are twisted

A

Testicular scrotal torsion

Nursing (18 decks)

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