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RTH 145 Pharm > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is a drug?

A

Anything that alters the normal function of the body

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2
Q

What is pharmacology?

A

The study of drugs

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3
Q

What is therapeutics?

A

Any drug used to cure a disease or disorder

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4
Q

Naming a drug is based on what 5 things?

A
  • chemical
  • code
  • generic
  • official
  • trade
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5
Q

What is the chemical name?

A

Based on the chemical structure

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6
Q

What is the code name?

A

Experimental, drug shows potential and is usually alpha numeric

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7
Q

What is the generic name?

A

Non proprietary name, related to the chemical and may not be the same in US and Canada

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8
Q

What is the official name?

A

Fully approved and adopted by the USP and NF

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9
Q

What is the trade name?

A

Legally registered brand name

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10
Q

3’4 dehydrase-isopylamino-benzyl alcohol hydrochloride is an example of what?

A

Chemical name

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11
Q

Isoproterenol HCL is an example of what?

A

Generic and official names

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12
Q

Isuprel and Norisodrine are examples of what?

A

Trade names

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13
Q

This sets standards, identity and purity. It is uniform strength and very objective

A

USP-NF

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14
Q

This is published by APA and established formulations not in the USP. It is revised continuously

A

AHFS

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15
Q

This is the reprint of the manual literature which includes a list of generic names, classes, pictures. It lacks objectivity and is a good general reference

A

PDR

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16
Q

This is published by ASHP and discusses drug classes and new drugs that are not in the USP-NF. It is very objective and very informative

A

Hospital Formulary

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17
Q

What are the six sources of drugs?

A
  • plant
  • animal
  • micro org
  • mineral
  • synthetic
  • bioengineered
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18
Q

What are some examples of plants and the drugs that come from them?

A

Purple fox glove (digitalis), deadly nightshade (atropine) and opium poppy (morphine)

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19
Q

What are some examples of animals and the drugs that come from them?

A

Bovine thyroid gland (throxine) and porcine pancreas (natural insulin)

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20
Q

What are some examples of micro organisms and the drugs that come from them?

A

Molds (penicillin) and bacteria (streptomycin)

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21
Q

What are some examples of minerals?

A

Iron

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22
Q

What are some examples of synthetic?

A

Albuterol

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23
Q

What are some examples of bioengineered and the drugs that come from them?

A

Cell cultured (urokinase) and recumbiant DNA (R-Hirudin)

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24
Q

What are the six parts of a prescription?

A
  • pt’s name, address and date
  • superscription
  • inscription
  • subscription
  • sig
  • name of prescriber
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25
Q

What is the superscription of a prescription?

A

Rx pharmacist recipe

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26
Q

What is the inscription of a prescription?

A

Lists name and quantity

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27
Q

What is the subscription of a prescription?

A

Directions of preparing

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28
Q

What is the sig of a prescription?

A

Instructions from the pharmacist to the patient

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29
Q

What are some considerations of administering drugs?

A
  • have a written order
  • know desired effect
  • always know the drug to be given
  • document if pt refuses
  • know symptoms of overdose and treatment
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30
Q

What are the six rights of drugs?

A
  • right client
  • right drug
  • right dose
  • right rime
  • right route
  • right documentation
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31
Q

What are the seven aerosolized agents?

A
  • adrenergic
  • anticholinergic
  • antiasmathic
  • antiinfective
  • corticosteroid
  • exogenous surfactant
  • mucoactive
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32
Q

What is the pharmaceutical phase of drug administration?

A

The making of a drug available to the body for absorption

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33
Q

What is the dosage form of a drug?

A

The physical state of the drug in association with non-drug components

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34
Q

What is administration?

A

The portal of entry for the drug into the body

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35
Q

What are the five dosage forms?

A
  • oral (enteral)
  • injectable
  • aerosol/MDI
  • suppository
  • sublingual
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36
Q

What are the five routes of administration?

A
  • enteral
  • parenteral
  • transdermal
  • inhalation
  • topical
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37
Q

What route is the safest and what route is the fastest?

A

Oral is the safest and parenteral is the fastest

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38
Q

What is the pharmokinetic phase?

A

The time course and deposition of a drug in the body

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39
Q

What four things is the pharmokinetic phase based on?

A
  • absorption
  • distribution
  • metabolism
  • elimination
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40
Q

What is the pharmacodynamic phase?

A

The interaction of drug molecules with target receptor sites (how a drug works)

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41
Q

What are the three ways drugs produce effects?

A
  • key fits lock and causes a reaction
  • key fits lock but does not cause a reaction
  • key alters membrane permeability
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42
Q

What does it mean when a key fits a lock but does not cause a reaction?

A

The drug blocks the receptor site to keep reactions from occurring

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43
Q

What are the three things that must happen for lock and key?

A
  • drug must reach receptor site
  • drug must be specific to receptor site
  • drug specificity depends on chemical structure
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44
Q

What are the terms for lock and key?

A
  • affinity
  • efficacy
  • agonist
  • antagonist
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45
Q

What does affinity mean?

A

Likeness or attraction

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46
Q

What does efficacy mean?

A

Effect

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47
Q

What does agonist mean?

A

Both affinity and efficacy

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48
Q

What does antagonist mean?

A

Affinity but not efficacy

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49
Q

What are the four types of drug interactions?

A
  • additive
  • synergism
  • potentiation
  • antagonism
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50
Q

What is additive?

A

1+1=2. Two drugs that both do what they’re supposed to do

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51
Q

What is synergism?

A

1+1=3. Two drugs that work better together than separate

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52
Q

What is potentiation?

A

1+0=2. One drug doesn’t do anything but the second drug does better because the first one is there

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53
Q

What is antagonism?

A

1+1=0. Cancel each other out

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54
Q

What is addiction?

A

Physical need

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55
Q

What is dependence?

A

Psychological need

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56
Q

What is an allergy?

A

A damaging immune response to a substance

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57
Q

What is anaphylaxis?

A

A severe hypersensitivity reaction

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58
Q

What is a carcinogen?

A

A drug that causes cancer

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59
Q

What is cumulation?

A

The drug is excreted slower than it’s given so it builds up

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60
Q

What is desensitization?

A

Less affected by a drug

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61
Q

What is half-life?

A

How much time it takes to decrease the drug in your body by half

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62
Q

What is the paradoxical effect?

A

Get the opposite effect that you expect

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63
Q

What is potency?

A

Strength of a drug

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64
Q

What is resistance?

A

Lack or responsiveness no matter how much of the drug you take

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65
Q

What is a side effect?

A

Any effect that occurs that wasn’t the desired effect

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66
Q

What is tachyphylaxis?

A

Rapidly developing drug tolerance

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67
Q

What is a teratogen?

A

A drug that causes birth defects

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68
Q

What is tolerance?

A

When you need more and more of a drug to produce the desired effect

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69
Q

What is maximal effect?

A

The greatest response that can be produced by a drug (no further response can be elicited)

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70
Q

What does ED 50 mean?

A

Half of the test subjects improve

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71
Q

What does LD 50 mean?

A

Half of the test subjects die

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72
Q

For the therapeutic index, the ____ the number the more dangerous

A

Smaller

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73
Q

What parts of the body does the central nervous contain?

A

Brain and spinal cord

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74
Q

What are the parts of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic, parasympathetic and nonadrenergic noncholinergic (NANC)

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75
Q

What is the sympathetic system?

A

It is the general alarm system. It is not essential for life and is considered the “fight or flight” system

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76
Q

What is the parasympathetic system?

A

It regulates daily functions

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77
Q

what are the four main things that the parasympathetic system regulates?

A
  • salivation
  • lacrimation
  • urination
  • defication
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78
Q

The peripheral nervous system contains what?

A

The sensory, somatic and autonomic nervous systems

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79
Q

What is the sensory system?

A

Afferent. Input to the brain such as light, heat and pressure

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80
Q

What is the somatic system?

A

Efferent. Away from the brain and largely voluntary skeletal muscle

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81
Q

What are the parts of the sympathetic branch?

A
  • short preganglionic fiber
  • ganglionic synapse
  • long postganglionic fiber
  • neuroeffector synapse
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82
Q

Sympathetic fibers innervate the ____ and cause the release of ____ into general circulation

A

Adrenal medulla; epinephrine

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83
Q

Circulating epinephrine stimulates all receptors to responding ___ even if no sympathetic nerves are present

A

Norepinephrine

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84
Q

Sympathetic nerve stimulation is both ___ and ___

A

Electrical and chemical

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85
Q

What neurotransmitter is at the ganglionic synapse in the sympathetic system?

A

Acetylcholine

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86
Q

What neurotransmitter is at the neuroeffector synapse in the sympathetic system?

A

Norepinephrine

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87
Q

Sympathetic sweat glands release ___ instead of norepinephrine

A

Acetylcholine

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88
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers directly innervate the ____, where the neurotransmitter is ___

A

Adrenal medulla; acetylcholine

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89
Q

What does A1 stimulation cause?

A

Constriction in the lungs and blood vessels

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90
Q

What does B1 stimulation cause?

A

Increase HR, contractile force and automaticity

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91
Q

What does chronotropic mean?

A

Increases HR

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92
Q

What does ionotropic mean?

A

Increases contractile force

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93
Q

What does automaticity mean?

A

Increases jumpiness

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94
Q

What does B2 stimulation cause?

A

Dilation in the lungs and blood vessels

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95
Q

What are the steps of the beta receptor theory?

A
  1. A Gprotein linked receptor is stimulated by either a natural sympathetic reaction or a specific beta agent that has been given
  2. this activates G proteins called Gs
  3. this causes the release of adenylyl cyclase
  4. Adenyl cyclas converts ATP to cyclic 3’5’ amp
  5. cyclic 3’5’ amp causes direct bronchodilation and inhibits mast cell degranulation
  6. cyclic 3’5’ amp is broken down by phosphodiesterase and becomes 5’ amp
  7. 5’ amp has no action on bronchial smooth muscle
96
Q

What are the steps of the parasympathetic receptor theory?

A
  1. A muscarinic receptor is stimulated by either a natural sympathetic reaction or a specific beta agent that has been given
  2. this activates G proteins called Gs
  3. this causes the release of gyanylate cyclase
  4. Gyanylate cyclas converts GTP to cyclic 3’5’ gmp
  5. cyclic 3’5’ gmp causes direct bronchoconstriction and enhances release of inflammatory chemicals
  6. cyclic 3’5’ gmp is broken down by phosphodiesterase and becomes 5’ gmp
  7. 5’ gmp has no action on bronchial muscle
97
Q

What are the three ways to inactivate norepinephrine?

A

Reuptake 1, deactivation by COMT and deactivation by MAO

98
Q

What is reuptake 1?

A

Reabsorbed into post-synaptic membrane at the site (lock and key reaction)

99
Q

What is deactivation by COMT?

A

Catechololmethyl transface. Catechol nuclei are broken down by the COMT enzyme

100
Q

What is deactivation by MAO?

A

Monoamine oxidase

101
Q

What is the most common way to inactivate norepinephrine?

A

Deactivation by COMT

102
Q

What are the parts of the parasympathetic branch?

A
  • very long pre ganglionic fiber
  • ganglionic synapse
  • short post ganglionic fiber
  • neuroeffector synapse
103
Q

What parasympathetic neurotransmitter is at the ganglionic synapse?

A

Acetylcholine

104
Q

What parasympathetic neurotransmitter is at the neuroeffector synapse?

A

Acetylcholine

105
Q

Increased ___ causes the release of acetylcholine and increases constriction

106
Q

What are the four parasympathetic agents?

A
  • metacoline (bronchoconstriction)
  • carachol (relieves urinary retention)
  • bethanechol (relieves urinary retention)
  • pilocarpine (myosis in eptamology)
107
Q

What are three parasympatholytic agents?

A
  • atropine
  • atrovent
  • spiriva
108
Q

How are parasympathetic agents inactivated?

A
  • hydrolysis by cholinesterase enzymes

- split acetylcholine molecule into choline and acetate

109
Q

Muscarinic receptors are located at ____ (bronchial mucus glands, cardiac muscle, smooth muscle)

A

Exocrine glands

110
Q

Nicotinic receptors are found at ____ and ____

A

Ganglionic synapses and skeletal muscle sites

111
Q

___ receptors are parasympathetic receptors found in airway smooth muscle and submucosal glands

112
Q

Parasympathomimetic/Cholinergic

A

Drugs that mimic the parasympathetic system and cause bronchoconstriction

113
Q

Parasympatholytic/Anti-cholingeric

A

Drugs that block bronchoconstriction (indirect bronchodilators), i.e. atrovent

114
Q

Sympathomimetic/catecholamine

A

Mimic the sympathetic system and cause bronchodilation

115
Q

Adrenergic/adrenomimetic

A

Look like the sympathetic system, i.e. albuterol

116
Q

Sympatholytic/antiadrenergic

A

Compete with the sympathetic system and cause bronchoconstriction

117
Q

What is adrenergic?

A

A drug that stimulates a receptor for norepinephrine or epinephrine

118
Q

What is antiadrenergic?

A

A drug that blocks a receptor for norepinephrine or epinephrine

119
Q

____ is the lumen of the airway reduced. It can be due to bronchospasm, mucosal edema or secretions

A

Bronchoconstriction

120
Q

___ is another name for muscle constriction

A

Bronchospasm

121
Q

____ means swelling

A

Mucosal edema

122
Q

What are the three agents used for bronchospasm relief?

A
  • sympathomimetic
  • parasympatholytic
  • methylxanthines
123
Q

What are two agents used for mucosal edema relief?

A
  • alpha adrenergic

- corticosteroid

124
Q

___ always results in ___ but not all ___ is caused by ___

A

Bronchospasm; bronchoconstriction; bronchoconstriction; bronchospasm

125
Q

A general indication of ___ bronchodilators is when relaxation of airway smooth muscle in the presence of ___ airflow obstruction in diseases such as ____, _____, ____ and _____

A

Adrenergic; reversible; asthma, emphysema, bronchiectasis, and bronchiectasis

126
Q

Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle to produce bronchodilation in ___, ___, ___ and ___ is an indication of bronchodilators

A

Asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis and other obstructive diseases

127
Q

How long do ultra short acting agents last and when are they used?

A

Less than 3 hours and emergencies

128
Q

What are the three ultra short acting agents most commonly used?

A

a. epinephrine
b. racemic epinephrine
c. isoetharine

129
Q

How long do short acting agents last and what are the indications?

A

4-6 hours and acute reversible obstruction

130
Q

What are some examples of short acting agents?

A

a. albuterol
b. levalbuterol
c. metaproterenol
d. pirbuterol
e. bitolterol

131
Q

What is the difference between saligenins and resorcinals?

A

Saligenins have HOCH2 and resorcinals only have OH

132
Q

How long do long acting agents last and when are they used?

A

8-12 hours and maintenance and control of bronchospasm

133
Q

What are some examples of long acting agents?

A

a. salmeterol
b. formoterol
c. arformoterol

134
Q

Catecholamines are inactivated by heat, light and air. This is a phenomenon known as _____

A

Beta blockade

135
Q

The ____ enzyme is found in the liver and kidneys and degrades catechols (making catechols unsuitable for oral administration because they are inactivated by the gut and liver)

136
Q

What are some of the side effects associated with catecholamines?

A

a. nausea
b. headache
c. dizziness
d. skeletal muscle tremor
e. tachycardia

137
Q

What are the naturally occurring catecholamines?

A

a. epineprhine
b. norepineprhine
c. dopamine

138
Q

What are the man made catecholamines?

A

a. isoetharine

b. isoproterenol

139
Q

___ are mirror images of each other

140
Q

____ is the stereoisomer of epinephrine

A

Racemic epineprhine

141
Q

____ is used for status asthmaticus or cardiac issues

A

Epinephrine

142
Q

What is used as a vasoconstrictor for its alpha effects to reduce swelling?

A

Racemic epineprhine

143
Q

For a COPD patient, what are the drugs you would prescribe (in order by time)?

A
  • albuterol PRN
  • albuterol + atrovent PRN
  • albuterol + atrovent q4h
  • albuterol + atrovent + salmeterol q4h
  • albuterol + atrovent + salmeterol q4h + corticosteroid
  • albuterol + atrovent + salmeterol q4h + corticosteroid + xanthine
144
Q

___ is the single (R) isomer form of racemic albuterol and contains no (S) isomer

A

Levalbuterol

145
Q

What is the longest acting SVN?

146
Q

Levalbuterol is available in both a ___and___ form. The dosages are 0.31mg/3mL, 0.63mg/3mL, 1.25mg/3mL, and 1.25mg/0.5mL

147
Q

The other name for levalbuterol is ____

148
Q

Extended released albuterol comes as a 4 or 8mg ____

149
Q

Salmeterol is available as a ___ and is used for its ____ effect

A

DPI; bronchodilator

150
Q

Formeterol comes as a DPI and SVN and is used for what three diseases?

A

a. asthma (5 years +)
b. exercise induced asthma
c. COPD

151
Q

After administering a bronchodilator, what should you assess?

A

a. 20% increase in flow rates
b. ABG
c. blood glucose and potassium
d. reaction to freons and sulfites

152
Q

___ lasts longer than epinephrine because it is not acted on by COMT

153
Q

The B-agonist controversy, also known as the _____, is the increasing evidence of asthma mortality and morbidity despite advances in treatment

A

asthma paradox

154
Q

What do anticholinergic (parasympatholytic) drugs do?

A

Block cholinergic induced bronchoconstriction

155
Q

A ____ blocking agent is only effective if bronchoconstriction exists due to cholinergic activity

A

cholinergic

156
Q

Anticholinergic agents are approved for ____ only

157
Q

Anticholinergic agents may be used for ____ in addition to beta agonists, but only if the patient does not respond well to beta agonist therapy

158
Q

What are the 4 specific anticholinergic agents?

A

a. atropine
b. atrovent
c. advair
d. spiriva

159
Q

The physiology of anticholinergics is that they are ____ bronchodilators

160
Q

These anticholinergic agents are ____ with albuterol

A

synergistic

161
Q

Are tertiary or quaternary compounds better and why?

A

Quaternary because they do not cross the blood brain barrier

162
Q

___ is a tertiary compound and ____ and ____ are quaternary compounds

A

Atropine; atrovent and spiriva

163
Q

The mode of action of anticholinergics depends upon the degree of ____ to be blocked

164
Q

Bronchoconstriction in ____ may be due in part by vagally mediated reflex innervation of airway smooth muscle

165
Q

When C-fibers are activated, they produced an ____ nerve impulse to the CNS which results in an ____ impulse to cause constriction of muscle, mucus secretion and cough (protection)

A

afferent; efferent

166
Q

Anticholinergic agents work on __ receptors which causes bronchoconstriction and secretions

167
Q

____ comes as both an MDI (18Mg/2puffs) and SVN (0.5mg, 0.02%)

168
Q

____ comes as a DPI (18Mg/inhalation)

169
Q

___ and ____ both block M1, M2 and M3, but ____ works longer because it stays in the receptor site longer

A

Atrovent and spiriva; spiriva

170
Q

What patients should you be cautious of using anticholinergic agents with?

A

a. prostatic hypertrophy patients
b. urinary retention patients
c. glaucoma patients

171
Q

____ has a SLOWER onset, SLOWER peak, LONGER duration, and is located in the large central airways?

A

Anticholinergic

172
Q

____ has FASTER onset, FASTER peak, SHORTER duration, has tremors, a fall in O2, tolerance and is located in the central, peripheral airways

A

Beta agonist

173
Q

____ are used in the management of COPD and asthma as well as prematurity and apnea

A

Methylxanthines

174
Q

What are some naturally occurring xanthine agents?

A

a. Coffee and cola
b. Tea leaves
c. Cocoa

175
Q

What are some synthetic xanthine agents?

A

a. Oxiphylline
b. Aminophylline
c. Dyphylline

176
Q

What forms is theophylline available in?

A

rectal, IV, and sustained release tablet

177
Q

What are the three main general pharmacologic properties associated with xanthines?

A

a. CNS stimulation
b. Cardiac stimulation
c. Peripheral and coronary vasodilation

178
Q

What is the mode of action of xanthines?

A

Inhibition of phosphodiesterase

179
Q

How do you determine the dosage of xanthines?

A

Depends on the patient because everyone metabolizes it differently

180
Q

Xanthines are metabolized in the liver and eliminated by the kidneys, which affects their ____

181
Q

What is the general dosage range for xanthines and what is the therapeutic range?

A

10-20 Mg/mL for both

182
Q

Xanthines ___ the diaphragm and ___ the drive to breathe

A

strengthen; increase

183
Q

____ is the pure version while ____ is the IV version that allows it to stay in suspension in the IV bag

A

Theophylline; aminophylline

184
Q

Below ___ the dosage of theophylline does not even work

185
Q

Xanthines are really ___ bronchodilators

186
Q

What are some of the diseases that increase mucus?

A

a. cystic fibrosis
b. bronchiectasis
c. chronic/acute bronchitis
d. pneumonia
e. asthma

187
Q

The purpose of administering a ____ is to decrease infection/inflammation and also the removal of irritants

188
Q

Where is mucus produced?

189
Q

What factors affect mucociliary transport?

A

a. COPD
b. airway trauma
c. narcotics
d. cigarette smoke

190
Q

____ is specialized epithelial cells which rest on the basement membrane

191
Q

What is the top layer and traps debris?

192
Q

Mucus is made up of ___ water and ___ protein

193
Q

When you ____ viscosity, you ___ elasticity

A

reduce; reduce

194
Q

What is the mode of action of mucomyst?

A

Disulfide bond breaker

195
Q

Bland aerosols ____ the mucus molecule directly

A

do not affect

196
Q

____ are the most common delivery method to the respiratory tract

197
Q

____ is when fluid is instilled directly into the respiratory tract

A

Direct instillation

198
Q

What are the examples of bland aerosols?

A

a. normal saline or sterile water
b. hypertonic saline
c. hypotonic saline

199
Q

Which bland aerosol therapy is used to produce a cough and sputum?

A

hypertonic

200
Q

_____ is used for thick, viscous (uninfected) mucus and ____ is used for thick, purulent (infected) mucus

A

Mucomyst; pulmozyme

201
Q

What is the dosage of mucomyst?

A

10-20% of 3-5 mL QID

202
Q

What mucolytic would you use with cystic fibrosis?

203
Q

____ is a proteolytic enzyme that breaks down the DNA material and therefore decreases the viscosity of the mucus

204
Q

Pulmozyme is available in _____, is administered once per day and should be refrigerated and kept away from light

A

single dose ampules

205
Q

What is used to treat alveolar pulmonary edema?

A

Ethyl alcohol

206
Q

When a person cannot cough, you could try administering an ____ to directly stimulate a cough and mucus production

A

expectorant

207
Q

What are the three indications for surfactant?

A

a. prophylactic treatment for low birth weight infants
b. prophylactic treatment for premature infants
c. rescue treatment for infants who have developed RDS

208
Q

How are surfactants administered?

A

Instilled down the ET tube and the baby is swirled around

209
Q

Surfactants are given as both ____ and ___ treatments

A

Prophylactic; rescue

210
Q

What are the three types of exogenous surfactant preparations?

A

a. natural
b. synthetic
c. synthetic/natural

211
Q

____ and ____ are both bovine surfactants while ____ is a porcine surfactant

A

Berfactant and calfactant; porfactant alfa

212
Q

What is the mode of action of surfactant?

A

Replace and replenish a deficient endogenous surfactant pool in neonatal RDS

213
Q

What are the hazards and complications of surfactant?

A

Airway occlusion, desaturation or bradycardia

214
Q

What are the indications for administering corticosteroids?

A

a. step 2 asthma
b. COPD
c. management of seasonal, perennial allergic and non perennial rhinitis

215
Q

The two types of asthma are ___ and ___

A

allergic; non allergic

216
Q

The ____ phase of the inflammatory response creates local vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

217
Q

The ____ phase of the inflammatory response develops ___ hours after administration and is much more difficult to resolve. As a result ____ and ___ are released and ___ occurs

A

late; 6-8; leukotrines, prostaglandins; mucus plugging

218
Q

When are your cortisol levels highest?

A

Morning around 8am

219
Q

The triple response of the inflammatory response consists of the _____, _____ and ____ phases

A

redness, flare and wheal

220
Q

What is the most common side effect of inhaled steroid therapy?

A

Oral thrush

221
Q

What are the three types of nonsteroidal antiasthma agents?

A

a. cromolyn sodium
b. anti-leukotrines
c. monoclonal antibodies

222
Q

What is the general clinical indication of nonsteroidal antiasthma agents?

A

Prophylactic management of mild persistent (step 2) asthma

223
Q

____ are short acting inhaled B2, systemic steroids (IV) and inhaled anticholinergic

224
Q

What are the two most important facts when it comes to cromolyn?

A

a. prophylactic only

b. not a bronchodilator – may cause bronchoconstriction

225
Q

Cromolyn ____ mast cell degranulation

226
Q

Antiinfective agents are given by ____ and _____

A

inhalation ;aerosolization

227
Q

____, ____ and ____ are all commonly inhaled antiinfective agents

A

Pentamidine, ribavirin, and tobramycin

228
Q

Aerosolized pentamidine is SVN fitted with a series of one-way valves and an ____ filter

A

expiratory

229
Q

The mode of action for pentamidine is to ____ RNA and DNA synthesis, ____ oxidative phosphorylation and ____ with folate transformation

A

block; inhibit; interfere

230
Q

Pentamidine is given in a 300 mg SVN once every ____

231
Q

Ribavirin is active against____, ____ and ____

A

RSV, influenza and herpes simplex virus

232
Q

____ comes in a 20mg/mL solution and is given 12-18 hours a day for a minimum of ___ days and a maximum of ___ days

A

Ribavirin; 3; 7

233
Q

What is the clinical used of inhaled tobramycin?

A

Pulmonary infections such as CF

234
Q

Tobramycin is given ___ consecutively with 28 days off following in a 300mg 5 mL ampoule

235
Q

Tobramycin binds irreversibly to the 30S subunit of bacterial _____

RTH 145 Pharm (7 decks)

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