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BMS 110 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

term used for the maintenance of a relatively constant internal enviroment

A

homeostasis

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2
Q

what are the macromolecules

A

proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids

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3
Q

where is DNA contained

A

nucleus

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4
Q

what is the function of the mitochondria

A

produce ATP

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5
Q

where is glycogen found

A

liver

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6
Q

where are ribosomes made

A

nucleolus

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7
Q

in which type of reaction is water a biproduct

A

condensation

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8
Q

what is the definition of an ion

A

a charged atom

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9
Q

what are the most abundant organic elements in the human body

A

oxygen, hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, calcium, phosphorus

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10
Q

unique characteristics of organic compounds are

A

functional groups

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11
Q

what is the end product of glycolysis

A

2 pryuvate

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12
Q

what is the strongest bod

A

covalent

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13
Q

if a solution has more solute on the outside than the inside of the cell, the solution is considered

A

hypertonic

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14
Q

water moves from ___ solute concentration to ___ solute concentration

A

lower; higher

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15
Q

enzymes are made of which macromolecule

A

protein

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16
Q

cholesterol adds ___ to the cell membrane

A

structural support and fluidity

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17
Q

how many protons, electrons, and neutrons are present in the isomer 34P (atomic number 15)

A

15, 15, 19

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18
Q

what is the function of a lysosome

A

engulf

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19
Q

where does glycolysis take place

A

cytolasm

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20
Q

___ contains a glycerol, phosphate, and 2 fatty acids

A

phospholipid

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21
Q

which of the followings is a passive process

A

facilitated diffusion, osmosis, simple diffusion

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22
Q

which type of protein folding contains disulfide bridges

A

tertiary

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23
Q

what organelle packages lipids and proteins to move around the cell

A

golgi complex

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24
Q

how many ATP molecules are produced from cellular respiration

A

32

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25
Q

which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide

A

cellulose

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26
Q

NaCl is an example of ___

A

ionic bond

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27
Q

humans are in the kingdom ___

A

Animalia

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28
Q

the most specific classification of an organism is its ___

A

species

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29
Q

this part of an experiment is the factor that is kept constant

A

control group

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30
Q

nucleic acids contain a

A

phosphate group, five carbon sugar, nitrogenous base

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31
Q

the disaccharide sucrose is formed from what 2 monosaccharides

A

glucose and fructose

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32
Q

what is the 5 main characteristics of life

A

reproduce and grow, sense and responds to change, maintain homeostasis, cellular organization, ability to adapt

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33
Q

what is the proper order of events in a negative feedback system

A

stimulus, receptors, control center, effectors, response

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34
Q

what are the domains of life

A

eukarya, eubacteria, archaebacteria

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35
Q

what would be an effector in the regulation of body temperature

A

sweat glands

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36
Q

what substrate is needed to begin the citric acid cycle

A

acetyl CoA

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37
Q

what nitrogen base is found as a nucleotide only in RNA

A

uracil

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38
Q

a substance that has a pH of 12 is considered ___ because it has a higher concentration of ___ in the solution

A

base; OH-

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39
Q

what is produced during glycolysis

A

2 TP, 2 pryuvate, 2 NADH

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40
Q

this organelle contains digestive enzymes and degrades old cells

A

lysosome

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41
Q

what is the monomer of carbohydrates

A

glucose

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42
Q

a red blood cell placed in a hypotonic solution is expected to undergo ___

A

hemolysis

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43
Q

this part of cellular metabolism produces the most ATP

A

electron transport chain

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44
Q

this is the random movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

A

diffusion

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45
Q

when water is needed in a chemical reaction to break bonds in a molecule making smaller molecules it is called

A

hydration

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46
Q

helices and sheets are localized areas of a protein’s ___ structure

A

secondary

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47
Q

what is the function of NADH and FADH

A

electron transport

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48
Q

what are parts of the cytoskeleton

A

microtubule, intermediate filaments, microfilaments

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49
Q

if a unicellular organism had DNA not contained in the nucleus, cytoplasm, and a cell membrane, what cell would it likely be?

A

prokaryotic cell

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50
Q

what is the part of the cell that “tags” the cell as “self”

A

glycocalyx

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51
Q

what is found in an eukaryotic cell membrane

A

cholesterol, phospholipid, glycoprotein

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52
Q

which part of an experiment do you measure for the results

A

dependent variable

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53
Q

___ molecules like/are attracted to water

A

hydrophilic

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54
Q

what functional groups are present on an amino acid

A

amino, radical, carboxyl

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55
Q

if a fatty acid is ___, then it has two or more double bonds in its carbon chain

A

polyunsaturated

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56
Q

human bodies store energy for long term purposes in the form of

A

triglycerides

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57
Q

what organelle is not found in plant cells

A

mitochondria

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58
Q

if i placed baking soda in a beaker of vinegar, the concentration of ___ ions would increase in the vinegar

A

OH

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59
Q

this is broken down in glycolysis

A

glucose

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60
Q

what base pair is held together by 3 hydrogen bonds

A

G with C

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61
Q

spermatogenesis results in __ ___ sperm; oogenesis results in __ ___ ovum

A

4haploid; 1 haploid

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62
Q

what process restores the diploid number of chromosomes in the zygote

A

fertilization

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63
Q

a human cell that has a full number of chromosomes is considered to be

A

diploid

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64
Q

if 15 diploid parent cells undergo mitosis, how many daughter cells would be produced

A

30 diploid

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65
Q

what is the function of tRNA

A

to bring amino acids to the ribosome

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66
Q

which enzyme is responsible for replication

A

DNA polymerase

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67
Q

the location of a gene on a chromosome is the

A

locus

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68
Q

during which stage of translation are peptide bonds formed

A

elongation

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69
Q

sister chromatids separate in

A

mitosis and meiosis II

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70
Q

in which phase of mitosis do the centrosomes start to pull apart and chromosomes condense

A

prophase

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71
Q

which codon is responsible for initiation

A

AUG

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72
Q

interphase is the stage when

A

a cell grows and duplicates its DNA

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73
Q

a DNA molecule is normally made up of __ ___ strands

A

2 antiparallel

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74
Q

if all the offspring of a cross have the genotype Aa, the parents of the cross would most likely be

A

AA x aa

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75
Q

During elongation, the ribosome translocates along mRNA, and we label the three different sites where the ribosome is along the mRNA. What site contains the nascent polypeptide strand for almost the whole process?

A

P site

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76
Q

In which phase do the following steps occur- chromosomes become relaxed chromatin, nucleoli appear, spindle disassembles, nuclear envelope reassembles, and two diploid daughter cells are formed by a ring of actin

A

telophase of mitosis

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77
Q

In a monohybrid cross (homozygous dominant x homozygous recessive), what kind of allele becomes lost in the F1 generation’s phenotype?

A

recessive

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78
Q

what is the term for nucleotides that have a single ring nitrogenous base

A

pyrimidine

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79
Q

In order to make mature mRNA, the __________________ must be removed. This will allow for the mRNA to leave the nucleus and for one gene to produce many forms of proteins.

A

introns

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80
Q

how many different gamete possibilities will there be if we cross two individuals for two traits

A

16

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81
Q

the alleles of a gene make up a person’s ___

A

genotype

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82
Q

in humans, meiosis splits a ___ into 4 ___

A

germ cell; gametes

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83
Q

replication occurs to copy the DNA in a cell. in which direction is the new cell synthesized

A

5’ –> 3’

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84
Q

___ is a process used to separate DNA by size and visualize the amount of DNA

A

gel electrophoresis

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85
Q

what are the names of the perpendicular cylinders at the cell’s poles, which together are responsible for the formation of the spindle

A

centrioles

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86
Q

this portion of the sperm contains digestive enzymes that allow it to penetrate and fertilize the oocyte

A

acrosome

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87
Q

the letters inside the punnett square boxes represent

A

offspring genotype

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88
Q

a genotype of “gg” is referred to as

A

homozygous recessive

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89
Q

we call chromosome pairs 1-22

A

autosomes

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90
Q

a human cell that is in prophase will have ___ condensed chromosomes and ___ chromatids

A

46; 92

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91
Q

Huntington disease, which an example of an expansion mutation, ___ change the reading frame of the mRNA codons

A

does

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92
Q

If a (coding) DNA sequence is TACGGCTAAGCCACATATATT what would the primary structure of the polypeptide be once it is translated?

A

Met - Pro - Ile - Arg - Cys - Ile

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93
Q

how many possible codons are there that code for amino acids in most living organisms

A

61

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94
Q

the visual representation of the total number, shape, and size of each chromosome in the cell is the

A

karyotype

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95
Q

sister chromatids are held together at a region called

A

centromere

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96
Q

what is the purpose of polymerase chain reaction

A

to make copies of a specific DNA sequence or gene

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97
Q

this structure contains DNA and proteins, and is condenses chromatin, visible during mitosis

A

chromosomes

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98
Q

If you cross a heterozygous individual with a homozygous dominant individual for the dominant trait of having a widow’s peak, what is the probability that the gamete would show this phenotype?

A

100%

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99
Q

If you cross two individuals with the following genotypes for two different traits- (Father) Bb HH and (Mother) bb hh. What is the probability that a gamete would show the dominant phenotype for both traits?

A

50%

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100
Q

DNA replication occurs during this stage of the cell cycle

A

S phase

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101
Q

at the end of oogenesis, the final products will be

A

1 viable egg and 3 polar bodies

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102
Q

a secondary spermatocyte is ___ and will go through ___

A

haploid; meiosis II

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103
Q

what are the 4 major types of tissue

A

nervous, connective, epithelial, muscle

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104
Q

which type of blood vessel is used to maintain homeostasis by constricting or dilating

A

arterioles

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105
Q

Embryonic stem cells are very unique in that they are __________________, which means they have the potential to become __________ kind(s) of cell(s).

A

omnipotent; any

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106
Q

the ___ circuit of the cardiovascular system pumps blood through the right side of the heart and to the ___

A

pulmonary; lungs

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107
Q

what would not contain oxygenated blood

A

pulmonary artery

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108
Q

the function of stratified squamous epithelial is to

A

protect

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109
Q

which oft the following is a specialized loose connective tissue

A

adipose

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110
Q

which type of anemia is caused by the destruction of red bone marrow

A

aplastic anemia

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111
Q

all epithelial tissue cells are connected to the

A

basement membrane

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112
Q

which of the following is an agranular white blood cell

A

monocyte

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113
Q

During a clot formation (using platelets), what are two of the factors that are converted during the “clotting cascade”?

A

prothrombin and fibrinogen

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114
Q

which white blood cell’s main function is to fight parasitic infections

A

eosinophils

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115
Q

the serous membrane that protects the heart is called the

A

pericardium

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116
Q

which type of muscular tissue is not striated

A

smooth muscle

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117
Q

what is the function of thrombocytes in blood tissue

A

clot blood

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118
Q

If a patient is diagnosed with a cardiac arrhythmia, and their heartbeat has been constantly low, what would the medical term be for their condition?

A

bradycardia

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119
Q

what is the largest organ in the human body

A

skin

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120
Q

the right ventricle pushes blood out to the ___, whereas the left ventricle sends blood to the ___

A

lungs; body

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121
Q

the function of albumin plasma proteins is

A

to help maintain osmotic pressure

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122
Q

When plaque accumulates in blood vessels, it can restrict blood flow and cause atherosclerosis. If a clot forms and is still attached it is called a ________________, but if it becomes dislodged and floats to another area it is called ______________.

A

thrombosis; embolism

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123
Q

where is a location in the body where you might find simple columnar epithelial tissue

A

digestive organs

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124
Q

what would not increase the amount of blood pumped out of the heart

A

vasodilation of arterioles

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125
Q

what are chordae tendinae

A

fibers that support valves

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126
Q

what kind of tissue makes up your tendons and ligaments, and is strong due to the collagen fibers present

A

regular dense connective

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127
Q

what is the only type of muscle that we have voluntary control over

A

skeletal

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128
Q

what percentage of your blood is water

A

92%

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129
Q

both endocrine and exocrine glands are made of ___ tissue

A

epithelial

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130
Q

hyaline cartilage can be found in the ___, and contains an EM of ___ fibers

A

nose; fine collagen

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131
Q

the ___ valves are located after each ventricle, preventing backflow from the arteries

A

semilunar

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132
Q

what is found in blood tissue

A

plasma, leukocytes, albumin

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133
Q

the pulmonary vein carries ___ blood ___ the heart

A

oxygenated; towards

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134
Q

what is found in muscle tissue

A

myocytes, actin fibers, myosin fibers

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135
Q

What is the name of the blood vessel that collects blood from several different veins around the G.I. system and transports the blood to the liver where it will be filtered before returning to the heart?

A

hepatic portal vein

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136
Q

what is the step in the cardiac cycle when both the atria and the ventricles are relaxed

A

diastole

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137
Q

this type of cell junction connects the cytoplasm of neighboring cells. an example would be intercalated disks

A

gap junctions

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138
Q

what are the main components of bone

A

calcium salts, collagen fibers, phosphorus salts

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139
Q

which type of muscle tissue has only one nucleus per cell

A

smooth and cardiac

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140
Q

which cardiovascular disease is the hardening and thickening of the arteries due to high blood pressure

A

artheriosclerosis

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141
Q

what would a normal systolic blood pressure reading be

A

120

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142
Q

an example of an endocrine gland would be

A

sweat gland

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143
Q

___ tissues is made mostly of extracellular matrix, whereas ___ tissue is made mostly of cells

A

connective; nervous

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144
Q

what is found in cartilage

A

cell, collagen fibers, lacunae

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145
Q

where would you find spongy bone

A

end of long bones

146
Q

what makes up the extracellular matrix in connective tissue

A

protein fibers and ground substance

147
Q

if a person’s blood pressure is too high, the correct homeostatic response would be

A

vasodilation of arterioles

148
Q

what is the most uncommon white blood cell in our blood that is physically large and responsible for phagocytosis

A

monocyte

149
Q

Which cardiovascular disorder results in an abnormal heartbeat because of disordered contraction?

A

ventricular fibrillation

150
Q

what is the most common white blood cell in your blood

A

neutrophils

151
Q

the result of the sinoatrial node firing is

A

atrial systole

152
Q

chondrocytes and osteocytes are found inside of

A

lacunae

153
Q

Which cell makes the myelin sheath for the brain and spinal chord neurons?

A

oligodendrocytes

154
Q

Which antigens would be on the surface of a red blood cell in a person who was Type AB blood?

A

both A and B antigen

155
Q

What antibodies would a person with type AB blood have in their blood plasma?

A

no antibodies in the plasma

156
Q

Would this person with type AB blood be able to receive blood from a Type A donor? Why?

A

B. Yes, because they do not have Anti-A and Anti-B agglutinins in their plasma.

157
Q

Who could this person with type AB blood donate blood to?

A

type AB recipient

158
Q

This type of blood vessel is the only one to have valves inside to prevent backflow.

A

veins

159
Q

These cells release histamine within the tissue starting the inflammatory response.

A

mast cells

160
Q

immunity

A

the ability to combat diseases, can occur naturally or artificially, is the ability to combat cancer

161
Q

What is the term used to describe the movement of air in or out of the body?

A

ventilation

162
Q

vaccines are a form of this type ___ immunity

A

artificial active

163
Q

If neutrophils need “back up” or more phagocytic cells at the site of pathogenic infection, they release

A

interleukins

164
Q

What is the correct order of events in the inflammatory response?

A

Histamine release -> Vasodilation -> Edema -> Neutrophil phagocytosis

165
Q

what is total lung capacity

A

vital capacity plus residual volume

166
Q

An allergic response is caused by which of the following antibodies?

A

IgE

167
Q

passive immunity

A

an individual given prepared antibodies against a particular antigen, this can happen naturally as antibodies are passed from mother to fetus, it is temporary immunity

168
Q

During expiration, both the ____________ and the ___________ muscles relax, helping air to move __________

A

diaphragm; intercostal; out

169
Q

A virus in a vaccine that has been killed or cannot infect a cell is termed as ___________________

A

attenuated

170
Q

where do B cells mature

A

red bone marrow

171
Q

Antigen-presenting cells require this process to be able to present the antigen of a pathogen on its surface

A

phagocytosis

172
Q

Cytotoxic T cells release _______________, a chemical that makes the cell membrane of a pathogen to break open

A

perforin

173
Q

The bronchioles contain cartilaginous rings, called cricoid cartilage, to help support the tubes and keep them open. true or false

A

false

174
Q

The hallmark symptoms of the inflammatory response includes all of the following except

A

fever

175
Q

The lower respiratory tract begins when the air hits the __________________

A

trachea

176
Q

This is the main circulating antibody and is the most common in the body

A

IgG

177
Q

What is the main purpose of the red pulp in the spleen?

A

to filter erythrocytes

178
Q

what cells are involved in the removal of norovirus-infected cells

A

APC, cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells

179
Q

The _______________ zone, which starts at the respiratory bronchioles, includes the alveoli helps to ______________

A

respiratory; exchange gases

180
Q

The function of the _____________ is to make new formed elements like lymphocytes and erythrocytes

A

red bone marrow

181
Q

Which of the following is not a cytokine?

A

IgA

182
Q

What happens to blood vessels during an inflammatory response, which results in leukocytes being able to travel into the infected tissue due to the more permeable vessel walls?

A

blood vessels are dilated

183
Q

where would you find lymph nodes

A

groin region, neck, armpit

184
Q

The thymus gland is a ________________ organ of the lymphatic system

A

primary

185
Q

What proteins raise our temperature in our body as a part of our secondary line of defense

A

pyrogens

186
Q

Internal respiration would happen between ___________ circuit capillaries and tissue in the ____________

A

systemic; body

187
Q

What is the purpose of interferon cytokines?

A

to signal neighboring cells that there is a virus nearby

188
Q

what are examples of autoimmune diseases

A

multiple sclerosis, chrohn’s disease, rheumatoid arthritis

189
Q

what are components of the first line of defense

A

skin, lysozyme, sebaceous gland

190
Q

If your pH labs come back to say your blood pH is 7.49, what condition do you have? And how will your breathing rate be affected automatically?

A

alkalosis; breathing will decrease in speed and depth

191
Q

what is found in the dermis layer of the skin

A

nerve endings, glands, blood vessels

192
Q

Which is the first layer of epidermis cells, right underneath the dead keratinocytes?

A

stratum corneum

193
Q

Our second line of defense is ___________________ and __________________.

A

innate; nonspecific

194
Q

What type of white blood cells produce antibodies?

A

effector B cells

195
Q

What type of tissue is the epidermis made out of?

A

stratified squamous epithelial tissue

196
Q

What type of cells present the antigens of pathogenic organisms on the surface of their cell in order to initiate a specific immune response?

A

antigen presenting cells

197
Q

Which of the following cells is not involved in Antibody-Mediated (Humoral) immune responses?

A

cytotoxic T cells

198
Q

What is the purpose of Cell-Mediated immunity?

A

to kill nonspecific pathogens

199
Q

______________ is produced by the septal cells in the alveoli to help reduce friction and keep them open for gas exchange.

A

surfactant

200
Q

______________ result from exposure to harmless substances that provoke an immune attack.

A

allergies

201
Q

Natural killer (NK) cells are __________________ and stimulate ________________ of infected cells

A

nonspecific; apoptosis

202
Q

An example of natural passive immunity would be

A

antibodies going from mother to fetus

203
Q

Which of the following respiratory diseases is not caused by a pathogen?

A

asthma

204
Q

Some ____ cells differentiate into Natural Killer cells

A

T cells

205
Q

What type of immunity makes your own antibodies?

A

active immunity

206
Q

During inspiration, the volume of the lungs becomes _____________, _______________ the amount of pressure inside of the thoracic cavity, forcing air to enter.

A

larger; decreasing

207
Q

If air is flowing into your body, which part of the respiratory tract would it pass through first?

A

trachea

208
Q

catabolism

A

To break down larger molecules into smaller molecules

209
Q

anabolism

A

Builds up molecules that the body needs and constructs smaller molecules to large molecules

210
Q

stimulus receptor

A

Monitors the environment and reports changes: sends input signals

211
Q

control center

A

Receives and evaluates the signal from the stimulus receptor: formulates a response by sending an output signal

212
Q

an effector

A

Receives the signal from the control center: carries out the response

213
Q

negative feedback system

A

Operate to reverse, reduce, or eliminate the changes detected by the stimulus receptor

214
Q

positive feedback system

A

Operate to re-enforce the detected change by the stimulus receptor

215
Q

secondary consumer

A

Carnivores that feed on herbivores

216
Q

primary consumer

A

Herbivores that feed on producers

217
Q

tertiary and quaternary

A

Carnivores that feed on other carnivores

218
Q

How many electrons does the first shell hold?

A

2

219
Q

How many electrons does the second shell hold?

A

8

220
Q

How many electrons does the third shell hold?

A

18

221
Q

isotopes

A

are same atom with different numbers of neutrons

222
Q

hydrogen bond

A

weakest bond

223
Q

ionic bond

A

positive to negative

224
Q

covalent bond

A

strongest bond. polarity

225
Q

exothermic

A

Energy is released when the bond is formed; C + O2 = CO2

226
Q

endothermic

A

To store energy in the body for later release; the formation of longer-chain sugars from short-chain, simple sugars

227
Q

pH scale of acids and bases

A

acid: (0-7) - [H+] > [OH-]

base: (7-14) - [H+] < [OH-]

228
Q

acidosis

A

Blood pH below 7.0; leads to coma and death

229
Q

alkalosis

A

Blood pH increase to 7.8; leads to tetany and death

230
Q

glycocalyx

A

Layer on cell membrane, defines cells as belonging to a specific organism, defines both blood type and tissue type

231
Q

passive transport

A

With concentration gradient; No energy required

232
Q

active transport

A

Against concentration gradient; Requires ATP

233
Q

diffusion

A

Substance moving toward the area of its lower concentration

234
Q

osmosis

A

Diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane

235
Q

isotonic

A

Equal flow into and out of the cell

236
Q

hypertonic

A

Causes cell to shrivel up; A higher concentration of solutes than the cytosol

237
Q

hypotonic

A

Causes cell to burst; A lower concentration of solutes than the cytosol

238
Q

endocytosis

A

Extracellular molecules and particles are taken into the cell via vesicle formation

239
Q

exocytosis

A

Secretory products or waste products are removed from the cell

240
Q

rough ER

A

Proteins synthesized by the ribosomes on its outer membrane

241
Q

smooth ER

A

Synthesis of fatty acids and steroid hormones; has no attached ribosomes

242
Q

trascription

A

DNA –> mRNA

243
Q

translation

A

mRNA –> protein

244
Q

stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, and UGA

245
Q

initiation

A

Initiator tRNA with AUG attached binds to mRNA codon

246
Q

elongation

A

Peptide bonds form between incoming amino acids

247
Q

terminiation

A

Stop codon; detachment of the new polypeptide

248
Q

rule of segregation

A

based on predictions from one-trait crosses

249
Q

rule of independent assortment

A

based on predictions from two-trait crosses

250
Q

genome

A

The complete set of genes (and alleles) in a certain organism

251
Q

pleiotropy

A

Wide-ranging effect of one gene

252
Q

codominance

A

Heterozygous for a trait, but both alleles are expressed

253
Q

penetrance

A

Probability that someone who inherits an allele will have the phenotype associated with it

254
Q

polygenic traits

A

Combined expression of several genes
Skin and eye color

255
Q

multifactoral trait

A

Phenotypes shaped by one or more gene(s) and affected by the environment, ex. height

256
Q

sex-influence traits

A

Appear more often in one gender than the other, Genes located on autosomes

257
Q

sex-limited genes

A

Males and females inherit the same genes (on the X chromosome) Only the gene’s appropriate for the person’s gender are turned on

258
Q

interphase

A

G1, S, G2

259
Q

prophase

A

Coiling and condensing of the chromosomes, Microtubules forming, Nuclear membrane begins breaking up

260
Q

metaphase

A

Nuclear membrane breaks apart, Duplicated chromosomes align midway (metaphase plate) between the poles of the cell

261
Q

anaphase

A

Sister chromatids split; become independent chromosomes, Pulled by the microtubules toward the pole region, Spindle elongates, pushing the poles farther apart

262
Q

telophase

A

Chromosomes no longer connected to the spindle, Chromosomes are threadlike, once again form chromatin, Nuclear envelope forms around each cluster

263
Q

How many daughter cells do Mitosis have?

A

2

264
Q

How many daughter cells do Meiosis have?

A

4

265
Q

How many chromosomes do mitosis have?

A

46

266
Q

How many chromosomes do meiosis have?

A

23

267
Q

cytokinesis

A

Division of the cytoplasm, Begins toward the end of anaphase, Cleavage furrow forms, Microfilaments pull the plasma membrane inward all around the cell, Pinches the cell in two

268
Q

mitosis

A

Division of somatic cells, Maintains Diploid Chromosome number (2n –> 2n)
Purpose: Growth, Replace worn out or dead cells, Repair tissue

269
Q

meiosis

A

Division of germ cells, Halve the diploid number to haploid (2n –> 1n)
Purpose: First stage in sexual reproduction

270
Q

prophase 1

A

The chromosomes condense, and the nuclear envelope breaks down. crossing-over occurs.

271
Q

metaphase 1

A

Pairs of homologous chromosomes move to the equator of the cell.

272
Q

anaphase 1

A

Homologous chromosomes move to the opposite poles of the cell.

273
Q

telophase 1

A

Chromosomes gather at the poles of the cells. the cytoplasm divides.

274
Q

prophase 2

A

A new spindle forms around the chromosomes.

275
Q

metaphase 2

A

Chromosomes line up at the equator.

276
Q

anaphase 2

A

Centromeres divides. chromatids move to the opposite poles of the cells.

277
Q

telophase 2

A

A nuclear envelope forms around each set of chromosomes. the cytoplasm divides.

278
Q

reductional division

A

Reduces the number of chromosomes to a haploid number

279
Q

spermatogensis

A

In the male, the process that forms four haploid sperm, Diploid germ cell increases in size

280
Q

oogenesis

A

In the female, the process that forms one haploid egg and up to 3 haploid polar bodies, Female at birth has primary oocytes arrested in prophase I

281
Q

steps of when spermatogenic cells begin producing sperm

A
  1. Divide into spermatogonia
  2. That divide into primary spermatocytes
  3. That then divide into secondary spermatocytes
  4. That finally divide into spermatids
282
Q

chromatin

A

decondensed DNA

283
Q

chromosomes

A

condensed DNA visible during Mitosis

284
Q

chromatids

A

one half of the chromosome

285
Q

centromeres

A

middle of chromosome. Holds everything together

286
Q

centrosomes

A

total of all centrioles and microtubles

287
Q

centrioles

A

rigatoni shaped structure that forms microtubles

288
Q

crossing over

A

homologous chromosomes exchange material and diversify cells

289
Q

disjunction

A

pairs separate during anaphase I, Chromosomes move to opposite poles of dividing cell

290
Q

epithelial tissue

A

cover the body surface or line its cavities and tubes, Skin largest organ, Simple Pseudostratified, Stratified Transitional

291
Q

simple tissue

A

one layer of cells

292
Q

pseudostratified tissue

A

one layer but looks like several

293
Q

stratified tissue

A

several layers of cells

294
Q

transitional tissue

A

moves from several layers to single layer

295
Q

squamous epithelium

A

Thin to form a membrane that compounds can move via diffusion

296
Q

cuboidal and columnar epithelia

A

usually compose mucous membranes

297
Q

simple epithelium

A

Usually functions as a diffusion or absorption membrane, Lining of blood vessels and the lining of respiratory membranes

298
Q

stratified epithelia

A

have many layers of cells and are designed for protection, found in the outermost layer of skin and in salivary gland ducts

299
Q

connective tissue

A

connects, supports, and anchors the body’s parts
Most abundant type of tissue

300
Q

fibrous connective tissue

A

Loose and Dense; soft connective tissue

301
Q

supportive connective tissue

A

Bone and Cartilage

302
Q

fluid connective tissue

A

Blood and Lymph

303
Q

loose connective tissue

A

Flexible, fewer cells and fibers
Soft organs like liver, spleen, and lymph nodes

304
Q

dense connective tissue

A

Less flexible; stronger, More collagen

305
Q

elastic connective tissue

A

Stretchy due to elastin fibers

306
Q

adipose tissue

A

contains adipocytes (fat cells), specialized for lipid storage, does not have an extensive extracellular matrix

307
Q

hyaline cartilage

A

Fine collagen fibers
Location: Nose, ends of long bones and fetal skeleton

308
Q

elastic cartilage

A

More elastic fibers than cartilage fibers
Location: Outer ear and epiglottis

309
Q

fibrocartilage

A

Strong collagen fibers
Location: Disks between vertebrae and knee joints

310
Q

muscle tissue

A

Function: movement and heat
Muscle fibers (myocytes), protein filaments: Actin and Myosin

311
Q

skeletal muscle

A

striated; usually attached to bone; voluntary

312
Q

smooth muscle

A

tapered; walls of internal organs; involuntary

313
Q

cardiac muscle

A

striated; cardiac wall; special cellular junctions; involuntary

314
Q

integumentary organ system

A

protecting and covering

315
Q

skeletal organ system

A

support

316
Q

muscular organ system

A

movement and heat protection

317
Q

nervous organ system

A

sensing and responding

318
Q

cardiovascular organ system

A

transporting fluids and oxygen

319
Q

respiratory organ system

A

gas exchange

320
Q

urinary organ system

A

fluid balance

321
Q

endocrine organ system

A

regulating sequential growth and development

322
Q

digestive organ system

A

obtaining nutrients

323
Q

lymphatic organ system

A

immunity

324
Q

reproductive organ system

A

continuation of species

325
Q

dorsal cavity

A

Cranial cavity housing the brain, Vertebral cavity contains the spinal cord

326
Q

ventral cavity

A

Thoracic cavity includes the chest area and houses the heart, lungs, vessels, and lymphatic system
Abdominopelvic cavity: abdominal cavity houses the abdominal organs and is lined with the peritoneum
Pelvic cavity houses organs of urinary system and reproductive system

327
Q

lub

A

AV valves are closing

328
Q

dub

A

Semilunar valves are closing

329
Q

intrinsic controls

A

establish the “normal” heart beat

330
Q

extrinsic controls

A

modulate the baseline rate to meet the body’s immediate demands

331
Q

p wave

A

SA node fires, causing atrial cell depolarization

332
Q

qrs complex

A

created by the simultaneous depolarization of ventricular cells

333
Q

t wave

A

ventricle cells relax and repolarize, marking the return to diastole

334
Q

p-r interval

A

from atrial depolarization to ventricle depolarization

335
Q

q-t interval

A

total time of ventricular contraction and relaxation

336
Q

where is blood pressure the highest

A

arteries (aorta)

337
Q

where is blood pressure the lowest

A

veins (inferior vena cava)

338
Q

where is blood flow the fastest

A

arteries

339
Q

where is blood flow the slowest

A

capillaries

340
Q

pulmonary circuit

A

To, through, and from lungs
Exchange CO2 for O2 in the lungs

341
Q

systemic circuit

A

To body’s tissues, Brings this O2 (and nutrients) to tissues, Removes CO2 and wastes

342
Q

when does an aneurysm occur

A

when a vessel wall “balloons” under pressure

343
Q

what are the 3 granular cells

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

344
Q

what are the 2 agranular cells

A

lymphocytes, monocytes

345
Q

neutrophil

A

Most Abundant, 50-70% of WBC’s, multi-lobed nucleus, move out of circulation into tissues to use phagocytosis to engulf pathogens

346
Q

eosinphils

A

Small percentage of WBC’s, contains a bilobed nucleus, Many large granules, function in parasitic infections, combat histamine, & phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes

347
Q

basophils

A

Small percentage of WBC’s, contains a U-shaped or lobed nucleus, release histamine, heparin, & serotonin related to allergic reactions

348
Q

lymphocytes

A

About 25-35% of all WBC’s, Large nucleus that takes up most of the cytoplasm

349
Q

B lymphocytes

A

antibody mediated immunity

350
Q

T lymphocytes

A

cell-mediated immunity

351
Q

natural killer cells

A

Destroy cancer cells

352
Q

monocyte

A

Relatively uncommon, Most become Macrophages and Dendritic cells

353
Q

macrophages

A

phagocytic in tissues and blood

354
Q

dendritic cells

A

phagocytic in the skin

355
Q

secretion

A

distal convoluted tubule

356
Q

filtration

A

renal corpuscle

357
Q

reabsorption

A

proximal convoluted tubule

358
Q

glomerular filtration

A

separates small components from the blood

359
Q

tubular secretion

A

large molecules move into nephron tubule

360
Q

tubular reabsorption

A

useful molecules move out of nephron tubule

BMS 110 (5 decks)

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