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NURS 518 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What condition causes irritatation to the right hemidiaphragm and phrenic nerve causes right shoulder pain

A

biliary colic

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2
Q

what condition causes vomiting bile

A

small bowel obstruction

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3
Q

what condition is the pain exacerbated by ETOH intake

A

pancreatitis

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4
Q

what does the anterior drawer test for

A

ACL tear

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5
Q

what does the posterior drawer test for

A

PCL tear

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6
Q

pushing on the tib fib away from you while the knee is in flexion is what test

A

posterior drawer test for PCL tear

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7
Q

if a patient is unable to actively extend and lift their leg off the bed, what injury might they have

A

patellar tendon injury

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8
Q

what does the mcmurrarys test test for

A

meniscal tears

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9
Q

What is the name of the test when arms are internally rotated with thumbs down and pressure put on top of arms

A

empty can test

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10
Q

what does empty can test for

A

supraspinatous pathology

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11
Q

what is tested in lift off test

A

looking for subscapularis tendon integrity

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12
Q

what does bulge sign, ballotment and balloning test for

A

knee effusion

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13
Q

what causes swelling of synovial tissues in joints and tendon sheaths

A

RA

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14
Q

RA or OA causes morning stiffness

A

RA

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15
Q

RA or OA is worse after movement and activity

A

OA

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16
Q

what condition most commonly affects the first metacarpal and i ahs tophi in subcu tissue

A

gout

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17
Q

what does spurling test for

A

cervical root compression

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18
Q

why would you do a spurling test in shoulder pain presentaiton

A

to test for cervical radiculopathy that is causing the shoulder pain

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19
Q

what test involves extension of neck with head rotated towards affected side and axial load on head

A

spurling test

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20
Q

seborrheic keratosis is: benign or likely to metastisize

A

benign

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21
Q

Which skin CA is slow growing and which is aggresive: BCC and melanoma

A

BCC is slow growing and melanoma is aggressive

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22
Q

What would cause slow onset of vision loss that is bilateral

A

macular degeneration

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23
Q

true or false: seborrheic dermatitis includes redness and scaling

A

true

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24
Q

what condition causes a soft nodular thyroid with a bruit

A

graves

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25
Q

what would cause a firm thyroid

A

hashimoto or malignancy

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26
Q

what is Pemberton sign and what does it test for

A

flushing with neck hyperextension and arm elevation
Caused by compression of thoracic inlet from a goiter

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27
Q

what symptoms would you suspect a patient to have with a retrosternal goiter

A

hoarseness, SOB, stridor, dyspnea

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28
Q

what disease causes a stare, lid lag and exopthalmos

A

Graves

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29
Q

What is carotenosis and what disease may cause it

A

yellowing of the skin from increased carotene, from hypothyroidism

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30
Q

what disease causes a moon face, red cheeck and excess facial hair growth

A

Cushing

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31
Q

adrenal cortisol is increased or decreased in cushing syndrom

A

increased

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32
Q

nephrotic syndorme has increased or decreased albumin excretion

A

increased

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33
Q

what disease causes a pale, edematous face, periorbital edema worse in the morning and swollen lips

A

nephrotic syndrome

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34
Q

what disease may cause myxedema

A

hypothyroidsum

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35
Q

what is the name for the cluster of symptoms: non pitting periorbital edema; dry, coarse and thin hair; loss of lateral 3rd of the eyebrow

A

myxedema

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36
Q

what are some risk factors for developing parotid gland enlargement

A

obesity, diabetes, cirrhosis

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37
Q

what would cause an acute enlargement of the parotid gland

A

mumps

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38
Q

where would you see an enlarged parotid gland

A

anterior to ear lobe above angle of jaw

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39
Q

what disease would cause enlarged bones, elongated head with bony prominent forehead, enlarge and coarse facial features

A

acromegaly

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40
Q

what disease includes a loss of dopamine, masklike facies, oily skin and a forward flexed neck

A

parkinsons

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41
Q

what are some causes of a diffusely enlarged thyroid

A

graves, hashimotos, endemic goiter

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42
Q

what are some causes of a single nodule on the thyroid

A

cyst, benign tumor, one nodule within a multinodular gland

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43
Q

is a multinodular goiter a red flag finding for CA

A

not necessarily, they are more likely metabolic than neoplastic

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44
Q

what is stereopsis

A

3D depth perception

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45
Q

what is near reaction

A

when gaze shifts from a far object to a near object, pupils restrict

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46
Q

what is miosis and can cause it

A

excessive constriction of pupil, can be caused by a lesions anywhere along the sympathetic pathway

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47
Q

pupil constriction is controlled by the (sympathetic or parasympathetic) pathyway

A

parasympathtic

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48
Q

what is CN 3

A

occulomotor

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49
Q

what is hyperopia and myopia

A

hyperopia = farsighted
myopia = near sighted

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50
Q

what may cause a sudden, painless, unilateral loss of vision

A

vitreous hemorrhage from diabetes or trauma, macular degeneration, retinal detachment, retinal vein occlusion, central artery occlusion

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51
Q

what are causes of sudden vision loss that is painful

A

corneal ulcer, uveitis, traumatic hyphema, acute angle closure glaucoma

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52
Q

what are some causes of painless bilateral vision loss

A

vascular etiologies, stroke, non physiologic causes

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53
Q

what are some causes of painful bilateral vision loss

A

intoxication, trauma, chemical or radiation exposure

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54
Q

what are some causes of gradual vision loss

A

cataracts, glaucoma, macular degeneration

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55
Q

what are some causes of gradual central vision loss

A

nuclear cataracts, macular degeneration

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56
Q

what causes gradual peripheral vision loss

A

advanced open angle glaucoma

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57
Q

what are scotomas

A

fixed defects in vision likely from lesion in retina, visual pathway or brain

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58
Q

what causes a red and painless eye

A

subconjunctival hemorrhage or episcleritis

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59
Q

what causes a red eye with a gritty sensation

A

viral conjunctivitis or dry eye

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60
Q

what causes a painful red eye

A

corneal abreasions, FB, corneal ulcers, acute angle closure glaucoma, herpes keratitis, fungal keratitis, hyphema, uveitis

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61
Q

what would you expect for a complain regarding vision to be of a patient with palsy of CN III, IV or VI

A

diploplia

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62
Q

what would cause eyelid retraction, restricted occular motility, occular pain, lacrimation and dry eye

A

thyroid disease

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63
Q

what visual test rules out optic nerve damage

A

color vision test

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64
Q

what is esotropia and exotropia

A

esoptropia = inward deviation of eyes
exotropia = outward deviation of eyes

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65
Q

what is hypertropia and hyoptropia

A

hypertropia = upward deviation of eyes
hypotropia = downward deviation of eyes

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66
Q

what is proptosis

A

abnormal protrusion of eyes

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67
Q

what causes scaly eyebrows

A

seborrheis dermatisis

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68
Q

what causes lateral sparesness of eyebrows

A

hypothyroidsim

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69
Q

what causes red, inflamed and crutying eyelids

A

blepharitis

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70
Q

what is lagophthalmos

A

failure of eyelids to close - urgent optho referral

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71
Q

what would cause dryness of the lacrimal apparatus

A

sjorgren syndrome

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72
Q

what is chemosis

A

nodules or swelling of conjunctiva

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73
Q

when shining a tangential lite across the iris, there is a crescent shadow on the opposite side of the iris. What does this indicate and what is the significance

A

indicated iris has bowed abnormally forward and is an increased risk for acute narrow angle glaucoma

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74
Q

what is strabismus

A

dysconjugate gaze

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75
Q

what is mydriasis

A

pupil dilation

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76
Q

what is the significance of an absent red reflex

A

cataracts, detached retina, mass, retinoblastoma

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77
Q

what is papilledema

A

optic nerve swelling from increased ICP like meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, trauma

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78
Q

what would you see on a fundoscopy exam with papilledem

A

swelling of optic disc and anterior bulging of physiologic cup

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79
Q

what are Drusen

A

occular cellular debris

80
Q

what is afferent pupillary defect or a marcus gunn pupil

A

light in the normal eyes causes constriction of both pupils and light in abnormal eyes causes partial dilation of both pupils
optic nerve damage in abnormal eye

81
Q

what condition would cause a fixed dilated pupile with severe pain and decreased vision

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

82
Q

what condition would cause a small and irregular pupile with photophobia and decreased vision

A

acute iritis

83
Q

what would cause a steamy or cloudy cornea

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

84
Q

what is bitemporal hemianopsia (optic chiasm) and what causes it

A

vision loss on the temporal or outer half of each eye
lesions at optic chiasm (pituitary tumor)

85
Q

what is left homonymous hemianopsia and what causes it

A

vision loss on the right or left side of both eyes.
caused by lesions of optic tract

86
Q

what is ptosis and what are some causes

A

drooping eyelid
myasthenia gravis, damage to CN III, horner syndrome

87
Q

what is entropion

A

inward turing of lif margin and lower lashes may irritate conjunctiva
more common in elderly

88
Q

what is trichaisis

A

inward growth of lashes but eyelid position remains normal

89
Q

what is ectropion

A

lower lid margin turns outward

90
Q

what are pinguecula

A

yellowish triangular nodule in conjunctiva to side of iris
harmless, comes with aging

91
Q

what is episcleritis

A

localized occular inflammation
bengign and usually painless, resolves spontaneously

92
Q

what is a chalazion

A

non tender, painless noduled that point inside the lid instead of on lid margin like a stye

93
Q

what is a xanthelasma

A

slightly raised, yellowing, well circumscribed cholesterol filled plaque along nasal protion of eyelids

94
Q

what is blepharitis

A

chronic inflammation of eyelids at base of hair follicles

95
Q

what is corneal arcus

A

this grayish white arc or circle edge of cornea, normal in aging

96
Q

what is the diagnosis if you see an opactiy of the lens when looking through the pupil

A

cataracts

97
Q

what is a kayser fleischer ring and what causes it

A

golden to red brown ring from copper deposition
from wilson disease

98
Q

what would cause a spoke like shadow in the eye

A

peripheral cataract

99
Q

what would cause a small unilateral pupil that reacts briskly to light but dilates slowly and large anisocoria

A

horner syndrome

100
Q

what is the classic triad of horner syndrome

A

miosis, ptsosis and anhidrosis

101
Q

what is argyll robertson pupils and what causes it

A

bilat small and irregular pupils with normal near test but do not react to light
causes by neurosyphilis

102
Q

what would diploplia persisting in one eye when the other is closed indicate

A

problem in the cornea or lens

103
Q

when would you see listing of the trunk

A

herniated disc

104
Q

What causes physiologic cupping

A

glaucoma

105
Q

what are you testing when you test confrontation

A

peripheral vision

106
Q

what would demonstrate accomodation of the eyes

A

eyes dilate looking further away and constrict looking close up

107
Q

what does the the cover uncover test test for

A

strabismus (looking for lazy eye)

108
Q

during the cover uncover test, is it normal to see the uncovered eye move or focus on you once you cover up the other eye

A

no

109
Q

what is the name for flame shaped red streaks in fundi and what causes it

A

superifical retinal hemorrhages, caused by HTN, papilledema

110
Q

what are cotton wool spots in the fundi

A

soft exudates that are white or grayish caused by DM and vascular dysplasia

111
Q

what parts of the ear have conductive hearing loss and what parts have sensorineural hearing loss

A

external and middle aar are conductive
inner ear is sensorineural

112
Q

in normal hearing, is air condition or bone conduction longer

A

air conduction

113
Q

complaining that others mumble, and noisy environment making hearing worse is conductive or sensorinueral hearing loss

A

sensorineural

114
Q

what kind of hearing loss would noisy environments making hearing better

A

conductive

115
Q

what are the 3 typical symptoms of meinier disease

A

tinnitus
fluctuating hearing loss
vertigo

116
Q

what is the tug test

A

moving auricle and tragus is painful on OE but not in OM

117
Q

what would cause pain on palpation behind the ear

A

OM and mastoiditis

118
Q

what causes painful hemorrhagic vesciles on the TM and what is the management

A

bullous myringitis, urgent surgical management

119
Q

what are osteomas or exostoses

A

non painful skin colored nodules in the ear

120
Q

when would you seen a prominent short process and prominent handle of malleus in the ear

A

retracted TM

121
Q

what test is used to test for lateralization of hearing

A

weber test

122
Q

how you do you determine conductive vs sensinureal hearing loss with the weber test

A

in conductive, sound is heard better in impaired ear, in sensorineural, sound is heard better in good ear

123
Q

what test is used to compare a conduction to bone conduction hearing

A

rinne test

124
Q

what would the findings of the rinne test be in conductive hearing loss

A

BC=AC or BC>AC

125
Q

what would the fingings of the rinne teste be in sensorineural hearing loss

A

AC>BC

126
Q

what is the main difference between peripheral vertigo caused by BPPV and vestibular neuronitis

A

BPPV lasts a few seconds, vestibular neuronitis is hours to weeks

127
Q

true or false acute labrinthitis does not affect hearing

A

false, it can cause unilateral sensorineural hearing loss

128
Q

what would a raised nodule with a lustrous surface on or near the ear indicate

A

basal cell carcinoma

129
Q

what is a monomer of the TM

A

thin transparent section of previous perf that has healed

130
Q

what would cause a black line in the gums

A

lead poisoning

130
Q

what is the name for a bony benign growth on the roof of the mouth

A

palanitus

131
Q

paralysis to what cranial nerve would cause one side of the soft palate to note rise and uvula deviation

A

cranial nerve X paralysis

132
Q

what condition causes skin softening at the angles of the mouth and then fissuring

A

angular cheilitis

133
Q

what causes lips to lose normal redness, become scaly and thick and slightly everted

A

actinic cheilitis, precancerous from excessive sunlight

134
Q

what causes the throat to be dull red with a thin grey exudative membrane

A

diptheria

135
Q

what causes deep purple colored lesions on the roof of the mouth

A

kaposi sarcoma

136
Q

fever, pharyngeal exudate and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy are a classic triad of what condition

A

mononucleosis

137
Q

what would cause palatal petichia and splenic enlargement

A

mononucleosis

138
Q

when pushing down on outstretched arms and checking strength, what are you testing

A

supraspinatus tendon

139
Q

what does the empty can test test for

A

supraspinatus

140
Q

with elbows bent and hands in suppination, getting pt to resist you pushing their hands together tests what

A

infraspinatus and teres major

141
Q

what does the lift off test test for

A

subscalpularis

142
Q

what are the 3 tests for shoulder impingement

A

neers, empty can test, hawkins kennedy test

143
Q

what is the neers test and what does it test for

A

internall rotate (turn palm facing outward) and lift hand above head forward, if it replicates pain it indicates impingement

144
Q

what is speeds test

A

resist forward flexion of arm, checks biceps tendon

145
Q

reduced active and passive ROM of the shoulder, asymmetry of the scapula, and pain along the trapezius is from what

A

adhesive capsulitis

146
Q

cross arm adduction test is for what

A

tests for AC joint pathology

147
Q

what does thompson test for and how to you do it

A

achilles tendon rupture, squeeze calf while pt is lying on stomach, if ruptured the feet wont flex

148
Q

what is the type of pain produced by organs forcefully contracting

A

visceral

149
Q

what type of pain is steady, aching, severe and caused by inflammation of the peritoneum

A

somatic

150
Q

what disease causes metaplastic changes in the esophageal lining from normal squamous to columnar epithelium

A

barrets esophagus

151
Q

what is xerostomia

A

insufficient saliva

152
Q

what is the Rome IV criteria

A

criteria for constipation

153
Q

what is the difference between primary and seconday constipation

A

primary no cause, secondary has a cause

154
Q

what condition causes pink or purple striae on the abdomen

A

cushing syndrome

155
Q

what conditions may cause dilated abdo verins

A

cirrhosis or IVC obstruction

156
Q

the spleen is palpable below the costal margin, is this a normal finding

A

no this indicates splenic enlargement

157
Q

duodenal or gastric ulcers are more painful and may wake pt at night

A

duodenal

158
Q

what causes epigastric and RUQ pain that radiated to right shoulder and worsened by fatty meals

A

biliary colic

159
Q

what causes severe epigatric pain that radiates into back and other parts of the abdo that is worsened with movement

A

pancreatitis

160
Q

what causes vague nonspecific abdo pain that is out of proportion to the physical exam

A

meesenteric ischemia

161
Q

OA or RA gets worse with pain and improves with rest

A

OA

162
Q

OA or RA causes subcutaneous nodules

A

RA

163
Q

what are the SITS muscles

A

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

164
Q

what kind of injury would cause infraspinatus atrophy

A

rotator cuff injury

165
Q

what causes scapular winging

A

weak trapezius from muscular dysptrophy

166
Q

what does the scratch test for

A

adhesive capsulitis

167
Q

what is the painful arc test and what does it test for

A

lifting arm all the way to 180 degrees and if pain at 60-120 degrees, positive for subacromial impingement or rotator cuff tenditnitis

168
Q

what test is used to test the AC joint independenlty

A

crossover

169
Q

what test is used for bicep tendinitis

A

speeds test

170
Q

what test is used to test for GH instability

A

apprehension

171
Q

what tests are used to test the supraspinatus muscle

A

drop arm and empty can

172
Q

how do you test the infrapsinatus and teres minor

A

external rotation against resistance

173
Q

how do you test the subscapularis

A

lift off

174
Q

varus stress is used on what ligaments and puts pressure towards the medial or lateral side

A

the lateral or radial ligament of elbow and knee, put stress pushing towards medial side

175
Q

the valgus stress tests what ligaments and puts pressure towards the medical or lateral side

A

the medial or ulnar collateral ligament of elbow and knee, put pressure outward or towards the lateral side

176
Q

what bone in the wrist has decreased blood supply and can have impaired healing and how is it teseted

A

scaphoid or navicular bone, tested with snuff box tenderness

177
Q

what is an important test to do on the wrist after a FOOSH fall

A

snuff box tenderness

178
Q

what is the name of the test when you tap over the palmar aspect of the wrist and what does it test for

A

tinells test, carpal tunnel

179
Q

how do you do phalens test and what does it test for

A

backs of hands together and hold for 60 seconds

180
Q

what is the name of a lesions that is flat and <1cm

A

macule

181
Q

what are some examples of macules

A

freckles, flat moles, port wine stains

182
Q

what is the name of a lesions that is flat and >1cm

A

patch

183
Q

what is the name of a lesions that is solid, elevated and <1cm

A

papule

184
Q

what are some examples of papules

A

nevi, warts, seborrheic keratosis, actinic keratoses

185
Q

what is the name of a lesion that is elevated, solid and >1cm

A

plaque

186
Q

what is a condition that would have plaques

A

psoriasis

187
Q

what s lichenification

A

hardening of the skin from excessive itching

188
Q

what does mcmury test test for and how do you do it

A

knee bent, rotate knee out or in and extend looking for clicking or pain
checks for meniscus in knee

189
Q

what does the valgus stress test at the knee test for

A

tests the MCL

190
Q

what does the varus stress test at the knee test for

A

tests the LCL

191
Q

does glaucoma cause the physiologic cup to enlarge or shrink

A

enlarge

192
Q

what skin condition causes hard and keratotic scaling

A

actinic keratoses and SCC

193
Q

a pink patch of skin that does not heal may be what kind of skin condition

A

BCC

194
Q

what might a dry, sandpaper, skin colored or light brown lesion be

A

actinic keratosis

NURS 518 (15 decks)

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