Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS 518 > 526 Neuro > Flashcards

526 Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

secondary or primary headaches are most common

A

primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

trigeminal autonomic cephaligias (TAC) are primary or secondary headaches

A

primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what type of headache has a relationship with epilepsy, depression, raynaud, and cardiac shunting

A

migraines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is a fortification spectrum

A

aura that presents as jagged lines like in a stone fortification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cluster headaches are what time of primary headache

A

TAC (trigeminal autonomic cephalagias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what type of headache would present with a partial horner sign? what would that look like?

A

cluter/TAC
ptosis of eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does the acronym SNOOP stand for

A

for serious headaches
systemic symptoms
neuro signs
older >50
onset new or progressive
previous history (first or different from others)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

why might you do a CBC, ESR or CRP, and TSH in a patient with headach

A

CBC - to exclude anemia
ESR or CRP - to exclude temporal arteritis
TSH - to exclude thyroid disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when would you consider preventative therapy for headaches

A

unable to deal with attacks
have more than 4 a month
headaches are prolonged or refractory to medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when might you use divalproex or topiramate in headache therapy

A

as a preventative for migraines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how does metoclopramide aid in headache treatment

A

treats n/v and aids in absorption of NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

true or false: if a triptan is ineffective as a headache treatment you should try a different class of medication

A

false, there are differences across brands so you may try a different triptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when should you use triptans with caution

A

cardiac disease patients as they are arterial constrictors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is 1st line and 2nd line therapy for severe headaches

A

1st = triptans
2nd = ergots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what should you be aware of when prescribing ergots

A

high potential for misuse and should premedicate with antiemetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is prevenatitive and abortive treatment for cluster headaches

A

preventatitve = verapamil/CCB or lithium
abortive = oxygen, analgesics, triptansw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the difference between primary and secondary trigeminal neuralgia

A

primary = vascular compression
secondary = neuro cause like MS, tumor, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the pain of trigeminal neuralgia is described as ___ in what location

A

burning, stabbing, sharp, shocky
in any branch of the trigeminal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when is trigeminal neuralgia more likely to be bilateral

A

with MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is a trigger zone in trigeminal neuralgia

A

one specific spot that pt can identify as where it sets off an attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

primary or secondary trigeminal neuralgia may have an abnormal corneal reflex

A

secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

true or false: trigeminal neuralgia will usually have an unremarkable physical exam

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when would you get diagnotic investigation for trigeminal neuralgia and what would you get

A

usually none needed unless considering a secondary cause
then get MRI to check for lesions or compression of CN5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is first and second line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A

first = anticonvulsants (carbamazepine)
second or add on = baclofen, lamotrigine, phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what needs to be monitored when patients are put on anticonvulsants

A

liver
CBC
Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what medication is used for trigeminal neuralgia for patients with MS

A

gabapentin or misoprostol

27
Q

how are acute attacks of trigeminal neuralgia treated

A

IV fosphenytoin
botox
sumatriptan
intranasal lidocaine

28
Q

when is surgical management considered for trigeminal neuralgia

A

not responding to pharmacological

29
Q

true or false: when initially diagnosing trigeminal neuralgia, referral to neurologist should be done to confirm

A

true

30
Q

which cranial nerve is affected in bells palsy

A

CN VII, the facial nerve

31
Q

acute unilateral weakness or paralysis of face that resolves in under 72 hours is indicative of what condition

A

bells palsy

32
Q

a neurological disorder that specifically spares the forehead muscles has what cause

A

upper motor neuron or central lesion

33
Q

a prodrome of pain behind unilateral ear, hyperacusis and dysgeusia is indicative of what condition

A

bells palsy

34
Q

what facial findings would you expect in bells palsy

A

smooth forehead
widened palpabral fissure
inability to close eye
flattened nasolabial fold
asymmetric smile

35
Q

true or false: bells palsy will only affect the lower portion of one side of the face

A

false, it will affect the full face both upper and lower, on one side

36
Q

what is the house-brackmann classification

A

classification of facial function to determine severity of bells palsy

37
Q

when would you consider an MRI for a suspected bells palsy

A

bilateral palsies
central nerve findings instead of peripheral
does not recover in 3 months

38
Q

what is the most important treatment goal in bells palsy

A

protecting the eye - eye lubricant, tape shut at night

39
Q

what medication is used to treat bells palsy

A

corticosteroids within 72 hours of symptoms onset

40
Q

what test is used to test sleep overnight

A

polysomnography

41
Q

true or false: trazadone, diphenhydramine and melatonin are all good first line options for insomnia

A

false, new guidelines suggest not to use these agents for sleep

42
Q

true or false: CPAP is more effective than surgery for managing OSA

A

true

43
Q

when might overnight PAP be recommended

A

for central sleep apnea

44
Q

what are the primary hypersomnias

A

narcolepsy
idiopathic
post traumatic

45
Q

what is the predominant characteristic of CNS hypersomnias

A

excessive daytime sleepiness not caused by disturbed nocturnal sleep

46
Q

what would reduced hypocretin levels in CSF indicate? when would you do this test

A

narcoplepsy
this test is not routinley done

47
Q

how is narcolepsy diagnosed

A

presence of sleep-onset REM on MSLT (multiple sleep latency test) after getting a normal polysomnography

48
Q

what is cataplexy and what condition is it associated with

A

sudden loss of muscle tone while awake
narcolepsy

49
Q

what types of medications are used to treat hypersomnias

A

stimulants
wakeful promoting agents
REM suppressing medication

50
Q

what REM suppressing agents are used to treat cataplexy

A

TCAs, SSRIs, SNRIs

51
Q

modafinil and armodafinil are what kind of medication and used to treat what

A

wakeful promoting agents
to treat central hypersomnias

52
Q

dextramphetamine and methylphenidate are what kind of medication and used to treat what

A

stimulants to treat central hypersomnias

53
Q

what are the 4 principle diagnostic criteria for RLS

A
  1. urge to move legs, usually with uncomfortable sensation
  2. urge worse during inactivity
  3. at least partially relieved with activity
  4. worsened or exclusive to the evening
54
Q

what blood work should be done for RLS and why

A

iron panel because low iron is associated with RLS

55
Q

true or false: first line treatment for RLS if pharmacotherapy

A

false, should not be used unless severe

56
Q

what 1st pharmacotherapy may be used for severe RLS

A

dopamine agonsits
pramipexole, rotigotine, ropinirole

57
Q

what pharmacotherapy may be used for RLS with concomitant neuropathy

A

gabapentin, pregabalin

58
Q

what are parasomnias

A

undesirable events or experiences related to sleep

59
Q

what is rem sleep behavior disorder and what type of sleep disorder is it

A

pt enacts dreams in a possibly dangerous fashion
parasomnia

60
Q

sleep terrors and sleep walking are what kind of sleep disorder

A

parasomnias

61
Q

RBD and nightmare disorder are an NREM or REM disorder

A

REM

62
Q

true or false: polysomnography is not needed for RBD

A

false

63
Q

what is the pharmacological treatment for RBD

A

clonazepam or melatonin

NURS 518 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions