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Phlebotomy > final > Flashcards

final Flashcards

1
Q

Drawing a patient’s blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of a. assault and battery b. breach of confidentiality c. invasion of privacy d. respondeat superior

A

a. assault and battery

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2
Q

Two phlebotomists are discussing a patient’ s condition in the elevator. They are overheard by the patient’ s daughter. This is an example of
a. Failure to exercise reasonable care b. Invasion of privacy c. Improper or unskilled care d. Mistreatment of patient

A

b. invasion of privacy

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3
Q

Which of the following would not violate a patient’s right to confidentiality?
a. Indicating the nature of a patient’s disease on the door b. Listing all HIV+ patients in the laboratory computer c. Sharing collection site information on a difficult patient d. Tracking a patient’s laboratory results on the bulletin board

A

c. sharing collection sire information on a difficult patient

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4
Q

Malpractice is a claim of

A. assault and battery. B. breach of confidentiality. C. improper treatment. D. invasion of privacy.

A

d. improper treatment

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5
Q

If a phlebotomist ________, he or she is negligent.
a. Reports obvious changes in patient condition b. Fails to put the needle in the sharps container c. Puts the bedrail in an upright position when leaving d. reports obvious changes in the patient’s condition

A

b. Fails to put the needle in the sharps container

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6
Q

A national organization that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures is the
a. ASCP b. NAACLS c. NCA d. CLSI

A

d. CLSI

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7
Q

Which action will compromise the quality of a specimen?
A. Drawing electrolytes in an amber tube B. Mixing a serum separator tube five times C. Partially filling a liquid EDTA tube D. Placing a cold agglutinin in a heat block

A

C. Partially filling a liquid EDTA tube

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8
Q

Which one of the following examples is unrelated to quality control?
A. Checking expiration dates of evacuated tubes B. Documenting maintenance on centrifuge C. Employees filling out their time sheets daily D. Recording refrigerator temperature daily

A

C. Employees filling out their time sheets daily

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9
Q

Chilling will adversely affect the quality of test results for which of the following analyte?
A. Ammonia B. Lactic Acid C. Potassium D. Renin

A

C. Potassium

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10
Q

The “standard of care” in the practice of phlebotomy is influenced by which of the following organization?
A. The Environmental Protection Agency B. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration C. The Health Insurance Privacy Agency D. The Joint Commission

A

D. The Joint commission

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11
Q

Three of the following conditions are reasons a specimen could be rejected for analysis, Which one is not?
A. A bilirubin specimen is icteric B. A CBC specimen contains clots C. A fasting glucose specimen is lipemic D. An electrolyte specimen is hemolyzed

A

A. A bilirubin specimen is icteric

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12
Q

The purpose of the Joint Commission’s Office of Quality Monitoring is to:
a. Evaluate and track complaints related to care b. Implement immediate response to safety issues c. Inspect healthcare facilities for accreditation c. Set specific patient safety goals to improve care

A

A. evaluate and track complaints related to care

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13
Q

Some test specimens require immediate cooling in ice and water slurry to
a. prevent activation of cold agglutinins b. prevent the specimen from clotting c. separate serum more completely d. slow down metabolic processes

A

d. slow down metabolic processes

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14
Q

True or False? A good way to avoid lawsuits is to consistently perform venipunctures as rapidly as possible so as to get the results to the physician quickly.

A

FALSE

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15
Q

True or False? Labeling of a specimen must be exact.

A

TRUE

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16
Q

What does the suffix of the term “glycolysis” mean?

a. against b. breakdown c. glucose d. living

A

b. breakdown

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17
Q

The medical term for white blood cell is

a. Erythrocyte b. Hepatocyte c. leukocyte d. thrombocyte

A

c. leukocyte

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18
Q

Which of the following terms mean kidney inflammation?

a. cystitis b. hepatitis c. nephritis d. neuritis

A

c. nephritis

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19
Q

The letter “g” is pronounced like a “j” in

a. gamete b. gestation c. glycolysis d. guaiac

A

b. gestation

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20
Q

The abbreviation “ ESR” means
a. Energy-saving respiration b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate c. Eosinophil survival response d. Estimated survival rate

A

c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

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21
Q

What word means “condition of clotting”?

a. homeostasis b. leukopenia c. thrombosis d. vasoconstriction

A

c. thrombosis

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22
Q

What word means “ hardening of the artery” ?

a. arteriopathy b. arteriosclerosis c. arteriospasm d. arteritis

A

b. Arterioslecerosis

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23
Q

A prefix
a. adds information about a term b. modifies the meaning of a term c. precedes the word root d. All of the above are correct

A

d. all of the above are correct

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24
Q

The word elements of the term “polycythemia” mean
A. blood condition of many cells. B. condition of large blood cells. C. lack of normal red blood cells. D. state of reduced blood cells.

A

a. blood condition of many cells

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25
Q

The “c” sounds like an “s” is which of the following terms?

a. coagulation b. cardiac c. cellular d. culture

A

c. cellular

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26
Q

The Joint commission “Do Not Use” list applies to all of the following except
a. electronic laboratory reports b. handwritten laboratory reports c. handwritten medication orders d. writing on preprinted forms

A

a. electronic laboratory reports

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27
Q

Which body plane divides the body into equal portions?

a. Frontal b. Midsagittal c. Cranial d.Transverse

A

b. midsagital

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28
Q

which of the following is a function of the urinary system a. to maintain electrolyte balance b. to receive environmental stimuli c. to remove CO2 from the body d. to return tissue fluid to the blood

A

to maintain electrolyte balance

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29
Q

Which of the following is a test of the urinary system?

a. Cholinesterase b. Creatine kinase c. Creatinine clearance d. Pleuracentesis

A

c. Creatinine kinase

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30
Q

The ability of the body to repair and maintain itself to achieve a “steady state” defines what term? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism C. Hemostasis D. Homeostasis

A

D. Homeostasis

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31
Q

Which of the following type of muscle is under voluntary control? A. Cardiac
B. Skeletal C. Smooth D. Visceral

A

B. Skeletal

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32
Q

Which of the following is a test of the respiratory system?

A. ABG B. CSF C. ETOH D. UA

A

A. ABG

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33
Q 
The term "distal" means 
A) farthest from the point of attachment. 
B) higher or above. 
C) nearest to the center of the body. 
D) toward the back.
A

A) farthest from the point of attachment

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34
Q

When you are facing someone in normal anatomic position, at which body plane are you looking? A. Frontal B. Midsagittal C. Sagittal D. Transverse

A

A. Frontal

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35
Q 
The layer(s) of the skin containing blood vessels is/are 
A. epidermis and dermis. B. epidermis only. C. dermis and subcutaneous. D. subcutaneous only.
A

C. dermis and subcutaneous.

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36
Q

The avascular layer of the skin is the

A. corium. B. dermis. C. epidermis. D. subcutaneous.

A

C. epidermis

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37
Q

Which gland is often called the “master gland” of the endocrine system?
A. Pineal B. Pituitary C. Thymus D. Thyroid

A

B. Pituitary

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38
Q

A specimen would most likely be accepted for testing despite this problem
a. expired evacuated tube b. incomplete identification c. no phlebotomist initials d. quantity not sufficient

A

c. No phlebotomist initials

39
Q

Which of the following is used by the laboratory to identify a specimen throughout the testing process
a. accession number b. hospital number c. mnemonic code d. password ID

A

a. accession number

40
Q

a pneumatic tube is a
a. pressurized air transportation system b. temporary computer data storage unit c. tube connection between two computers d. a type of collection tube for blood gases

A

a. pressurized air transportation system

41
Q

an example of pre analytical error happening during specimen processing is
a. faulty collection technique b. inadequate centrifugation c. insufficient specimen d. patient stress and anxiety

A

b. inadequate centrifugation

42
Q

transporting blood specimens with the stopper up has nothing to do with
a. encouraging complete clot formation b. maintaining the sterility of the sample c. minimizing stopper caused aerosols d. reducing agitation caused hemolysis

A

b. maintaing the sterility of the sample

43
Q

Which of the following would not be considered a preanalytical error?
a. failing to mix an additive tube b. mislabeling a aliquot tube c. misreporting patient results d. using the wrong order of draw

A

c. misreporting patient results

44
Q

which of the following specimens need to be chilled?

a. ammonia b. bilirubin c. cold agglutinin d. serum protein

A

a. ammonia

45
Q

this organization develops standards for specimen handling and processing
a. CDC b. CLIA c. CLSI d. FDA

A

c. CLSI

46
Q

According to CLSI, the maximum time limit for separating serum or plasma from cells is
a. 15 min from time of collection b. 30 min from TOC c. 1.0 hr from TOC d. 2.0 hr from TOC

A

d. 2.0 hrs from TOC

47
Q

which statement describes proper centrifuge operation?
a. centrifuge serum specimen before they start to form noticeable clots b. never centrifuge both serum and plasma specimens in the same centrifuge c. place tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another for balance d. remove evacuated tube stoppers before placing them in the centrifuge

A

c. place tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another for balance

48
Q

which specimen can be centrifuged immediately upon arrival in specimen processing
a. blood culture in an SPS tube b. calcium in a green top tube c. CBC in a lavender stopper tube d. Creatinine in an SST tube

A

b. calcium in a green top tube

49
Q

Which of the following represents improper aliquot preparation?
a. removing the stopper behind a splash shield b. carefully pouring the contents into a aliquot tube c. covering or capping the aliquot tube immediately d. none of the above

A

b. carefully pouring the contents into a aliquot tube

50
Q

T/F Accession takes place in central processing or triage

A

FALSE

51
Q

T/F “ASAP” or “Med Emerg” specimens must be attended to before routine specimens
true

A

TRUE

52
Q

What is the recommended procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine sample?

A

Void the first morning specimen, start the timing, and collect all other specimens including the next morning’s specimen.

53
Q

Which fluid is obtained by lumbar puncture?

A

Cerebrospinal

54
Q

What additional information is typically required when labeling a nonblood specimen?

A

special handling needs

55
Q

Which of the following tests requires a 24-hour urine specimen?

A

Creatinine clearance

56
Q

A refrigerated stool sample would be unsuitable for this test.

A

Ova and parasites

57
Q

A urine C&S is typically ordered to detect

A

Presence of UTI

58
Q

An NP culture swab is collected to detect the presence of organisms that cause

A

Whooping cough

59
Q

Drugs of abuse can be detected in

A

Hair, saliva and urine (All of the above)

60
Q

Which type of specimen must be protected from light?

A

Amniotic fluid

61
Q

Sputum samples are typically collected to diagnose

A

Tuberculosis

62
Q

This type of urine collection involves the aspiration of urine directly through the wall of the bladder using a sterile needle and syringe.

A

Suprapubic

63
Q

True or False? Part of a phlebotomist’s job may be to instruct a patient on how to collect a clean catch midstream urine specimen.
True

A

TRUE

64
Q

The artery of choice for ABG collection.

A

radial

65
Q

When performing the Allen test, which artery is released first?

A

Ulnar

66
Q

What happens to a ABG specimen left at room temperature for a prolonged period?

A

Blood cells continue to consume oxygen; continued metabolism proceduces acids and levels of carbon dioxide increase

67
Q

After performing a arterial puncture, check the pulse

A

distal to the puncture site

68
Q

Which of the following is the most common arterial puncture complication even when proper technique is used

A

Ateriospasm

69
Q

Which of the following patients would be considered to be in a “steady state” for ABG specimen collection?

A

A patient who has been asleep for 30 minutes while breathing room air

70
Q

Which of the following is the proper needle insertion angle for radial artery puncture?

A

45 degree

71
Q

Which of the following is the best way to tell that a specimen is arterial? As the specimen is collected, the blood should

A

pulse into the syringe

72
Q

A proper cleaning solution for preparing an aterial puncture site is

A

isopropyl alcohol

73
Q

True or False? It is safe to draw an ABG specimen from a limb that has an A-V Shunt or fistula.

A

FALSE

74
Q

True or False? The ulnar artery is the first choice for drawing and ABG specimen.

A

FALSE

75
Q

True or False? To perform ABG punctures, a phlebotomist must under extensive training.

A

TRUE

76
Q

True or False? ABG pretreated with EDTA to prevent clotting.

A

FALSE

77
Q

True of False? The normal needle size for ABG collection is 20 gauge.

A

FALSE

78
Q

Another name for blood bank is?

A

Immunohematology

79
Q

With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

Pharmacy

80
Q

Electrolyte testing includes?

A

sodium, potassium

81
Q

Promoting good public relations is part of the pantomimist’s role because?

A

Promoting good public relations is part of the pantomimist’s role because?
A phlebotomist is representative of the laboratory throughout the facility.
Good public relations promotes a harmonious relationship with the staff.
Patients often equate venipuncture experiences with the overall hospital care.

82
Q

Which department is responsible for administering oxygen therapy?

A

Respiratory Therapy

83
Q

The term ‘phlebotomy’ is derived from Greek words that literally translated mean?

A

Vein Incision

84
Q

Which of the following is not a phlebotomist’s duty?

A

Starting intravenous (IV) lines.

85
Q

What are the credentials for an ASCP-certified phlebotomist?

A

PBT

86
Q

Proof of participation in workshops to upgrades skills required by some agencies to renew certification is called?

A

CEUs

87
Q

Which of the following is an example of barrier to effective communication with a patient? The patient

A

Does not speak English

88
Q

Which of the following is an example of confirming response to a patient?

A

I understand how you must be feeling.

89
Q

Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics?

A

Frowing

90
Q

Which of the following communicates unprofessionalism?

A

Intense odor of cologne

91
Q

It is improper telephone protocol to?

A

Hang up on angry callers

92
Q

Which duty is not performed by local public health agencies?

A

Licensure of healthcare personnel

93
Q

The federal law that defines the responsibilities of medical laboratory personnel is the?

A

CLIA (Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988)

Phlebotomy (14 decks)

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