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Instrument Written > Federal aviation regulations > Flashcards

Federal aviation regulations Flashcards

1
Q

A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least

A

an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft

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2
Q

What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?

A

All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions

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3
Q

If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12,500 feet MSL, but not more than 14,000 feet MSL, for a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flight crew required to use supplemental oxygen?

A

1 hour 50 minutes

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4
Q

Your transponder is inoperative. What are the requirements for flying in Class D airspace?

A

continue the flight as planned

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5
Q

What is the oxygen requirement for an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?

A

Crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15,000 feet

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6
Q

What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?

A

15,000 feet

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7
Q

What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?

A

After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

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8
Q

Which of the following is an example of an urgency situation?

A

After deviating for weather you are not sure you have enough fuel to reach your destination

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9
Q

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

A

when priority has been given

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10
Q

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?

A

Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments

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11
Q

For aircraft other than helicopters, under what conditions are you not required to list an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan if 14 CFR part 97 prescribes a standard IAP for the destination airport?

A

When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport

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12
Q

No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least

A

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check

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13
Q

Which is the maximum tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the aircraft is directly over the airborne checkpoint?

A

plus or minus 6 degree of the designated radial

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14
Q

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A

two way communications and Mode C transponder

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15
Q

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

A

Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible

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16
Q

After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?

A

6 months

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17
Q

Which altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace?

A

60,000 feet MSL

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18
Q

An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR unless the pilot

A

passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector

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19
Q

Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?

A

pilot in command

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20
Q

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

A

the only standard approach procedure is GPS

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21
Q

The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from

A

18,000 feet to including FL 600

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22
Q

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two way radio communications failure?

A

Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA

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23
Q

When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished when used to operate under IFR?

A

within the preceding 30 days

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24
Q

The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated under

A

IFR

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25
Q

The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating

A

under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight, or in Class A airspace

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26
Q

Which of the following is required equipment for operating an airplane within Class B airspace?

A

a 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment

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27
Q

When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before

A

entering Class E airspace

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28
Q

To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to

A

entering controlled airspace

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29
Q

You may cancel an IFR flight plan

A

if in VMC outside Class A airspace

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30
Q

What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace will exist? (Does not include airspace less than 1,200 feet AGL)

A

14,500 feet MSL

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31
Q

What is the standard floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway?

A

1,200 feet AGL

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32
Q

What is the floor of Class A airspace

A

18,000 feet MSL

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33
Q

Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?

A

176 TO and 003 FROM, respectively

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34
Q

While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?

A

4 degree the two indicated bearings to a VOR

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35
Q

A pilot or crew may not perform any activities except those required to safely operate the aircraft during

A

critical phases of flight

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36
Q

Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?

A

only in the chart supplement

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37
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding flight under IFR using the Part 68 BasicMed requirements?

A

BasicMed privileges may be used by private pilots for IFR flight at altitudes of not more than 18,000 feet MSL

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38
Q

What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR/Localizer/Glideslope capability, and the No. 2 has only VOR/Localizer capability

A

report the malfunction immediately to ATC

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39
Q

Who is responsible for determining that the VOR equipment has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?

A

pilot in command

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40
Q

When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?

A

4 between the two indicated bearings of a VOR

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41
Q

Enroute weather conditions are IMC. However, during the descent to your destination for an ILS approach, you encounter VMC weather conditions prior to reaching the initial approach fix. You know that to log the ILS approach toward instrument currency requirements,

A

the ILS approach can be credited only if you use a view limiting device and log the name of the safety pilot

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42
Q

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?

A

VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months

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43
Q

What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?

A

Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used

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44
Q

What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on top in a non radar environment?

A

The same reports that are required for any IFR flight

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45
Q

Which procedure should you follow if you experience two way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix)

A

Depart the holding fix at the EFC time

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46
Q

During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should

A

not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance

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47
Q

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including:

A

the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing data

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48
Q

What does declaring minimum fuel to ATC imply?

A

Merly an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur

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49
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan

A

and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace

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50
Q

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?

A

600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA

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51
Q

Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?

A

when leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach

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52
Q

A pilot’s recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?

A

December 31, this year

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53
Q

What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?

A

Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

54
Q

To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to

A

entering controlled airspace

55
Q

For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?

A

ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles respectively

56
Q

An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished within

A

24 calendar months

57
Q

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

A

The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected

58
Q

What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?

A

The approaches may be made in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device

59
Q

Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command on an airplane in IMC if you hold a private pilot certificate with ASEL, rotorcraft category, with helicopter class rating and instrument helicopter rating?

A

No, you must hold either an unrestricted airline transport pilot airplane certificate or an airplane instrument rating

60
Q

What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?

A

700 feet AGL

61
Q

What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the pilot making the VOR operational check?

A

the date, place, bearing error, and signature

62
Q

In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for a particular airport be found?

A

chart supplement

63
Q

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?

A

fixes selected to define the route

64
Q

To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, in the same category of aircraft?

A

holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems and 6 instrument approaches

65
Q

Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two way radio communications failure?

A

continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable

66
Q

To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 calendar months you need

A

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category of aircraft

67
Q

For which speed variation should you notify ATC?

A

when the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater

68
Q

When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?

A

600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility

69
Q

Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?

A

NTSB part 830

70
Q

What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?

A

10,000 feet MSL

71
Q

To meet the requirements for flight under IFR, an aircraft must be equipped with certain operable instruments and equipment. One of those required is

A

a clock with sweep second pointer or digital presentation

72
Q

When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?

A

When operating in a Class A airspace

73
Q

What are the normal lateral limits for Class D airspace?

A

4 NM

74
Q

What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?

A

Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft

75
Q

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the airplane is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

A

Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4 of that radial with a FROM indication

76
Q

Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?

A

2,500 feet AGL

77
Q

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from within the outer area of Class C airspace?

A

separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft

78
Q

What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be meet before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?

A

A minimum of six instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved simulator (airplane) or ground trainer, within the preceding 6 calendar months

79
Q

During the enroute phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised Radar service terminated. What action is appropriate?

A

resume normal position reporting

80
Q

When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within Class B airspace?

A

A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight

81
Q

What is the maximum indicated airspeed that pilot using BasicMed privileges may fly IFR?

A

250 knots

82
Q

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read

A

within 6 of the selected radial

83
Q

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?

A

800 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility

84
Q

Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?

A

Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace

85
Q

While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under

A

VFR and land as soon as practicable

86
Q

When your aircraft is equipped with a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS, an airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

A

the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate

87
Q

When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within Class B airspace?

A

A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight

88
Q

When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?

A

The landing minimums for the approach to be used

89
Q

When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?

A

At all times if the equipment has been calibrated unless requested otherwise by ATC

90
Q

What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?

A

12,500 feet

91
Q

The aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace

A

No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace

92
Q

During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

A

Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent and approach as close as possible to the ETA.

93
Q

You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single engine airplane within a 25 mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to possess at least which rating(s)?

A

A commercial pilot certificate with a single engine and instrument (airplane) rating

94
Q

In addition to a VOR receiver and two way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?

A

An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability

95
Q

In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above

A

10,000 feet MSL

96
Q

When using non-WAAS GPS for navigation and instrument approaches to a destination with only RNAV (GPS) approaches, and required alternate airport must have

A

an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS

97
Q

Where is DME required under IFR?

A

At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required

98
Q

In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue

A

the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical

99
Q

To meet instrument experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61, section 61.57(c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions. What other qualifying information must be entered?

A

location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot

100
Q

An aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91 IFR is required to have which of the following?

A

Gyroscopic direction indicator

101
Q

Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by

A

January 31, 2 years hence

102
Q

If the aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace,

A

ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination

103
Q

You are in IMC and have two way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?

A

set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher

104
Q

Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?

A

Place of operation check, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature

105
Q

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the

A

minimums specified for the approach procedure selected.

106
Q

How may a pilot satisfy the recent instrument experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft?

A

Log six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems

107
Q

How long does a pilot meet the recency of experience requirements for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument proficiency check if no further IFR flights are made?

A

6 calendar months

108
Q

A pilot may satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft by logging within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight

A

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems

109
Q

What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using a VOT?

A

Plus or minus 4

110
Q

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot and command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must

A

be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed

111
Q

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace

A

at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL

112
Q

When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?

A

Flight into Class A airspace

113
Q

What are the requirements to log an ILS approach in VMC conditions for instrument currency?

A

The ILS approach can be credited only if you use a view limiting device and log the name of the safety pilot

114
Q

Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?

A

For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan

115
Q

What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?

A

The carrying of passengers for hire on cross country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited

116
Q

What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight planned ETA? Fue to fly to the first airport of intended landing

A

fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

117
Q

Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least

A

A slip skid indicator

118
Q

A request for a deviation from the 4096 code transponder equipment requirement, when operating in Class B airspace, must be submitted to the

A

controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight

119
Q

Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?

A

entering controlled airspace when IMC exists

120
Q

When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the

A

360 radial

121
Q

The sterile cockpit rule is good practice not just for airline pilots but for all pilots because

A

it greatly reduces distractions during critical phases of flight

122
Q

During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after you estimated time of arrival is 3000 feet scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing

A

then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

123
Q

An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will

A

allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions

124
Q

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

A

the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored

125
Q

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?

A

From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2000 and visibility 3 miles

126
Q

What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?

A

600 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility

127
Q

When are you required to establish communications with the tower, (Class D airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?

A

before entering Class D airspace

128
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?

A

The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR

129
Q

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

A

Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4 of that radial with a FROM indication

130
Q

When is an IFR flight plan required?

A

In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace

Instrument Written (10 decks)

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