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Instrument Written > AIM > Flashcards

AIM Flashcards

1
Q

On the run up pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control:
CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED - MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND - SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE - DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER.
An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the

A

destination airport and route

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2
Q

How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

A

Properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly

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3
Q

Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be

A

higher than actual, leading to a lower than normal approach

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4
Q

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

A

safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

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5
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?

A

The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation

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6
Q

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?

A

When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR

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7
Q

Runway hold position markings on the taxiway

A

identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway

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8
Q

What does ATC term Radar Contact signify?

A

your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated

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9
Q

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment)

A

Destination airport, altitude, DP name, Number, and/or transition, if appropriate

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10
Q

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

A

You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions

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11
Q

Where are VFR on top operations prohibited?

A

In Class A airspace

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12
Q

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A

Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach

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13
Q

When on a VFR on top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on

A

magnetic course

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14
Q

Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

A

Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected

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15
Q

What is meant when departure control instructs you to resume own navigation after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?

A

You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment

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16
Q

What is expected of you as a pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?

A

Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you

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17
Q

What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions

A

to see and avoid other traffic

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18
Q

The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions

A

must be suppressed and complete reliance planed on the indications of the flight instruments

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19
Q

A CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

A

vacate 4000 feet without notifying ATC

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20
Q

During a flight, the controller advises traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound. The pilot is holding 20 correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

A

40 to the right of the aircraft’s nose

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21
Q

Having appropriate instrument lighting will

A

enable better recognition of outside references

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22
Q

When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?

A

When assigned a VFR on top clearance

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23
Q

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads CRUISE SIX THOUSAND?

A

It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6000.

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24
Q

Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause

A

coriolis illusion

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25
Q

When may you obtain a contact approach?

A

ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile

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26
Q

What is the pilot in command’s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment)

A

Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots

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27
Q

A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

A

in lieu of conducting a SIAP

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28
Q

An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of

A

tumbling backwards

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29
Q

If operating on an IFR flight plan and cleared for VFR on top are you still IFR?

A

Yes

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30
Q

What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating in Class G airspace less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours?

A

1 mile visibility; clear of clouds

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31
Q

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the taxiway direction sign indicates

A

destination and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

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32
Q

The primary purposes of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide

A

rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility

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33
Q

Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?

A

Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions

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34
Q

ATC has approved your request for VFR on top while on an IFR clearance. Therefore, you

A

must fly appropriate VFR altitudes

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35
Q

When flying a GPS route on an IFR flight below 18,000 feet, how is the altimeter normally set?

A

Using the setting provided by ATC within 100 NM of the aircraft

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36
Q

Pilot fatigue is

A

hazardous because it leads to a decrease in the ability to carry out tasks

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37
Q

Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

A

rely on the indications of the flight instruments

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38
Q

What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?

A

An upsloping runway

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39
Q

What in flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours?

A

1 mile visibility; 1000 feet above; 2000 feet horizontally; 500 feet below

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40
Q

How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower of flight service station (FSS) on the field?

A

Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility

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41
Q

What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours?

A

1 mile visibility; clear of clouds

42
Q

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9500 feet MSL with a VFR on top clearance during daylight hours?

A

3 SM, 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2000 feet horizontal

43
Q

An abbreviated departure clearance CLEARED AS FILED will always contain the name

A

of the destination airport filed in the fight plan

44
Q

The runway hold position sign denotes

A

an entrance to runway from a taxiway

45
Q

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between

A

500 feet per minute and 1500 feet per minute

46
Q

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

A

Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification

47
Q

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes or more than 1000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?

A

As rapidly as practicable to 1000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude

48
Q

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads CRUISE SIX THOUSAND

A

Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6000 feet at the pilot’s discretion

49
Q

Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of

A

rising or falling

50
Q

One alcoholic drink (one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer, or four ounces of wine) can be detected in the breath and blood for at least

A

3 hours

51
Q

A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if

A

body signals are used to interpret flight attitude

52
Q

A flight is to be conducted in VFR on top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1200 feet AGL). What is the in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours?

A

5 miles visibility; 1000 feet above; 1 mile horizontally; 1000 feet below

53
Q

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

A

Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower

54
Q

Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?

A

DPs, STARs, and visual approaches

55
Q

Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on top clearance?

A

VFR and IFR

56
Q

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?

A

arrows leading to the threshold mark

57
Q

In which airspace is VFR on top operation prohibited?

A

Class A airspace

58
Q

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?

A

Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute

59
Q

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?

A

REIL

60
Q

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to RESUME OWN NAVIGATION. This phrase means that

A

you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation

61
Q

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that

A

the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time

62
Q

Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?

A

When the pilot requests it

63
Q

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?

A

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

64
Q

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

A

name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude

65
Q

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

A

beyond the jet’s touchdown point

66
Q

Upon exiting a runway, which yellow lines painted across the taxiway should you cross?

A

all 4 lines

67
Q

If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to maintain VFR conditions on top, the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the

A

magnetic course

68
Q

You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

A

Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility

69
Q

Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because

A

of the high angle of attack and high gross weight

70
Q

What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR on top clearance?

A

any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions

71
Q

The best way to counter the effects of spatial disorientation is to

A

trust your flight instruments and disregard your sensory perceptions

72
Q

The no entry sign identifies

A

paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited

73
Q

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

A

when departing from a runway intersection

74
Q

The middle and far bars of a 3 bar VASI will

A

constitute a 2 bar VASI for using the upper glidepath

75
Q

If you are performing a VFR practice instrument approach and radar approach control assigns an altitude or heading that cause you to enter the clouds, what action should you take?

A

advise unable and remain clear of clouds

76
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR on top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace)

A

5 SM, 1000 feet above, 1000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal

77
Q

What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours?

A

5 miles visibility; 1000 feet above; 1 mile horizontally; 1000 feet below

78
Q

What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?

A

even thousand foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA

79
Q

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

A

Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal

80
Q

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

A

light quartering tailwind

81
Q

Tunnel vision and cyanosis are symptoms of

A

hypoxia

82
Q

You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR on top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions)

A

an even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet

83
Q

What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?

A

The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds

84
Q

What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?

A

the upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway

85
Q

What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

A

The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist

86
Q

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of

A

being in a nose up attitude

87
Q

What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR on top clearance?

A

Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected

88
Q

The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that

A

the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace

89
Q

When can a VFR-on-Top clearance be assigned by ATC?

A

Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable

90
Q

Which ATC clearance should instrument-rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?

A

To VFR-on-Top

91
Q

When operating under IFR with a VFR-On-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?

A

A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC

92
Q

Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur

A

During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture

93
Q

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

A

If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.

94
Q

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as

A

white and the far bar as red

95
Q

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the aircraft reaches the MDA, the pilot should

A

level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.

96
Q

A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as

A

false horizons

97
Q

How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

A

Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.

98
Q

Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight

A

Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level

99
Q

What is the rule for a pilot receiving a “Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?

A

The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions

100
Q

While on an instrument flight plan, ATC gives you a clearance to “…CRUISE SEVEN THOUSAND…” while headed eastbound with an MEA of 5,000 feet. Which statement is correct?

A

You may choose any intermediate altitude between 7,000 feet and the MEA

101
Q

If you request and are approved for VFR-on-Top, this means you

A

must continue to follow IFR rules and procedures, but maintain VMC at VFR altitudes

Instrument Written (10 decks)

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