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FCOM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Page 45 What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn on a 767-300 ? How about the wingspan and length ?

A

146 feet, 156.1, 180.3

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2
Q

Pg 67 what lights are controlled by the override switch ?

A

ON – overrides normal controls and illuminates the following lights at maximum brightness:
• forward panel flood lights
• illuminated indicator lights
• glareshield flood lights
• aisle stand flood lights
• dome lights

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3
Q

Pg 68 what does the inner and outer knob do on each switch ?

A

Inner glare shield : controls glareshield flood light brightness
Outer glare shield : controls glareshield panel light brightness
Outer aisle stand: controls the aisle stand instrument panel light brightness
Inner aisle stand: controls the aisle stand flood light brightness.

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4
Q

Pg 69 Indicator light test switch test what lights

A

Initiates an indicator lights test
• Lights illuminate at the intensity selected by the Indicator Lights
selector
• Tests the ADI and HSI displays if the airplane is on the ground
• Illuminates the IRS data display characters

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5
Q

Pg 71 what lights does the panel knob control ?

A

left controls left forward and center forward instrument panel lights and standby magnetic compass brightness
right controls right forward panel lights brightness

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6
Q

Pg 74 how does the armed position work on the emergency lights switch ?

A

OFF – prevents emergency lights system operation if airplane electrical power
fails or is turned off.
ARMED – all emergency lights illuminate if airplane electrical power fails or is turned off.
ON – all emergency lights illuminate.

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7
Q

Pg 91 How is oxygen supplied with the different switch positions on the mask

A

N – supplies an air/oxygen mixture on demand (the ratio depends on cabin
altitude).
100% – supplies 100% oxygen on demand (not an air/oxygen mixture).
EMERGENCY position (rotate in the direction of the arrow) – supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes (protects against smoke and harmful vapors).

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8
Q

Pg118 what doors can give you a CAUTION message ?

A

FWD CARGO DOOR 767-300

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9
Q

Pg 125 what happens when you move compartment control to off

A

• closes the compartment trim air valve
• the compartment temperature INOP light illuminates.

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10
Q

Pg 125 what does a pack INOP light mean ?

A

the pack is overheated
fault in the automatic control system.

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11
Q

Pg126 explain the position of the pack selector in the standby N and W position ?

A

• N (normal) – regulates the pack outlet temperature to a constant, moderate temperature.
• W (warm) – sets the pack to full warm operation.

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12
Q

Pg 126 what are lowest temperatures for the FWD and AFT cabin in the selector positions ?

A

65 f Animal and 35 f perishables

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13
Q

Pg 127 Explain each position of the equipment cooling selector switch

A

AUTO – automatically controls equipment cooling system.
STBY – positions equipment cooling system for inboard air flow.
OVRD – positions equipment cooling system for reverse air flow.

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14
Q

Pg 128 explain the no cooling light

A

Illuminated (amber) –
active in OVRD only
no reverse air flow through the E/E compartment avionics.

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15
Q

Pg128 Explain what causes the OVHT light to illuminate ? How about the SMOKE light ?

A

high temperature or low airflow in the equipment cooling system.
smoke in the equipment cooling system.

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16
Q

Pg128 what does the cargo switch selected ON operate or provide ? What does the OVHT light illuminated mean ?

A

provides power for heat valves to cycle open and closed for automatic temperature control

• cargo compartment temperature above standard control range
• shutoff valve signaled closed

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17
Q

Pg 133 what does the DUCT LEAK,BLEED and OVHT lights illuminated mean ?

A

a high temperature bleed air leak is detected in the left, right, or engine strut pneumatic duct.

the engine high pressure bleed air valve and/or pressure regulating valves are open when they should be closed.

• engine bleed air overtemp
• engine bleed valves automatically closed.

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18
Q

Pg 145 Bleed air can be supplied by the engines, APU, or a ground air source. Bleed air is used for:

A

• air conditioning
• pressurization
• engine start
• wing and engine anti-ice
• center hydraulic system air driven pump (ADP)
• hydraulic reservoir pressurization
-300 thrust reversers

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19
Q

Pg 147 what EICAS caution messages can display when the DUCT LEAK light illuminates on the bleed panel ?

A

DUCT LEAK, BODY DUCT LEAK or STRUT DCT LEAK displays when a high temperature bleed air leak is detected.

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20
Q

Pg 147 If a engine OVHT light is illuminated and strut duct leak exists what system will you lose ?

A

The engine cowl anti Ice system

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21
Q

Pg 151 what are the air system CAUTION EICAS messages ?

A

L BLD DUCT LEAK
R BLD DUCT LEAK
BODY DUCT LEAK
CABIN AUTO INOP
FWD EQPT COOLING
L STRUT DCT LEAK
R STRUT DCT LEAK
7 in total

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22
Q

Pg 159 probe heat lights are illuminated when ?

A

probe is not being heated in flight or neither engine is
running on the ground.

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23
Q

Pg 171 what does the FD switch activate

A

Flight director steering indications on their respective flight mode annunciator (FMA).

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24
Q

Pg172 In flight with the autopilot disengaged and both F/D switches OFF, the first F/Ds switch positioned to ON engages the flight director in which pitch and roll mode ( shown on the FMA )

A

V/S as the pitch mode and HDG HOLD as the roll mode

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25
Pg 173 Selecting a autopilot will engage which modes ?
767-323 if either F/D switch is ON, the autopilot engages in the selected flight director mode(s) 767-200 and 767-338 if either F/D switch is ON, the autopilot engages in the selected flight director mode(s) except TO and GA if both F/D switches are OFF, the autopilot engages in: • V/S as the pitch mode and HDG HOLD as the roll mode
26
Pg173 A/T arm switch ON arms which modes ?
arms autothrottle system for mode selection • autothrottle operates when N1, SPD, V NAV, FL CH, or GA switch is pushed • autothrottle operates when SPD switch is pushed and pitch mode is ALT HOLD, V/S or G/S.
27
Pg 173 Pressing the N1 switch will hold which thrust value ?
N1 annunciates on each FMA autothrottle holds reference thrust value displayed on EICAS subject to maximum speed limits
28
Pg174 speed switch controls thrust to maintain what ?
autothrottle controls thrust to maintain IAS or MACH displayed in the speed window subject to minimum and maximum speed limits
29
Pg 174 when does the speed window change from IAS to MACH in the climb or descent ?
In climb, changes from IAS to MACH at approximately .80 MACH. In descent, changes from MACH to IAS at approximately 300 KIAS.
30
Pg 175 When descending in VNAV PTH, pitch mode changes to VNAV SPD. How is speed and altitude managed by the FMC and A/T ?
-300 Aircraft descending in VNAV PTH, pitch mode changes to VNAV SPD. Selected speed maintained by pitch until airplane intercepts an altitude constraint and VNAV PTH reengages. Although, if on approach, pitch mode remains in VNAV PTH and autothrottle controls speed.
31
Pg 176 LNAV engages at what minimum altitude ? Within how many miles must you be of the active leg ?
50 feet RA 2.5 NM of the active leg
32
Pg173 what pitch modes use speed mode ?
autothrottle operates when SPD switch is pushed and pitch mode is ALT HOLD, V/S or G/S.
33
Pg 177 VNAV can deactivate in cruise without selecting another vertical mode when ?
passing top of descent point if the MCP is not set to an altitude below cruise altitude.
34
Pg177 how does FLIGHT LEVEL change work with pitch and thrust ?
AFDS pitch holds existing airspeed and A/T sets required thrust, limited by the thrust limit for climb and idle for descent. When selected altitude is reached, pitch mode changes to ALT HOLD and A/T changes to SPD mode
35
Pg181 The AFDS can capture the localizer with a maximum intercept angle of ?
120 degrees of localizer course
36
Pg182 The APP switch selected on the AFDS will capture the GS within how many degrees of localizer course ?
glideslope captures when intercept track angle to the localizer is within 80 degrees of localizer course
37
Pg184 what does LAND 3 annunciated mean ?
• indicates all three autopilot systems and their associated supporting airplane system inputs are operating normally • appears below 1500 feet radio altitude with LOC and G/S captured.
38
Pg184 what does LAND 2 annunciated mean ?
indicates a minimum of two autopilot systems and their associated supporting airplane system inputs are operating normally appears below 1500 feet radio altitude with LOC and G/S captured.
39
Pg190 what happens when you press the autopilot disengage switch ?
disconnects the autopilot • A/P DISC and master warning lights illuminate • displays the EICAS warning message AUTOPILOT DISC • sounds an aural warning • if the autopilot automatically disengages, resets the master warning lights, EICAS warning message, and the aural warning.
40
Pg191 when does the GA mode automatically ?
automatic arming occurs at glide slope capture or with extension of wing flaps regardless of FD position
41
Auto Pilot light
Illuminated (amber) – • • 3 a degraded operating condition exists in engaged autopilot extinguished when condition is corrected or an alternate autopilot is selected, provided fault is not common to alternate autopilot.
42
Land 3 indication means:
With a LAND 3 indication, the autopilot system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail operational).
43
Pg 197 Land 2 indication means:
With a LAND 2 indication, the level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive).
44
Pg 197 Explain the ASA display function below 200 ft.
Below 200 feet radio altitude the ASA display cannot change except to indicate a NO AUTOLND condition. Faults not requiring immediate crew action or awareness are annunciated after touchdown.
45
Pg198 Explain the different Auto Throttle modes
Autothrottle Modes Autothrottle annunciations are: • SPD – autothrottle controlling thrust to maintain speed selected in IAS/Mach or, if VNAV engaged, the speed as programmed by the FMC • IDLE – autothrottle is reducing or has reduced thrust to flight idle. It may engage in a VNAV descent. It will, after FLARE is engaged • THR HOLD – thrust levers remain in existing position or where manually placed • N1 – autothrottle controlling to the selected N1 reference thrust • FLCH – autothrottle controlling to a maximum of the selected mode reference thrust during climb, and to a minimum thrust during descent -300 Aircaft • GA – autothrottle controlling to a maximum reference thrust to maintain a climb rate of at least 2000 fpm. If both flight directors and the autopilot are off, autothrottle controls to go–around reference thrust subject to flap and VMO limit speeds
46
Pg 201 TO mode on the ground will have a initial pitch of how many degrees and after takeoff it will command pitch for what speed ?
On the ground, TO annunciates by selecting either F/D switch ON when both flight directors are OFF. The flight director pitch bar indicates an initial pitch of approximately eight degrees up. After takeoff, the AFDS commands a pitch attitude to maintain: • pitch command greater of V2 + 15 knots or liftoff speed + 15 • if current airspeed remains above the target speed for 5 seconds, target airspeed resets to current airspeed, to a maximum of V2 + 25 knots • IAS/MACH window speed if IAS/MACH window speed is changed to a speed greater than the target speed.
47
Pg 198 On a go around the GA mode of the auto throttles will control thrust to maintain how much V/S ?
autothrottle controlling to a maximum reference thrust to maintain a climb rate of at least 2000 fpm
48
Pg203 When is FLARE armed and activated ?
FLARE (armed) – during autoland, FLARE displays below 1500 feet radio altitude • FLARE (active) – during autoland, flare activates at 50 feet radio altitude. FLARE deactivates at touchdown and the nosewheel smoothly lowers to the runway.
49
Pg 203 what are the basic functions of the TMC ?
•calculate thrust limits and settings or follow FMC thrust settings detect and transmit autothrottle failures Actuates the thrust levers
50
Pg203 how can the auto throttle be disconnected manually and automatically?
A/T arm switch to OFF or by pushing either thrust lever A/T disconnect switch a fault in the active autothrottle mode is detected, or when a reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle
51
Pg203 how can the autothrottle system be controlled from the
MCP and the TMSP
52
Pg204 what thrust reference modes do we have on the TMSP
(TO, GA, CLB, CON, CRZ)
53
Pg 208 If an engine failure occurs on the ground, the pitch command target speed at lift–off is
V2 or airspeed at lift–off, whichever is greater
54
Pg208 FD TO modes are terminated by engaging a
-200/300 A/P in CMD, or selecting any other pitch or roll mode -300 A/T remains in THR HOLD mode at takeoff thrust until a pitch mode, A/T mode, or thrust reference mode select switch is pushed. The A/T then sets climb thrust or the selected reference thrust
55
Pg 209 AFDS controls rudder during multiple autopilot ILS approaches to compensate at what altitude?
actuated at 500 feet radio altitude with LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated
56
Pg210 FLARE mode engages at what altitude
50 feet radio altitude, the autopilots start the flare maneuver. FLARE replaces the G/S pitch flight mode annunciation.
57
Pg210 at what altitude does the autothrottle retard thrust Levers to IDLE ? What annunciation does it replace ?
15 feet radio altitude and replaces SPD autothrottle FMA
58
Pg211 at what altitude does ROLLOUT activate and what FMA does it replace ?
At approximately five feet radio altitude, rollout activates. ROLLOUT replaces the LOC roll flight mode annunciation.
59
214 GA mode remains armed until when ? Does the GA mode remain active after touchdown ? What if you are floating ?
GA remains armed until two seconds after five feet radio altitude. The mode remains active even if the airplane touches down while executing the go–around. It will remain in FLARE and the autothrottle go–around mode will engage.
60
Pg216 If the airplane is on the ground but has been below five feet radio altitude for less than two seconds when the GA switch is pushed, the autopilot GA pitch mode will
engage but the A/T mode will remain IDLE.
61
Pg 219 Automatic Flight EICAS caution Messages
AUTOPILOT AUTOTHROT DISC
62
Pg234 when would we use RF on the HF communication panel ?
increases sensitivity for reception of weak or distant station
63
Pg 245 how would you know have a SELCAL?
On the pilot call panel call , an aural chime and the SELCAL communication message on the EICAS display.
64
When does the voice recorder record ?
continuously anytime AC power is applied to the airplane.
65
Pg 304 Autoland electrical Above 200 feet, loss of a generator results in:
both bus tie breakers closing and the operating generator powers both left and right AC buses the left main system powers the center autopilot NO LAND 3 appears on the Autoland Status Annunciator.
66
Pg 304 Autoland electrical Below 200 feet, loss of a generator results in:
both bus tie breakers remaining open • the autopilot associated with a failed generator is unpowered • the flight instruments remain powered through the flight instrument transfer buses • the autoland continues using the remaining two autopilots.
67
Autoland electrical Below 200 feet, loss of a generator results in:
both bus tie breakers remain open • the autopilot associated with a failed generator is unpowered • the flight instruments remain powered through the flight instrument transfer buses • the autoland continues using the remaining two autopilots.
68
Pg 308 what do the TRUs do? What powers the TRUs ? What happens if one TRU fails ?
The TRUs produce DC power. The main AC busses power the TRUs. The DC bus tie breaker closes
69
What normally powers the Standby DC bus and battery bus ?
The left TRU thru the left main DC bus
70
What AC and DC busses does the HDG power?
The HDG provides AC power to: • the left AC transfer bus • the right AC transfer bus • the standby AC bus (through the left AC transfer bus) • the captain’s flight instrument transfer bus The HDG provides DC power to: • the hot battery bus • the battery bus • the standby DC bus.
71
What are the Electrical caution EICAS Messages
L AC BUS OFF R AC BUS OFF
72
Pg 347 on the EICAS what does each indication represent ?
2. N1 red line limit 3.N1 bug ( thrust mode selected by FMC,TMSP or manual mode ) 6. Limit N1 9. Command thrust sector
73
When would the inflight start envelope show ?
Fire switch must not be pulled. • a FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUT OFF, and • engine N2 RPM is below idle, and • primary and secondary EICAS displayed
74
When will the SEI display?
• display is blank with AC power on the airplane and EICAS operative • standby engine indications in view when: • AC power is lost • either CRT failed and STATUS selected on the ground • EICAS failed
75
When do igniters operate continuously ?
AUTO :selected ignitor(s) operate continuously with L.E. slats extended or engine anti-ice on CONT: selected ignitor(s) operate continuously FLT : both ignitors operate continuously regardless of ignition selector position
76
The EEC switch in the ON position controls what and how ?
ON – electronic engine control trims fuel flow for limiting N1 RPM when engine is accelerating at or near any thrust mode limit Off (ON not visible) – hydromechanical fuel control is scheduling fuel flow
77
What engines does the 767-300 have ?
General Electric CF6-80C2B6 engines
78
Pg 392 The TMC calculates a ————— based on ————— from ———— for what modes ?
The thrust management computer calculates a reference N1 based on existing pressure altitude and ambient temperature data from the air data system • TO – takeoff • D-TO – assumed temperature takeoff • CLB – climb • CLB 1 – climb one • CLB 2 – climb two • CRZ – cruise • CON – continuous • GA – go–around
79
Pg 396 how many engine idle speeds do we have ? How do they work and when ?
Minimum idle is a lower thrust than approach idle and selected for ground operation and all phases of flight except approach and landing.
80
Pg397 What is the normal power source for the igniters. How about the standby power ?
Main AC power is the normal power source for ignition. Standby AC power provides a backup source.
81
Engine APU caution messages
L EEC OFF R EEC OFF L ENG SHUTDOWN R ENG SHUTDOWN L STARTER CUTOUT R STARTER CUTOUT
82
When will the center forward panel FIRE light illuminate ?
an engine, APU, wheel well, or cargo fire is detected
83
What happens when you push the FWD ARMED cargo switch
• arms all cargo fire extinguisher bottles • turns off both recirculation fans
84
Pg422 What happens when you push the AFT ARMED cargo switch
• arms all cargo fire extinguisher bottles • turns off both the recirculation fans • inhibits high flow operation of both packs
85
What happens when you press the Cargo Fire Depressurization (DEPR) Switch ?
• shuts down right pack (two pack operation) • commands remaining pack to low flow • closes valves supplying air to cargo areas • closes main deck zone trim air valves • silences fire warning bell • illuminates warning in lavatory
86
System Fail (FAIL P – RESET) Light on indicates what ?
• engine fire • engine overheat • APU fire • cargo fire
87
Overheat detection systems are installed for
both engines, struts, and pneumatic ducts in the wing and body areas.
88
The fire warning lights remain illuminated as long as the fire signal exists. The fire bell may be silenced by any of the following actions:
• extinguishing the fire • pushing either master warning/caution reset switch • pulling the appropriate fire switch
89
When is the fire and overheat detection system tested ?
Automatic testing of the engine fire and overheat detectors, APU fire detectors and cargo compartment smoke detectors occurs when electrical power is initially applied
90
The fire protection WARNING and CAUTION EICAS messages
WARNINGS APU FIRE AFT CARGO FIRE FWD CARGO FIRE L ENGINE FIRE R ENGINE FIRE WHEEL WELL FIRE CAUTION L ENG OVHT R ENG OVHT
91
What do the STAB TRIM cutout switches do ?
shuts off the respective left or center hydraulic system power to the related stabilizer trim control module.
92
What does each light indicate ?
1. stabilizer trim rate is one–half the normal control wheel stabilizer trim switch rate. 2. uncommanded stabilizer motion detected.
93
Speed brake light illuminates when ?
Speedbrakes up and • radio altitude is 800 feet or below, or • flaps are in a landing position
94
When is the flap load relief system armed ?
Flaps 25,30
95
TRAILING EDGE LIGHT
• a flap disagree exists • a flap asymmetry exists • the flap load relief system is not operating when required
96
When are the slats between the retracted and midrange position.
Between UP and 1
97
What flaps position do slats go to fully extended ?
Flaps 25-30
98
How does the PES work ?
The Pitch Enhancement System (PES) consists of a hydraulic motor in the right system driving a pump which uses trapped left trim system fluid to operate the stabilizer
99
How the Mach trim system work ?
The SAM ( stabilizer/ aileron lockout module) receives data from the ADC,FCC and manual electric trim to determine if Mach trim is required. Engages only if autopilot is disconnected and no manual trim input. Activates at 0.33 mach increased up to 0.88 Mach
100
Alternate mode flap and slat extension is limited procedurally to what flap setting ? Do we have flap load relief in alternate mode ?
Flaps 20 NO
101
TE FLAP DISAGREE may occur when
The disagree indicates that the flaps are not driving toward their new commanded position or not in a detent for a extended period of time
102
Flight Controls CAUTION EICAS Messages
LE SLAT ASYM LE SLAT DISAGREE SPEEDBRAKES EXT TE FLAP ASYM TE FLAP DISAGREE UNSCHD STAB TRIM
103
When does the green rising runway show ?
Radio altitude below 2500 feet
104
What color are wind shear annunciations and what do they mean ?
Wind shear RED means it’s active and wind shear AMBER means approaching wind shear.
105
The NAV source selector in the normal position provides FMC information used by ? When would you use the CDU position ?
Captain : left and center symbol generator and FCC’s First officer : right symbol generator and FCC When both Left and right FMC have failed per the QRH. Route modifications must be done by latitude and longitude
106
What does the instrument source selector do?
Selects the FCC flight control computer (left, center, or right) used as the source of commands for the captain’s flight director display.
107
The EFI switch selected to the alternate position will
Use the alternate symbol generator, ILS receiver, and radio altimeter Both sides use center as the alternate.
108
The IRS switch selected to the alternate position will
Use the center IRS , center symbol generator for ADI and HSI information and opposite side pilot RDMI and on side pilot VSI information ( Heading,Attitude)
109
Selecting AIR DATA switch to alternate position will
Use opposite side ADC for Mach/airspeed indicator, primary altimeter, and vertical speed indicator
110
What is 5,6,8,9
#5 Maximum speed for : • Vmo/Mmo • landing gear placard speed, or • flap placard speed. #6 Maneuvering speed #8 Minimum maneuvering speed #9 Minimum speed : stick shaker activation 1.3 g maneuver capability occurs at 40 degrees of bank in level flight
111
What does the arrow symbol on a TA /RA mean ?
The arrow indicates traffic climbing or descending at a rate greater than or equal to 500 fpm. At rates less than 500 fpm, the arrow is not displayed
112
When the airplane is higher than 2,000 feet above the terrain, peaks contours are displayed in... when does it turn amber ?
3 green densities . If the airplane is 500 feet above the terrain .
113
When does the Flight recorder begin recording ?
• in flight • on the ground – either engine must also be operating.
114
What are the caution messages for Flight Instruments ?
ALT DISAGREE IAS DISAGREE INSTR SWITCH
115
CTR L FUEL PUMP message displays indicates what ? When this message displays what happens in the center tank ?
With either message displayed, a small amount of center tank fuel may be indicated. A scavenge system will operate automatically to transfer any remaining center tank fuel to the main tanks. Fuel scavenge begins when the main tanks are approximately half empty.
116
How is fuel jettisoned from the aircraft?
Fuel is jettisoned through nozzles inboard of each outboard aileron. The common fuel manifold allows jettison pumps in the center tank to pump fuel overboard.
117
What does FUEL DISAGREE–PROG 2 indicate?
The fuel totalizer and calculated fuel quantity disagree
118
Fuel system caution messages
LOW FUEL
119
What is the max usable fuel for the 767-300 no winglets?
160,264 pounds

767 AJT (23 decks)

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